Exam 2 -- Retina and Lens Flashcards

1
Q

Name the ten layers of the retina (from outer to inner)

A

RPE, PRL, ELM, ONL, OPL (contains MLM), INL, IPL, GCL, NFL, ILM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the role of AII cells?

A

Carries information from rod bipolars to ganglion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ellipsoid and myoid are two portions of photoreceptor inner segment. Which is inner, and which is outer? What does each contain?

A

Ellipsoid is outer and contains mitochondria, myoid is inner and contains golgi apparatus and ER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where do dot and blot hemorrhages occur?

A

They occur in the inner nuclear layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Approximately how many rods, cones, and ganglion cells do you have in each eye?

A

80-110 million rods, 4-5 million cones, and 1 million ganglion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How large is the macula lutea, and where is it in relation to the optic disc?

A

Diameter is 5.5 mm; its center is 3.5 mm lateral to the edge of the disc and 1 mm inferior to the center of the disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the diameter of the fovea?

A

1.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the diameter of the foveola? Thickness?

A

0.35 mm diameter, and 0.13 mm thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the diameter of the rod-free zone?

A

0.57 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the diameter of the capillary-free zone?

A

0.4-0.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the width of the parafoveal area?

A

0.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the width of the perifoveal area?

A

1.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the diameter of the optic disc?

A

1.7 mm horizontally, and 1.9 mm vertically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What marks the start of the parafoveal area?

A

When the INL is 12 cells thick and the GCL is 7 cells thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What marks the start of the perifoveal area?

A

When the GCL is 4 cells thick (it ends when the GCL is 1 cell thick.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In fluorescein angiography, which part of the artery is seen first? Later, which part of the vein is seen first?

A

Artery: core (then wall); vein: wall (then core)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or false: rod bipolars are all ON

A

True.

18
Q

Do cone ON bipolars synapse on the flat parts of the pedicles or the invaginating parts?

A

Invaginating

19
Q

Do cone OFF bipolars synapse on the flat parts of the pedicles or the invaginating parts?

A

Flat

20
Q

What is the thickness of the unaccommodated lens?

A

3.5-5.0 mm (increases by 0.02 mm per year

21
Q

What is the diameter of the unaccommodated lens?

A

6.5 mm in infancy; increases to 9 mm by age 9 and thereafter remains constant

22
Q

Give a brief rundown of the phototransduction activation cascade.

A

Photon strikes 11-cis-retinal, causing it to isomerize to all-trans-retinal, which causes a conformational change of rhodopsin to metarhodopsin II. Metarhodopsin II activates transducin (a G protein). Transducin in turn stimulates PDE to hydrolyze cGMP, which closes cation channels. This leads to a reduction of glutamate release.

23
Q

Give a brief rundown of the phototransduction deactivation cascade.

A

G protein receptor kinase activation is increased through recoverin, which became activated through decreased calcium levels. GRK phosphorylates metarhodopsin II at the C terminal. Arrestin can then come and bind to the phosphorylated site to stop all rhodopsin activity. Meanwhile, low levels of calcium allow activation of guanylate cyclase (through GCAP1 and 2), which in turn replenishes cGMP in order to reopen the cation channels and reestablish the dark current.

24
Q

What are the important roles of calcium in the phototransduction process?

A

Low levels of calcium allows for activation of guanylate cyclase (through disinhibition of GCAP1 and 2), which reactivates cGMP.
Low levels of calcium also lead to activation of GRK (through disinhibition of recoverin), which helps inactivate rhodopsin.
Low levels of calcium also increase affinity of cation channels for cGMP.

25
Q

What do the following forms of vitamin A do in the visual system?

  • Retinol
  • Retinal
  • Retinoic acid
  • Retinyl ester
A
  • Retinol = transport
  • Retinal = visual transduction
  • Retinoic acid = synthesis
  • Retinyl ester = storage
26
Q

What are some of the components of the interphotoreceptor matrix?

