Exam 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Fetal bradycardia is most common during:

A. Maternal hyperthyroidism
B. Fetal anemia
C. Viral infection
D. Tocolytic treatment using ritodrine

A

C. Viral infection

Fetal bradycardia can be considered a later sign of fetal hypoxia and is known to occur before fetal death. Bradycardia can result from placental transfer of drugs, viral infections such as cytomegalovirus (CMV), maternal hypothermia, and maternal hypothermia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman understands that accelerations with fetal movement:

A. Are reassuring
B. Are caused by umbilical cord compression
C. Warrant close observation
D. Are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency

A

A. Are reassuring

Episodic accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) occur during fetal movement and are indications of fetal well-being.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most common cause of decreased variability in the FHR that lasts 30 minutes or less is:

A. Altered cerebral blood flow
B. Fetal hypoxemia
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Fetal sleep cycles

A

D. Fetal sleep cycles

A temporary decrease in variability can occur when the fetus is in a sleep state. These sleep states do not usually last longer than 30 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You are evaluating the fetal monitor tracing of your client, who is in active labor. Suddenly you see the fetal heart rate (FHR) drop from its baseline of 125 down to 80. You reposition the mother, provide oxygen, increase IV fluid, and perform a vaginal exam. The cervix has not changed. Five minutes have passed, and the FHR remains in the 80s. What additional nursing measures should you take?

A. Call for help.
B. Insert a Foley catheter.
C. Start oxytocin (Pitocin).
D. Notify the primary health care provider immediately.

A

D. Notify the primary health care provider immediately.

To relieve an FHR deceleration the nurse can reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen. Also if oxytocin is infusing, it should be discontinued. If the FHR does not resolve, the primary health care provider should be notified immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When using intermittent auscultation (IA) to assess uterine activity, nurses should be aware that:

A. The examiner’s hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions

B. The frequency and duration of contractions are measured in seconds for consistency

C. Contraction intensity is given a judgment number of 1 to 7 by the nurse and client together

D. The resting tone between contractions is described as either placid or turbulent

A

A. The examiner’s hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions

The assessment is done by palpation; duration, frequency, intensity, and resting tone must be assessed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A nurse caring for a woman in labor understands that increased variability of the fetal heart rate might be caused by:

A. Narcotics
B. Barbiturates
C. Methamphetamines
D. Tranquilizers

A

C. Methamphetamines

The use of illicit drugs such as cocaine or methamphetamines might cause increased variability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In documenting labor experiences, nurses should know that a uterine contraction is described according to all of these characteristics except:

A. Frequency (how often contractions occur)

B. Intensity (the strength of the contraction at its peak)

C. Resting tone (the tension in the uterine muscle)

D. Appearance (shape and height)

A

D. Appearance (shape and height)

Uterine contractions are described in terms of frequency, intensity, duration, and resting tone. Appearance is not a term used to describe contractions. Duration is another characteristic of uterine contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by:

A. Change in position
B. Oxytocin administration
C. Regional anesthesia
D. Intravenous analgesic

A

A. Change in position

Maternal supine hypotension syndrome is caused by the weight and pressure of the gravid uterus on the ascending vena cava when the woman is in a supine position. This reduces venous return to the woman’s heart, as well as cardiac output, and subsequently reduces her blood pressure. The nurse can encourage the woman to change positions and avoid the supine position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by:

A. The response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs)

B. Maternal pain control
C. Accelerations in the FHR
D. An FHR greater than 110 beats/min

A

A. The response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs)

Fetal well-being during labor can be measured by the response of the FHR to UCs. In general, reassuring FHR patterns are characterized by an FHR baseline in the range of 110 to 160 beats/min with no periodic changes, a moderate baseline variability, and accelerations with fetal movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A group of fetal monitoring experts (National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, 2008) recommends that fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings demonstrate certain characteristics to be described as reassuring or normal (category I). This includes:

A. Bradycardia not accompanied by baseline variability

B. Early decelerations, either present or absent

C. Sinusoidal pattern

D. Tachycardia

A

B. Early decelerations, either present or absent

Early decelerations, the absence of late decelerations, and the presence of accelerations indicate a normal category I tracing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A woman in active labor receives an opioid agonist analgesic. Which medication relieves severe, persistent, or recurrent pain, creates a sense of well-being, overcomes inhibitory factors, and may even relax the cervix but should be used cautiously in women with cardiac disease?

A. Meperidine (Demerol)
B. Promethazine (Phenergan)
C. Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol)
D. Nalbuphine (Nubain)

A

A. Meperidine (Demerol)

Meperidine is the most commonly used opioid agonist analgesic for women in labor throughout the world. It overcomes inhibitory factors in labor and may even relax the cervix. Because tachycardia is a possible adverse reaction, meperidine is used cautiously in women with cardiac disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A woman in the active phase of the first stage of labor is using a shallow pattern of breathing, which is about twice the normal adult breathing rate. She starts to complain about feeling lightheaded and dizzy and states that her fingers are tingling. The nurse should:

A. Notify the woman’s physician

B. Tell the woman to slow the pace of her breathing

C. Administer oxygen via a mask or nasal cannula

D. Help her breathe into a paper bag

A

D. Help her breathe into a paper bag

This woman is experiencing the side effects of hyperventilation, which include the symptoms of lightheadedness, dizziness, tingling of the fingers, or circumoral numbness. Having the woman breathe into a paper bag held tightly around her mouth and nose may eliminate respiratory alkalosis. The woman can also breathe into her cupped hands if no paper bag is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A woman is experiencing back labor and complains of intense pain in her lower back. An effective relief measure is to use:

A. Counterpressure against the sacrum

B. Pant-blow (breaths and puffs) breathing techniques

C. Effleurage

D. Biofeedback

A

A. Counterpressure against the sacrum

Counterpressure is steady pressure applied by a support person to the sacral area with the fist or heel of the hand. This technique helps the woman cope with the sensations of internal pressure and pain in the lower back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nurses should be aware of the difference experience can make in labor pain, such as:

A. Sensory pain for nulliparous women often is greater than for multiparous women during early labor

B. Affective pain for nulliparous women usually is less than for multiparous women throughout the first stage of labor

C. Women with a history of substance abuse experience more pain during labor

D. Multiparous women have more fatigue from labor and therefore experience more pain

A

A. Sensory pain for nulliparous women often is greater than for multiparous women during early labor

Sensory pain is greater for nulliparous women because their reproductive tract structures are less supple.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the current practice of childbirth preparation, emphasis is placed on:

A. The Dick-Read (natural) childbirth method
B. The Lamaze (psychoprophylactic) method
C. The Bradley (husband-coached) method
D. Encouraging expectant parents to attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method

A

D. Encouraging expectant parents to attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method

Encouraging expectant parents to attend class is most important, because preparation increases a woman’s confidence and thus her ability to cope with labor and birth. Gaining in popularity are Birthing from Within and Hypnobirthing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

With regard to breathing techniques during labor, maternity nurses should be aware that:

A. Breathing techniques in the first stage of labor are designed to increase the size of the abdominal cavity to reduce friction

B. By the time labor has begun, it is too late for instruction in breathing and relaxation

C. Controlled breathing techniques are most difficult near the end of the second stage of labor

D. The patterned-paced breathing technique can help prevent hyperventilation

A

A. Breathing techniques in the first stage of labor are designed to increase the size of the abdominal cavity to reduce friction

First-stage techniques promote relaxation of abdominal muscles, thereby increasing the size of the abdominal cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

With regard to what might be called the tactile approaches to comfort management, nurses should be aware that:

A. Either hot or cold applications may provide relief, but they should never be used together in the same treatment

B. Acupuncture can be performed by a skilled nurse with just a little training

C. Hand and foot massage may be especially relaxing in advanced labor when a woman’s tolerance for touch is limited

D. Therapeutic touch (TT) uses handheld electronic stimulators that produce sympathetic vibrations

A

C. Hand and foot massage may be especially relaxing in advanced labor when a woman’s tolerance for touch is limited

The woman and her partner should experiment with massage before labor to see what might work best.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With regard to systemic analgesics administered during labor, nurses should be aware that:

A. Systemic analgesics cross the maternal blood-brain barrier as easily as they do the fetal blood-brain barrier

B. Effects on the fetus and newborn can include decreased alertness and delayed sucking

C. IM administration is preferred over IV administration

D. IV patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) results in increased use of an analgesic

A

B. Effects on the fetus and newborn can include decreased alertness and delayed sucking

Effects depend on the specific drug given, the dosage, and the timing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

With regard to spinal and epidural (block) anesthesia, nurses should know that:

A. This type of anesthesia is commonly used for cesarean births but is not suitable for vaginal births

B. A high incidence of postbirth headache is seen with spinal blocks

C. Epidural blocks allow the woman to move freely

D. Spinal and epidural blocks are never used together

A

B. A high incidence of postbirth headache is seen with spinal blocks

Headaches may be prevented or mitigated to some degree by a number of methods. An autologous epidural blood patch is the most rapid, reliable, and beneficial relief measure for a spinal headache.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

After change of shift report the nurse assumes care of a multiparous client in labor. The woman is complaining of pain that radiates to her abdominal wall, lower back, buttocks, and down her thighs. Before implementing a plan of care, the nurse should understand that this type of pain is:

A. Visceral
B. Referred
C. Somatic
D. Afterpain

A

B. Referred

As labor progresses the woman often experiences referred pain. This occurs when pain that originates in the uterus radiates to the abdominal wall, the lumbosacral area of the back, the gluteal area, and thighs. The woman usually has pain only during a contraction and is free from pain between contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The breasts of a bottle-feeding woman are engorged. The nurse should instruct her to:

