Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy Part B > Exam #2 Practice > Flashcards

Exam #2 Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Which Neural path consists of two motor neurons?

a. autonomic
b. somatic motor
c. somatic sensory
d. cerebral only

A

a. autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic fibers synapse in

A

a sympathetic trunk and prevertebral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers leave the sympathetic trunk ganglia by the way of the

A

gray rami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

80% of the total craniosacral outflow is carried by

A

Vagus nerve (X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parasympathetic fibers associated with cranial nerve VII synapse in which terminal ganglia before continuing to their visceral effectors?

A

submandibular and pterygopaltine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons in

A

sympathetic trunk ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which is true of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

A

most presynaptic fibers are very short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All postganglionic sympathetic fibers from the ________ ganglion go to the structures of the head

A

superior cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nerve fibers of the sympathetic division originate in the

A

thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which autonomic ganglion is associated with the superior mesenteric artery?

A

superior mesenteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following are parasympathetic nerves?

A

pelvic splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

preganglionic fibers to the ciliary ganglion are associated with cranial nerve

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The white rami contain

A

preganglionic sympathetic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_________ are long; __________ are short

A

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers ; parasympathetic postganglionic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is a drug classified as a non-specific beta blocker that reduces heart rate and force of contraction

A

propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adrenergic neurons release

A

norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is true of adrenergic fibers?

A

they are stimulated during the fight or flight response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the adrenergic receptors for norepinephrine and epinephrine are

A

alpha and beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the balance between sympathetic activity called

A

autonomic tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

A

fight or flight division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What part of the nervous system is the main control and integrative center of the autonomic nervous system?

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which part of the autonomic reflex pathway differs from the somatic reflex pathway?

A

Motor Pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Information about the temperature of the air around you would be sent to the brain by

A

exteroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which of the following is an example of rapid adaptation

A

loss of ability to smell the baking cake after a few minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Muscle spindles and tendon organs are example of

A

proprioceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the degree of muscle stretch is detected by

A

muscle spindles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

somatic pain that arises from stimulation of skin receptors is classified as _______ pain

A

superficial somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prorioceptors are located in the

A

muscles and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors are located

A

deep in the dermis and in deeper tissues of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The organ that has the broadest area of referred pain is the

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The type of pain felt from a puncture of a needle is called

A

fast pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Novocaine provides short-term relief of pain by blocking conduction of the nerve impulses at the level of the

A

axons of the first order neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the function of the Pacinian corpuscle?

A

pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the function of the root hair plexus?

A

touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Sensory nerve fibers in the posterior column decussate at the level of the

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

third order neurons of somatic sensory pathway project

A

from the thalamus to the cerebral Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Damage to the lateral spinothalamic tract could result in a lack of sensation of

A

pain and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The part of the body represented by the largest area of the somatosensory cortex is the

A

lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sensations of tickle and itch are conveyed from one side of the body to the opposite side of the cerebral hemisphere along the

A

anterior spinothalamic tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which tracts carry information about actual performance of muscles of the trunk and lower limbs to the cerebellum?

A

spinocerebella tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following is true concerning voluntary motor impulses?

A

they reach their effectors by way of the pyramidal pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the major control region for initiation of voluntary movements of the body is the

A

primary motor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The corticobulbar tracts convey nerve impulses that control movements of the

A

head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

the final common path to the skeletal muscles from both the pyramidal and extrapyramidal pathway is the

A

lower motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What part of the brain receives information about planned activity, compares this with actual movements, and supplies corrective signals to other parts of the brain?

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Circadian rhythm’s, refers to

A

a 24 hour cycle of sleep and wakefulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The reinforcement of memory due to the frequent retrieval of a piece of information is called

A

memory consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cerebral palsy is caused by

A

damage to the motor area of the brain during fetal life, birth, or infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Alternate contraction and relaxation of muscles of the upper extremities, resulting in an uncontrollable shaking of the hands is a characteristic of

A

Parkinson disease

51
Q

The olfactory receptors are examples of

A

chemoreceptors

52
Q

which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?

A

pungent

53
Q

Sensory stimulation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is conducted by the

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

54
Q

Circumvallate papillae are located on the

A

posterior region of the tongue

55
Q

Bipolar neurons associated with sensory receptors are found in the

A

retina

56
Q

which of the following is part of the vascular tunic of the eye?

A

choroid

57
Q

When entering a dark room on a sunny day, it takes some time to be able to see because

A

it takes time for the retina to rebuild its rhodopsin

58
Q

The anterior cavity contains

A

aqueous humor

59
Q

The point of greatest visual acuity is the

A

central fovea

60
Q

Intraocular pressure is primarily due to the

A

aqueous humor

61
Q

as they extend from the retina to the brain, nerve fibers

A

from the nasal half of each retina cross to reach the opposite visual cortex

62
Q

Which cranial nerve carries visual impulses to the brain?

A

II

63
Q

Aqueous humor drains from the anterior chamber into the

A

canal of Schlemm

64
Q

As a result of an injury, a person cannot see at all with the left eye, but has no trouble seeing with the right eye. the injury has probably severed the

A

right optic nerve

65
Q

The blindspot is the area where

A

the optic nerve exits the eye

66
Q

A sty is caused by

A

infection of the sebaceous ciliary glands

67
Q

Which of the following conditions is not related to lends pathology?