A
Sulfated glycosaminoglycans*
Interphotoreceptor binding protein
Basic fibroblast growth factor
Hyaluronan, hyaluronan binding proteoglycans
MMPs
27
Q

In both the lens and the retina, the majority of glucose is anaerobically metabolized. True or false: in the retina, anaerobic glucose metabolism produces the majority of ATP, but in the lens, aerobic metabolism produces most of the ATP.

A

False. Retina ATP production from anaerobic metabolism is relatively low at 13%, even though the anaerobic metabolism is 60% of the glucose. In the lens, anaerobic metabolism does indeed produce the most ATP (60% ATP production, 80% glucose usage).

28
Q

The RPE is associated with a lot of growth factors. What is PEDF, where is it expressed, and what does it do?

A

Pigment epithelium-derived factor; it is expressed on the neural side of the RPE; it protects neurons against glutamate-induced or hypoxia-induced apoptosis. It is an antiangiogenic factor that inhibits endothelial cell proliferation.

29
Q

The RPE is associated with a lot of growth factors. What is VEGF, where is it expressed, and what does it do?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor; it is expressed on the choriocapillary side of the RPE; it prevents endothelial cell apoptosis and is essential for intact choriocapillaris endothelium. It is also a permeability stabilizing factor for the fenestrations of the endothelium.

30
Q

The apical side of the RPE contains more potassium and has the sodium-potassium pumps, making this side more positive. The basolateral side has chloride channels, making this side more negative. True or false: RPE transports water and ions toward the choriocapillaris and glucose and other nutrients (vitamin A) toward the retina.

A

True.

31
Q

What is the lens capsule made of? What is its function? What syndrome affects one of these components?

A

Laminin and collagen IV. It functions as an anchor point for lens epithelial cells and also provides signals for these cells to proliferate, migrate, and differentiate. Alport syndrome is caused by a genetic mutation in the genes that regulate collagen synthesis.

32
Q

What are the characteristics of Alport syndrome?

A

Glomerulonephritis, hearing loss, lenticonus. (It can also present with dot and fleck retinopathy.)

33
Q

True or false: the microcirulation of the lens is characterized by flow in through the equator and out through the poles.

A

False; entry is at the poles and exit is at the equator.

34
Q

True or false: iron is good for the lens

A

False; higher levels of iron are associated with more reactive oxygen species that can contribute to cataract formation. Inflammation can increase iron concentration. (Iron is transported by transferrin and stored by ferritin.)

35
Q

What does ascorbate do?

A

It plays a role in protecting the lens against oxidants. Its concentration is higher in the lens than in the plasma.

36
Q

Crystallin protein is found in the lens. There is alpha, beta, and gamma types, and alpha has two subtypes (A and B). Which of the alpha subtypes is more abundant in the lens fibers, and which is in the epithelial cells? What do these subtypes do?

A

Alpha-A is in the fibers, and Alpha-B is in the epithelial cells. These acts as heat-shock proteins and ensure proper folding of proteins. They also inhibit apoptosis. (Alpha-B has been shown in Lewy bodies, which are associated with Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s diseases.)

37
Q

How do Beta and Gamma crystallins work together? Which of these is more prone to oxidative stress?

A

They form dimers together (having a Greek key motif), functioning to allow dense packing of proteins in order to minimize light scatter. Gamma has a lot of cysteines that can potentially form disulfide bonds, so it is more prone to oxidative stress.

38
Q

What are the different types of post-translational modifications that can occur with crystallins?

A

Ser, Thr, Tyr phosphorylation
Arg and Lys methylation
Lys acetylation
Met, Tyr, and Trp oxidations

39
Q

Which of the crystallin types (Alpha, Beta, or Gamma) is the largest? Which is the most abundant?

A

Alpha is the largest; Beta is the most abundant.

40
Q

In terms of cataracts, you can have (in terms of prevalence) nuclear sclerotic, cortical cataract, and subcapsular cataract (usually found posterior). What causes posterior subcapsular cataracts?

A

Epithelial cells that fail to properly differentiate into fibers. Steroids can cause posterior subcapsular cataracts, as can diabetes and defects of galactose metabolism.