A. Wear a snug, supportive bra

B. Allow warm water to soothe the breasts during a shower

C. Express milk from breasts occasionally to relieve discomfort

D. Place absorbent pads with plastic liners into her bra to absorb leakage

A

A. Wear a snug, supportive bra

A snug, supportive bra limits milk production and reduces discomfort by supporting the tender breasts and limiting their movement. Ice packs, fresh cabbage leaves, and mild analgesics may also relieve discomfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A woman gave birth to a 7-lb, 3-oz boy 2 hours ago. The nurse determines that the woman’s bladder is distended because her fundus is now 3 cm above the umbilicus and to the right of the midline. In the immediate postpartum period, the most serious consequence likely to occur from bladder distention is:

A. Urinary tract infection
B. Excessive uterine bleeding
C. A ruptured bladder
D. Bladder wall atony

A

B. Excessive uterine bleeding

Excessive bleeding can occur immediately after birth if the bladder becomes distended because it pushes the uterus up and to the side and prevents it from contracting firmly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What statement by a newly delivered woman indicates that she knows what to expect about her menstrual activity after childbirth?

A. “My first menstrual cycle will be lighter than normal and then will get heavier every month thereafter.”

B. “My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles.”

C. “I will not have a menstrual cycle for 6 months after childbirth.”

D. “My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and then will be light for several months after.”

A

B. “My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles.”

This is an accurate statement and indicates her understanding of her expected menstrual activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

With regard to afterbirth pains, nurses should be aware that these pains are:

A. Caused by mild, continual contractions for the duration of the postpartum period

B. More common in first-time mothers

C. More noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended

D. Alleviated somewhat when the mother breastfeeds

A

C. More noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended

A large baby or multiple babies overdistend the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Postbirth uterine/vaginal discharge, called lochia:

A. Is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours

B. Is usually greater after cesarean births

C. Will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding

D. Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present

A

D. Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present

An offensive odor usually indicates an infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which description of postpartum restoration or healing times is accurate?

A. The cervix shortens, becomes firm, and returns to form within a month postpartum.

B. Rugae reappear within 3 to 4 weeks.

C. Most episiotomies heal within a week.

D. Hemorrhoids usually decrease in size within 2 weeks of childbirth.

A

B. Rugae reappear within 3 to 4 weeks.

Rugae are never again as prominent as in a nulliparous woman. Localized dryness may occur until ovarian function resumes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

With regard to the condition and reconditioning of the urinary system after childbirth, nurses should be aware that:

A. Kidney function returns to normal a few days after birth

B. Diastasis recti abdominis is a common condition that alters the voiding reflex

C. Fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output account for a weight loss of more than 2 kg during the puerperium

D. With adequate emptying of the bladder, bladder tone usually is restored 2 to 3 weeks after childbirth

A

C. Fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output account for a weight loss of more than 2 kg during the puerperium

Excess fluid loss through other means occurs as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

As part of the postpartum assessment, the nurse examines the breasts of a primiparous breastfeeding woman who is 1 day postpartum. An expected finding is:

A. Little if any change

B. Leakage of milk at let-down

C. Swollen, warm and tender on palpation

D. A few blisters and a bruise on each areola

A

A. Little if any change

Breasts are essentially unchanged for the first 24 hours after birth. Colostrum is present and may leak from the nipples.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Afterpain

A

Pain experienced during the third stage of labor or afterward during the early postpartum period is uterine. This pain is very similar to that experienced in the first stage of labor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Somatic Pain

A

Somatic pain is described as intense, sharp, burning, and well localized. This results from stretching of the perineal tissues and the pelvic floor. This occurs during the second stage of labor.


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Referred Pain

A

As labor progresses the woman often experiences referred pain. This occurs when pain that originates in the uterus radiates to the abdominal wall, the lumbosacral area of the back, the gluteal area, and thighs. The woman usually has pain only during a contraction and is free from pain between contractions.


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Visceral pain

A

is that which predominates the first stage of labor. This pain originates from cervical changes, distention of the lower uterine segment, and uterine ischemia. Visceral pain is located over the lower portion of the abdomen.



How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When assessing a newborn, a nurse should be aware that the average expected expected apical pulse range of a full-term, quiet, alert newborn is:

A. 120 to 160 beats/ min

B. 150 to 180 beats/min

C. 100 to 120 beats/min

D. 80 to 100 beats/min

A

A. 120 to 160 beats/ min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The nurse administers vitamin K to the newborn for what reason?

A. Most mothers have a diet deficient in vitamin K, which results in the infant being deficient.

B. Bitamin K prevents the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver and must be given by injection.

C. The supply of vitamin K is inadequate for at least 3 to 4 months, and the newborn must be supplemented.

D. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborn’s intestinal tract.

A

D. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborn’s intestinal tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An African-American woman noticed some bruises on her newborn girl’s buttocks. She asks the nurse who spanked her daughter. The nurse explains that these marks are called”

A. Mongolian spots

B. Nevus flammeus

C. Vascular nevi

D. Lanugo

A

A. Mongolian spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

An infant boy was born a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed:

A. Once by the obstetrician, just after birth

B. Every 15 minutes during the newborn’s first hour after birth

C. At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth

D. Only if the newborn is in obvious distress

A

C. At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant’s eyes and shy it is needed. The nurse explains to the father that the purpose o the erythromycin (Ilotycin) ophthalmic ointment is to:

A. Destroy an infectious exucate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind

B. Preent potentiallyharmfkul exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant’s eyes, leading to dry eyes

C. Prevent the infant’s eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see

D. Prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant’s eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal

A

D. Prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant’s eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal

38
Q

As part of Standard Precautions, nurses wear gloves when handling the newborn. The chief reason is:

A. To protect the nurse from contamination by the newborn

B. It is part of the Apgar protocol

C. To protect the baby from infection

D. Because the nurse has primary responsibility for the baby during the first 2 hours

A

A. To protect the nurse from contamination by the newborn

39
Q

The normal term infant has little difficulty clearing its airway after birth. Most secretions are brought up to the oropharynx by the cough reflex. However, if the infant has excess secretions, the mouth and nasal passages can easily be cleared with a bulb syringe. When instructing parents on the correct use of this piece of equipment, it is important that the nurse teach them to:

A. Suction the mouth first

B. Remove the bulb syringe fro the crib when finished

C. Insert the compressed bulb into the center of the mouth

D. Avoid suctioning the nares

A

A. Suction the mouth first

40
Q

With regard to the functioning of the renal system in newborns, nurses should be aware that:

A. “Brick dust” or blood on a diaper is always cause to notify the physician

B. Weight loss from fluid loss and other normal factors should be made up in 4 to 7 days

C. The pediatrician should be notified if the newborn has not voided in 24 hours

D. Breastfed infancts likely will void more often during the first days after birth

A

C. The pediatrician should be notified if the newborn has not voided in 24 hours

41
Q

Nurses can help parents deal with the issue and fact of circumcision if they explain:

A. That circumcision is rarely painful and that any discomfort can be managed without medication

B. The pros and cons of the procedure during the prenatal period

C. That the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that all newborn males be routinely circumcised

D. That the infant will likely be alert and hungry shortly after the procedure

A

B. The pros and cons of the procedure during the prenatal period

42
Q

The cheese-like whitish substance that fuses with teh epidermis and serves as a protective coating is called:

A. Vernix caseosa

B. Acrocyanosis

C. Surfactant

D. Caput succedaneum

A

A. Vernix caseosa

43
Q

A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the baby’s hands and feet are blue. The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called:

A. Erythema neonatorum

B. Vernix case0sa

C. Acrocyanosis

D. Harlequin color

A

C. Acrocyanosis

44
Q

The nurse assessing a newborn knows that the most critical physiologic change required of the newborn is:

A. Initiation and maintenance of respirations

B. Maintenance of a stable temperature

C. Full function of the immune defense system at birth

D. Closure of fetal shunts in the circulatory system

A

A. Initiation and maintenance of respirations

45
Q

By knowing about variations in infants’ blood counts, nurses can explain to their clients that:

A. Even a modest vitamin K deficiency means a problem with the blood’s ability to clot properly

B. Platelet counts are higher than in adults for a few months

C. The early high white blood cell count (WBC) is normal at birth and should decrease rapidly

D. A somewhat lower than expected red blood cell count could be the result of delay in clamping the umbilical cord

A

C. The early high white blood cell count (WBC) is normal at birth and should decrease rapidly

46
Q

Pain should be assessed regularly in all newborn infants. If the infant is displaying physiologic or behavioral cures indicating pain, measures should be taken to manage the pain. Examples of nonpharmacologic pain management techniques include (choose all that apply):

A. Skin-to-skin contact with the mother

B. Acetaminophen

C. Nonnutritive sucking

D. Swaddling

E. Sucrose

A

A. Skin-to-skin contact with the mother
C. Nonnutritive sucking
D. Swaddling

47
Q

At 1 minute after birth a nurse assesses an infant and notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min, some flexion of extremities a weak cry, grimacing, and a pink body but blue extremities. The nurse calculates an Apgar score of:

A. 7

B. 4

C. 6

D. 5

A

D. 5

48
Q

What measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the best response that indicates the priority of actions that should be taken, starting with the most important.

A. Call the healthcare provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal exam.

B. Reposition the mother, provide oxygen via non rebreather face mask, and increase IV fluids, and notify the healthcare provider.

C. Administer oxygen to the mother via non rebreather face mask, increase IV fluids, and notify the health care provider.

D. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via non rebreather face mask.

A

B. Reposition the mother, provide oxygen via non rebreather face mask, and increase IV fluids, and notify the healthcare provider.

Basic interventions for management of any abnormal fetal heart rate pattern includes administer oxygen by nonrebreather face mask at a rate of 10 to 15 Liters/min, assist the woman to a side-lying (lateral) position, and increase blood volume by increasing the rate of the primary IV infusion (IV fluid bolus). The purpose of these interventions is to improve uterine blood flow and intervillous space blood flow and increase maternal oxygenation and cardiac output. The term intrauterine resuscitation is sometimes used to refer to these interventions. Performing a vaginal examination would not be helpful at this time.