A

glaucoma

68
Q

In humans, both eyes focus on only one set of objects. this is called

A

binocular vision

69
Q

the fibrous tunic is composed of the

A

sclera and cornea

70
Q

the white of the eye, which gives shape to the eyeball, makes it more rigid, and protects its inner part is the

A

sclera

71
Q

Most of the refraction of light entering the eye occurs at the

A

cornea

72
Q

During accommodation for near vision

A

the lens increases in curvature

73
Q

constriction of the pupil is brought about by contraction of the

A

circular muscle of the iris

74
Q

Photopigment in the rods and cones is imbedded in the

A

membrane folds of the outer segment of these cells

75
Q

the most common type of color blindness is

A

red-green color blindness

76
Q

in daylight, rods contribute little to vision because

A

the rhodopsin is bleached as fast as it is regenerated

77
Q

When light hits the rods

A

Na+ channels close and less inhibitory neurotransmitter is released

78
Q

the external auditory meatus passes through the

A

temporal bone

79
Q

which of the following helps maintain proper air pressure in the middle ear?

A

Eustachian tube

80
Q

endolymph is found within the

A

cochlear duct

81
Q

Which of the following generates a receptor potential in hair cells

A

bending of stereo cilia

82
Q

the round window connects to the

A

scala tympani

83
Q

Nerve fibers that synapse with hair cells in the organ of Corti unite to form part of the _______ nerve

A

vestibulocochlear

84
Q

Which of the following represents the correct pathway leading to the perception of sound

A

tympanic membrane, ossicles, perilymph, endolymph, hair cells

85
Q

Which of the following is associated with equilibrium

A

otolithic membrane

86
Q

otoliths are

A

crystals

87
Q

Each crust in the semicircular ducts is covered by a gelatinous material called the

A

cupula

88
Q

Sound waves are translated into nerve impulses in the

A

cochlea

89
Q

A reflex reaction to loud sounds prevents damage to the inner ear. this reaction is due to contraction of

A

tensor tympani + stapedious muscles

90
Q

The oval window connects to the

A

stapes

91
Q

Pitch is

A

the frequency of a sound vibration

92
Q

perilymph fills the

A

bony labyrinth

93
Q

The neural receptors for the sense of hearing are located in the

A

inner ear

94
Q

high intensity (loud) sounds can cause deafness because they are most damaging to the

A

hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti

95
Q

Meniere’s syndrome is cause by

A

increased amount of endolymph that enlarges the membranous labyrinth

96
Q

Which of the following would be a normal hematocrit in an adult male?

A

47%

97
Q

Functions of blood

A

transport of dissolved gasses, distribution of nutrients, restriction of fluid losses through damaged vessels

98
Q

Plasma proteins which act as antibodies and attack foreign proteins are classified as

A

gamma globulins

99
Q

An adult human contains about

A

4-6 liters of blood

100
Q

Blood makes up_______ of the total body mass

A

less than 10%

101
Q

The most abundant molecule present in Blood plasma is

A

water

102
Q

The primary site of hemopoiesis in adult humans is in the

A

red bone marrow

103
Q

The specific process by which red blood cells are formed is called

A

erythropoiesis

104
Q

Chemotherapy tends to destroy normal marrow cells as well as cancerous cells. which of the following might be used to stimulate hemopoiesis in a cancer patient?
A.
histamine
B.
albumins
C.
intrinsic factor
D.
erythropoietin

A

erythropoietin

105
Q

the stem cell that differentiates to form all types of blood cells is the

A

pluripotent stem cell

106
Q

Aged red blood cells are destroyed mainly by macrophages in the

A

spleen

107
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

Biliverdin is produced from the breakdown of the non-iron portion of heme

108
Q

A high reticulocyte count might indicate

A

increased production of red blood cells

109
Q

Which blood cell type is elevated in a parasitic infection

A

eosinophils

110
Q

which of the following is an argunular leukocyte that leaves the blood and becomes a wandering macrophage?

A

monocyte

111
Q

Which blood cells are identified microscopically by tape of their ______ or absence of _______ in the cytoplasm

A

nuclei, granules

112
Q

Neutrophils and macrophages are active in

A

phagocytosis

113
Q

Which formed elements of the blood are produced from fragmentation of megakaryocytic?

A

thrombocytes

114
Q

Which of the following best describe platelets?

A

platelets are cytoplasmic fragments containing clotting elements

115
Q

When a blood vessel is damaged, clot formation includes that conversion of fibrinogen into _____ by action of the enzyme ______

A

fibrin, thrombin

116
Q

vascular spasms and platelet plug formation are steps in

A

hemostasis

117
Q

During clotting, prothrombin is activated to form

A

thrombin

118
Q

Which of the following begins the common pathway in clotting?

A

formation of prothrombinase

119
Q

Fibrinolysis refers to

A

dissolution of a clot

120
Q

Clotting may occur in an undamaged blood vessel. when that clot breaks loose and circulates through the bloodstream it is called

A

an embolus

121
Q

Which type of of blood is the universal donor?

A

O

122
Q

In the condition “hemolytic disease of the newborn”

A

the baby’s blood cells hemolyze because anti Rh antibodies produced by the mother cross the placenta

123
Q

The presence of an abnormal hemoglobin molecule results in the inability of RBCs to maintain their shape when oxygen levels in the blood decrease. this is known as

A

sickle cell disease

124
Q

An inherited inability to produce clotting factor VIII or IX results in the condition known as

A

hemophilia

Anatomy Part B (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions