Exam 2 Oxygenation & Perfusion Test Bank Flashcards
The nurse is assigned a group of patients. Which patient finding would the nurse identify as a factor leading to increased risk for impaired gas exchange?
a. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
b. Anticoagulant therapy for 10 days
c. Hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL
d. Heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/60
c. Hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL
Rationale: The hemoglobin is low (anemia), therefore the ability of the blood to carry oxygen is decreased.
High blood glucose and/or anticoagulants do not alter the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. A heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/60 are not indicative of the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
The nurse is reviewing the patient’s arterial blood gas results. The PaO2 is 96 mm Hg, pH is 7.20, PaCO2 is 55 mm Hg, and HCO3
is 25 mEq/L. What might the nurse expect to observe on assessment of this patient?
a. Disorientation and tremors
b. Tachycardia and decreased blood pressure
c. Increased anxiety and irritability
d. Hyperventilation and lethargy
a. Disorientation and tremors
Rationale: The patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis (↓pH and ↑PaCO2) which may be manifested by disorientation, tremors, possible seizures, and decreased level of consciousness.
Tachycardia and decreased blood pressure are not characteristic of a problem of
respiratory acidosis.
Increased anxiety and hyperventilation will cause respiratory alkalosis, which is manifested by an increase in pH and a decrease in PaCO2.
The nurse would identify which patient condition as a problem of impaired gas exchange secondary to a perfusion problem?
a. Peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
c. Chronic asthma
d. Severe anemia secondary to chemotherapy
a. Peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities
Rationale: Perfusion relates to the ability of the blood to deliver oxygen to the cellular level and return the carbon dioxide to the lung for removal.
COPD and asthma are examples of ventilation problems.
Severe anemia is an example of a transport problem of gas exchange.
The nurse is assessing a patient’s differential white blood cell count. What implications would this test have on evaluating the adequacy of a patient’s gas exchange?
a. An elevation of the total white cell count indicates generalized inflammation.
b. Eosinophil count will assist to identify the presence of a respiratory infection.
c. White cell count will differentiate types of respiratory bacteria.
d. Level of neutrophils provides guidelines to monitor a chronic infection.
a. An elevation of the total white cell count indicates generalized inflammation.
Rationale: Elevation of total white cell count is indicative of inflammation that is often due to an infection.
Upper respiratory infections are
common problems in altering a patient’s gas exchange.
Eosinophil cells are increased in an allergic response.
Neutrophils are more indicative of an acute inflammatory response.
White cells do not assist to differentiate types of respiratory bacteria.
Monocytes are an indicator of progress of a chronic infection.
The acid-base status of a patient is dependent on normal gas exchange. Which patient would the nurse identify as having an
increased risk for the development of respiratory acidosis?
a. Chronic lung disease with increased carbon dioxide retention
b. Acute anxiety, hyperventilation, and decreased carbon dioxide retention
c. Decreased cardiac output with increased serum lactic acid production
d. Gastric drainage with increased removal of gastric acid
a. Chronic lung disease with increased carbon dioxide retention
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by an increase in retention of carbon dioxide, regardless of the underlying disease.
A decrease in carbon dioxide retention may lead to respiratory alkalosis.
An increase in production of lactic acid leads to metabolic acidosis.
Removal of an acid (gastric secretions) will lead to a metabolic alkalosis.
A 3-month-old infant is at increased risk for developing anemia. The nurse would identify which principle contributing to this risk?
a. The infant is becoming more active.
b. There is an increase in intake of breast milk or formula.
c. The infant is unable to maintain an adequate iron intake.
d. A depletion of fetal hemoglobin occurs.
d. A depletion of fetal hemoglobin occurs.
Rationale: Fetal hemoglobin is present for about 5 months.
The fetal hemoglobin begins deteriorating, and around 2–3 months the infant is
at increased risk of developing an anemia due to decreasing levels of hemoglobin.
Breast milk or formula is the primary food
intake up to around 6 months.
Often iron supplemented formula is offered, and/or an iron supplement is given if the infant is breastfed.
Which clinical management prevention concept would the nurse identify as representative of secondary prevention?
a. Decreasing venous stasis and risk for pulmonary emboli
b. Implementation of strict hand washing routines
c. Maintaining current vaccination schedules
d. Prevention of pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease
d. Prevention of pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease
Rationale: Prevention of and treatment of existing health problems to avoid further complications is an example of secondary prevention.
Primary prevention includes infection control (hand washing), smoking cessation, immunizations, and prevention of
postoperative complications.
The nurse would identify which body systems as directly involved in the process of normal gas exchange? (Select all that apply.)
a. Neurologic system
b. Endocrine system
c. Pulmonary system
d. Immune system
e. Cardiovascular system
f. Hepatic system
a. Neurologic system
c. Pulmonary system
e. Cardiovascular system
Rationale: The neurologic system controls respiratory drive; the respiratory system controls the delivery of oxygen to the lung capillaries; and the cardiac system is responsible for the perfusion of vital organs.
These systems are primarily responsible for the adequacy of gas exchange in the body. The endocrine and hepatic systems are not directly involved with gas exchange.