49
Q

As a perinatal nurse, you realize that a fetal heart rate (FHR) that is tachycardic, bradycardic, has late decelerations, or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with:

A. Hypotension.

B. Cord compression.

C. Maternal drug use.

D. Hypoxemia.

A

D. Hypoxemia.

Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Fetal variable decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia.

50
Q

A woman has requested an epidural for her pain. She is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The baby is in a vertex position and is engaged. The nurse increases the woman’s IV fluid for a pre procedural bolus. Prior to initiation of the epidural the woman should be informed regarding the disadvantages of an epidural block. They include all except:

A. Ability to move freely is limited

B. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness

C. Gastric emptying is not delayed

D. Higher rate of fever

A

C. Gastric emptying is not delayed

This is an advantage of an epidural block. Other advantages include the woman remains alert and able to participate, good relaxation is achieved, airway reflexes remain intact, only partial motor paralysis develops and blood loss is not excessive. The woman’s ability to move freely and to maintain control of her labor is limited, related to the use of numerous medical interventions (IV and electronic fetal monitoring [EFM]). Significant disadvantages of an epidural block include the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, sedation, and leg weakness. Women who receive an epidural have a higher rate of fever (38° C or greater) especially when labor lasts longer than 12 hours. This may result in an unnecessary neonatal workup for sepsis.

51
Q

Benzodiazepines (Valium, Ativan), when given in conjunction with opioid analgesia, appear to enhance pain relief and reduce nausea and vomiting. Because of the positive effects of this combination, benzodiazepines are frequently used during labor. Is this statement true or false?

A

False

Because all benzodiazepines cause significant maternal amnesia, their use should be avoided during labor. Another major disadvantage is the subsequent disruption of thermoregulation in the newborn.

52
Q

Opioids such as hydromorphone, fentanyl, and meperidine can cause excessive central nervous system (CNS) depression in both the mother and newborn. Opioid antagonists such as naloxone (Narcan) can promptly reverse the CNS depressant effects, especially respiratory depression. The RN should use caution in administering naloxone to opioid-dependent women in labor. Is this statement true or false?

A

True

An opioid antagonist is contraindicated for any opioid-dependent woman because it may precipitate abstinence syndrome (withdrawal symptoms).

53
Q

A nurse caring for a woman in labor should understand that minimal variability is classified as either abnormal or indeterminate. Which condition related to decreased variability is considered benign?

A. A periodic fetal sleep state.

B. Extreme prematurity.

C. Fetal hypoxemia.

D. Preexisting neurologic injury.

A

A. A periodic fetal sleep state.

When the fetus is temporarily in a sleep state there is minimal variability present. Periodic fetal sleep states usually last no longer than 30 minutes. A woman who presents in labor with extreme prematurity may display a fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern of minimal or absent variability. Abnormal variability may also be related to fetal hypoxemia and metabolic acidemia. Congenital anomalies or preexisting neurologic injury may also present as absent or minimal variability. Other possible causes might be central nervous system (CNS) depressant medications, narcotics, or general anesthesia.

54
Q

After your client receives an epidural, what would be your priority nursing action?

A. Assess fetal heart monitor for accelerations.

B. Evaluate her blood pressure.

C. Place her on the right side.

D. Decrease her IV fluids to prevent fluid overload.

A

B. Evaluate her blood pressure.

A side effect of an epidural is hypotension from the vasodilation which occurs. The client must be well hydrated before and after the procedure. Assessing the fetal monitor is important as ongoing management but is not a priority, plus you would expect late decelerations from hypotension not accelerations. The client would be placed on her left side to promote optimal uterine perfusion

55
Q

You are caring for a laboring client and note the following fetal monitor strip. (Shows Late Decelerations) If this pattern continues what would be your first course of action?

.

A

Position change

Remember VEAL CHOP. Variables as seen above are from cord compression which would need position changes to hopefully fix.

56
Q

Your client experiences the following fetal heart rate pattern. (shows prolonged late deceleration) Your initial action would be:

A. Document your findings as this is normal.

B. Call for assistance for possible stat C/section if interventions do not improve strip.

C. Leave the room to notify the healthcare provider.

D. Calmly explain to client what is going on.

A

B. Call for assistance for possible stat C/section if interventions do not improve strip.

This is a prolonged deceleration, already lasting 3 1/2 minutes. Actions would need to be quick and include prepping for possible stat C/section. After 10 minutes of prolonged cord compression, fetal brain damage would occur so very little time remains to get the fetus out. Interventions might include position change, oxygen, turn off pitocin or terbutaline administration to decrease uterine activity, IV fluid bolus, notify healthcare provider. You would need help to accomplish all these quickly.

57
Q

When using intermittent auscultation (IA) for a fetal heart rate (FHR), nurses should be aware that:

A. They can be expected to cover only two or three clients when IA is the primary method of fetal assessment

B. The best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) when documenting results

C. If the heartbeat cannot be found immediately, a shift must be made to electronic monitoring

D. Ultrasound can be used to find the FHR and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor

A

D. Ultrasound can be used to find the FHR and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor

Locating fetal heartbeats often takes time. Mothers can be reassured verbally and by the ultrasound pictures if that device is used to help locate the heartbeat. When used as the primary method of fetal assessment, IA requires a nurse-to-client ratio of one to one. Documentation should use only terms that can be numerically defined; the usual visual descriptions of EFM are inappropriate. Locating fetal heartbeats often takes time. Mothers can be reassured verbally and by the ultrasound pictures if that device is used to help locate the heartbeat.

58
Q

Your client has the following fetal heart rate strip (Fetal late Decelerations). Which of the following interventions would be appropriate? (choose all that apply).

A. increase IV fluid rate (bolus)

B. position change

C. document findings as this is normal

D. start oxygen at 10 liters/minute by nonrebreather face mask

E. decrease uterine activity by turning off pitocin or administering terbutaline

F. notify healthcare provider for possible stat C/section

A

A. increase IV fluid rate (bolus)
B. position change
D. start oxygen at 10 liters/minute by nonrebreather face mask
E. decrease uterine activity by turning off pitocin or administering terbutaline
F. notify healthcare provider for possible stat C/section

The monitor strip demonstrates an ominous fetal heart rate pattern, late decelerations with absent variabilty. If interventions do not improve the strip, this is a category 3 tracing and would require C/section.

59
Q

To evaluate for adverse reactions of a narcotic injection, the nurse would observe:

A. Elevated temperature.

B. Hypertension.

C. Decreased pulse rate.

D. Increased respirations.

A

C. Decreased pulse rate.

Narcotics can cause a decrease in heart rate. A is irrelevant. B is incorrect because hypotension will result. D is incorrect because respiratory depression will result.

60
Q

When assessing the relative advantages of internal electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), nurses should be cognizant of which of the following clients is not an appropriate choice for this type of fetal surveillance:

A. A client who still has intact membranes

B. A woman whose fetus is well engaged in the pelvis

C. A pregnant woman who has a comorbidity of obesity

D. A client whose cervix is dilated to 4 to 5 cm

A

A. A client who still has intact membranes

For internal monitoring, the membranes must have ruptured and the cervix must be sufficiently dilated. The presenting part must be low enough to allow placement of the spiral electrode necessary for internal monitoring. The accuracy of internal monitoring is not affected by maternal size. It may be more difficult to evaluate fetal well-being using external EFM on an obese client. This client is indeed a candidate for internal monitoring. The cervix must be at least 2 to 3 cm dilated.

61
Q

External fetal monitoring cannot detect the ____________________ of uterine contractions.

A

Intensity
Strength

An intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) is necessary to monitor the intensity or strength of the contractions. The IUPC measures the intrauterine pressure at the catheter tip and converts this pressure into millimeters of mercury on the uterine activity panel of the fetal monitor strip. External monitoring can only measure the frequency and duration of contractions.

62
Q

A woman who is pregnant for the first time is dilated 3 cm and having contractions every 5 minutes. She is groaning and perspiring excessively; she states that she did not attend childbirth classes. The most important nursing action is to:

A. Notify the woman’s health care provider

B. Administer the prescribed narcotic analgesic

C. Assure her that her labor will be over soon

D. Assist her with simple breathing and relaxation instructions

A

D. Assist her with simple breathing and relaxation instructions

By reducing tension and stress, focusing and relaxation techniques allow the woman in labor to rest and conserve energy for the task of giving birth. For those who have had no preparation, instruction in simple breathing and relaxation can be given in early labor and often is successful. The nurse can perform many functions in labor and birth independently, such as teaching and support. Pain medication may be an option for this client. However, the initial response of the nurse should include educating the client about her options. The length of labor varies among individuals, but the first stage of labor is the longest. At 3 cm of dilation with contractions every 5 minutes, this woman has a significant amount of labor yet to experience.

63
Q

What is the priority nursing action prior to the administration of an epidural?

A. Have the client sign her consent form.

B. Administer a sedative to relax the client.

C. Administer a fluid bolus to the client.

D. Change the client’s position.

A

C. Administer a fluid bolus to the client.

Clients are prone to hypotension, therefore must be well hydrated prior to epidural placement. It is anesthesia’s responsibility to obtain the consent, but the nurse should check to be sure that this has already been done and the nurse can also clarify information if needed.

64
Q

A nurse caring for a laboring woman is cognizant that early decelerations are caused by:

A. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow

B. Umbilical cord compression

C. Uteroplacental insufficiency

D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes

A

A. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow

Remember VEAL CHOP, head compression is same thing as altered fetal cerebral blood flow.

65
Q

An 18-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 1, is admitted to the labor and birth unit with moderate contractions every 5 minutes that last 40 seconds. The woman states, “My contractions are so strong, I don’t know what to do.” The nurse should:

A. Assess for fetal well-being

B. Encourage the woman to lie on her side

C. Disturb the woman as little as possible

D. Recognize that pain is personalized for each individual

A

D. Recognize that pain is personalized for each individual

Each woman’s pain during childbirth is unique and is influenced by a variety of physiologic, psychosocial, and environmental factors. A critical issue for the nurse is how support can make a difference in the pain of the woman during labor and birth. This scenario includes no information that would indicate fetal distress or a logical reason to be overly concerned about the well-being of the fetus. The left lateral position is used to alleviate fetal distress, not maternal stress. The nurse has an obligation to provide physical, emotional, and psychosocial care and support to the laboring woman. This client clearly needs support.

66
Q

Your client is in early labor and you are discussing the pain relief options that she is considering. She states that she wants an epidural “no matter what!” Your best response is:

A. “I’ll make sure that you get your epidural.”

B. “You may only have an epidural if your doctor allows it.”

C. “You may only have an epidural if you are going to deliver vaginally.”

D. “The type of analgesia or anesthesia used is determined in part by the stage of your labor and the method of birth.”

A

D. “The type of analgesia or anesthesia used is determined in part by the stage of your labor and the method of birth.”

To avoid suppression of the progress of labor, pharmacologic measures for pain relief generally are not implemented until labor has advanced to the active phase of the first stage and the cervix is dilated approximately 4 to 5 cm. A plan of care is developed for each woman to address her particular clinical and nursing problems. The nurse collaborates with the primary health care provider and the laboring woman in selecting features of care relevant to the woman and her family. The decision whether to use an epidural to relieve labor pain is multifactorial. The nurse should not make a blanket statement guaranteeing the client one pharmacologic option over another until a complete history and physical examination has been obtained. A physician’s order is required for pharmacologic options for pain management. However, this is not the nurse’s best response. An epidural is an effective pharmacologic pain management option for many laboring women. It can also be used for anesthesia control if the woman undergoes an operative delivery.

67
Q

Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate (FHR) does not require the nurse to change the maternal position?

A. Early decelerations.

B. Late decelerations.

C. Variable decelerations.

D. It is always a good idea to change the woman’s position.

A

A. Early decelerations.

Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention. Late decelerations suggest that the nurse should change the maternal position (lateral). Variable decelerations also require a maternal position change (side to side). Although changing positions throughout labor is recommended, it is not required in response to early decelerations.

68
Q

Perineal care is an important infection control measure. When evaluating a postpartum woman’s perineal care technique, the nurse would recognize the need for further instruction if the woman:

A. Uses soap and warm water to wash the vulva and perineum

B. Washes from symphysis pubis back to the episiotomy

C. Changes her perineal pad every 2 to 3 hours

D. Uses the peribottle to rinse upward into her vagina

A

D. Uses the peribottle to rinse upward into her vagina

69
Q

On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. The nurse’s first action is to:

A. Begin an IV infusion of Ringer’s lactate solution

B. Assess the woman’s vital signs

C. Call the woman’s primary health care provider

D. Massage the woman’s fundus

A

D. Massage the woman’s fundus

70
Q

Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; however, the most common is:

A. Vaginal or vulvar hematomas
B. Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix
C. Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly
D. Retained placental fragments

A

C. Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly

71
Q

Baby-friendly hospitals mandate that infants be put to breast within the first _______ after birth.

A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 4 hours

A

A. 1 hour

72
Q

Which finding would be a source of concern if noted during the assessment of a woman who is 12 hours’ postpartum?

A. Postural hypotension
B. Temperature of 38° C
C. Bradycardia-pulse rate of 55 beats/min
D. Pain in left calf with dorsiflexion of left foot

A

D. Pain in left calf with dorsiflexion of left foot

73
Q

The nurse examines a woman 1 hour after birth. The woman’s fundus is boggy, midline, and 1 cm below the umbilicus. Her lochial flow is profuse, with two plum-sized clots. The nurse’s initial action is to:

A. Place her on a bedpan to empty her bladder
B. Massage her fundus
C. Call the physician
D. Administer methylergonovine (Methergine), 0.2 mg IM, which has been ordered prn

A

B. Massage her fundus

74
Q

Two hours after giving birth a primiparous woman becomes anxious and complains of intense perineal pain with a strong urge to have a bowel movement. Her fundus is firm, at the umbilicus, and midline. Her lochia is moderate rubra with no clots. The nurse suspects:

A. Bladder distention
B. Uterine atony
C. Constipation
D. Hematoma formation

A

D. Hematoma formation

75
Q

While evaluating the reflexes of a male newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise, the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a “C” with the thumb and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse documents this finding as a positive:

A. Tonic neck reflex
B. Glabellar (Myerson) reflex
C. Babinski reflex
D. Moro reflex

A

D. Moro reflex

76
Q

In most healthy newborns, blood glucose levels stabilize at _________ mg/dl during the first hours after birth:

A. 80 to 100
B. Less than 40
C. 50 to 60
D. 60 to 70

A

C. 50 to 60

77
Q

A nurse caring for a newborn should be aware that the sensory system least mature at the time of birth is:

A. Vision
B. Hearing
C. Smell
D. Taste

A

A. Vision

78
Q

An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds during the Ortolani maneuver:

A. Tells the parents that one leg may be longer than the other, but they will equal out by the time the infant is walking

B. Alerts the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip

C. Informs the parents and physician that molding has not taken place

D. Suggests that if the condition does not change, surgery to correct vision problems might be needed

A

B. Alerts the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip

79
Q

With regard to the respiratory development of the newborn, nurses should be aware that:

A. Crying increases the distribution of air in the lungs

B. Newborns must expel the fluid at uterine life from the respiratory system within a few minutes of birth

C. Newborns are instinctive mouth breathers

D. Seesaw respirations are no cause for concern in the first hour after birth

A

A. Crying increases the distribution of air in the lungs

80
Q

While caring for the newborn, the nurse must be alert for any signs of cold stress. This would include which symptom?

A. Decreased activity level
B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Shivering

A

B. Increased respiratory rate

81
Q

The nurse helps a breastfeeding mother change the diaper of her 16-hour-old newborn after the first bowel movement. The mother expresses concern because the large amount of thick, sticky stool is very dark green, almost black. She asks the nurse if something is wrong. The nurse should respond to this mother’s concern by:

A. Telling the mother not to worry because all breastfed babies have this type of stool

B. Explaining to the mother that this stool is called meconium and is expected for the first few bowel movements of all newborns

C. Asking the mother what she ate for her last meal

D. Suggesting to the mother that she ask her pediatrician to explain normal newborn stooling patterns to her

A

B. Explaining to the mother that this stool is called meconium and is expected for the first few bowel movements of all newborns

82
Q

A newborn male, estimated to be 39 weeks of gestation, exhibits:

A. Testes descended into the scrotum
B. Extended posture when at rest
C. Abundant lanugo over his entire body
D. Ability to move his elbow past his sternum

A

A. Testes descended into the scrotum

83
Q

A 3.8-kg infant was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage. There was a nuchal cord. After birth the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back. Information given to the infant’s parents should be based on the knowledge that petechiae:

A. Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth

B. Result from increased blood volume

C. Should always be further investigated

D. Usually occur with forceps delivery

A

A. Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth

84
Q

A mother expresses fear about changing her infant’s diaper after he is circumcised. What does the woman need to be taught to take care of the infant when she gets home?

A. Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours.

B. Apply constant, firm pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for at least 5 minutes if bleeding occurs.

C. Cleanse the penis gently with water and put petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change
.
D. Wash off the yellow exudate that forms on the glans at least once every day to prevent infection.

A

C. Cleanse the penis gently with water and put petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change

85
Q

An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth indicates:

A. An infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further testing

B. An infant in severe distress that needs resuscitation

C. A prediction of a future free of neurologic problems

D. An infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth

A

D. An infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth

86
Q

With regard to umbilical cord care, nurses should be aware that:

A. The stump can easily become infected

B. A nurse noting bleeding from the vessels of the cord should immediately call for assistance

C. The cord clamp is removed at cord separation

D. The average cord separation time is 5 to 7 days

A

A. The stump can easily become infected

87
Q

All of these statements are helpful and accurate nursing advice concerning bathing the new baby except:

A. Newborns should be bathed every day, for the bonding as well as the cleaning

B. Tub baths may be given before the infant’s umbilical cord falls off and the umbilicus is healed

C. Only plain warm water should be used to preserve the skin’s acid mantle

D. Powders are not recommended because the infant can inhale powder

A

A. Newborns should be bathed every day, for the bonding as well as the cleaning

Newborns do not need a bath every day, even if the parents enjoy it. The diaper area and creases under the arms and neck need more attention.

88
Q

As part of their teaching function at discharge, nurses should tell parents that the baby’s respiration should be protected by the following procedures except:

A. Prevent exposure to people with upper respiratory tract infections

B. Keep the infant away from secondhand smoke

C. Avoid loose bedding, waterbeds, and beanbag chairs

D. Don’t let the infant sleep on his or her back

A

D. Don’t let the infant sleep on his or her back

89
Q

When weighing a newborn, the nurse should:

A. Leave its diaper on for comfort

B. Place a sterile scale paper on the scale for infection control

C. Keep a hand on the newborn’s abdomen for safety

D. Weigh the newborn at the same time each day for accuracy

A

D. Weigh the newborn at the same time each day for accuracy

90
Q

Vitamin K is given to the newborn to:

A. Reduce bilirubin levels
B. Increase the production of red blood cells
C. Enhance the ability of blood to clot
D. Stimulate the formation of surfactant

A

C. Enhance the ability of blood to clot

91
Q

A nurse must administer erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to a newborn after birth. The nurse should:

A. Instill within 15 minutes of birth for maximum effectiveness

B. Cleanse eyes from inner to outer canthus before administration if necessary

C. Apply directly over the cornea

D. Flush eyes 10 minutes after instillation to reduce irritation

A

B. Cleanse eyes from inner to outer canthus before administration if necessary

92
Q

When placing a newborn under a radiant heat warmer to stabilize temperature after birth, the nurse should:

A. Place the thermistor probe on the left side of the chest

B. Cover the probe with a nonreflective material

C. Recheck temperature by periodically taking a rectal temperature

D. Perform all examinations and activities under the warmer

A

D. Perform all examinations and activities under the warmer