The immune system primarily protects the body against infection.
The nurse is assessing a patient for the adequacy of ventilation. What assessment findings would indicate the patient has good ventilation? (Select all that apply.)
a. Respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min.
b. Oxygen saturation level is 98%.
c. The right side of the thorax expands slightly more than the left.
d. Trachea is just to the left of the sternal notch.
e. Nail beds are pink with good capillary refill.
f. There is presence of quiet, effortless breath sounds at lung base bilaterally
b. Oxygen saturation level is 98%.
e. Nail beds are pink with good capillary refill.
f. There is presence of quiet, effortless breath sounds at lung base bilaterally
Rationale: Oxygen saturation level should be between 95 and 100%; nail beds should be pink with capillary refill of about 3 seconds; and breath sounds should be present at base of both lungs.
Normal respiratory rate is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.
The trachea should be in midline with the sternal notch.
The thorax should expand equally on both sides.
A nurse obtains the health history of a client who is recently diagnosed with lung cancer and identifies that the client has a
60–pack-year smoking history. Which action is most important for the nurse to take when interviewing this client?
a. Tell the client that he or she needs to quit smoking to stop further cancer development.
b. Encourage the client to be completely honest about both tobacco and marijuana use.
c. Maintain a nonjudgmental attitude to avoid causing the client to feel guilty.
d. Avoid giving the client false hope regarding cancer treatment and prognosis.
c. Maintain a nonjudgmental attitude to avoid causing the client to feel guilty.
Rationale: Smoking assessments and cessation information can be an uncomfortable and sensitive topic among both clients and health care
providers.
The nurse would maintain a nonjudgmental attitude in order to foster trust with the client. Telling the client he or she needs to quit smoking is paternalistic and threatening. Assessing exposure to smoke includes more than tobacco and marijuana.
The nurse would avoid giving the client false hope but when taking a history, it is most important to get accurate information.
A nurse assesses a client’s respiratory status. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
a. Average daily fluid intake.
b. Neck circumference.
c. Height and weight.
d. Occupation and hobbies.
d. Occupation and hobbies.
Rationale: Many respiratory problems occur as a result of chronic exposure to inhalation irritants used in a client’s occupation and hobbies.
Although it will be important for the nurse to assess the client’s fluid intake, height, and weight, these will not be as important as
determining his occupation and hobbies.
This is part of the I-PREPARE assessment model for particulate matter exposure.
Determining the client’s neck circumference will not be an important part of a respiratory assessment.
A nurse observes that a client’s anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter is the same as the lateral chest diameter. Which question would the nurse ask the client in response to this finding?
a. “Are you taking any medications or herbal supplements?”
b. “Do you have any chronic breathing problems?”
c. “How often do you perform aerobic exercise?”
d. “What is your occupation and what are your hobbies?”
b. “Do you have any chronic breathing problems?”
Rationale: The normal chest has an anteroposterior (AP or front-to-back) diameter ratio with the lateral (side-to-side) diameter. This ratio normally is about 1:1.5. When the AP diameter approaches the lateral diameter, and the ratio is 1:1, the client is said to have a
barrel chest.
Most commonly, barrel chest occurs as a result of a long-term chronic airflow limitation problem, such as chronic emphysema.
It can also be seen in people who have lived at a high altitude for many years.
Medications, herbal supplements, and
aerobic exercise are not associated with a barrel chest.
Although occupation and hobbies may expose a client to irritants that can cause chronic lung disorders and barrel chest, asking about chronic breathing problems is more direct and would be asked first.
A nurse is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. The client’s breath sounds are absent. While another nurse calls
the Rapid Response Team, what action by the nurse takes is most important?
a. Take a full set of vital signs.
b. Obtain pulse oximetry reading.
c. Ask the patient about hemoptysis.
d. Inspect the biopsy site.
b. Obtain pulse oximetry reading.
Rationale: Absent breath sounds may indicate that the client has a pneumothorax, a serious complication after a needle biopsy or open lung biopsy.
The nurse would first obtain a pulse oximetry reading and perform other respiratory assessments.
Temperature is not a priority.
The nurse can ask about other symptoms while conducting the assessment.
The nurse would assess the biopsy site and/or
dressings, but this is not the first action.
A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to undergo a thoracentesis. Which intervention would the nurse complete prior to the procedure?
a. Measure oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk.
b. Verify that the client understands all possible complications.
c. Explain the procedure in detail to the client and the family.
d. Validate that informed consent has been given by the client.
d. Validate that informed consent has been given by the client.
Rationale: A thoracentesis is an invasive procedure with many potentially serious complications.
The nurse would ensure signed informed
consent has been obtained.
Verifying that the client understands complications and explaining the procedure to be performed will be done by the primary health care provider, not the nurse. Measurement of oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk is not a procedure unique to a thoracentesis.
A nurse assesses a client after a thoracentesis. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action?
a. The client rates pain as a 5/10 at the site of the procedure.
b. A small amount of drainage from the site is noted.
c. Pulse oximetry is 93% on 2 L of oxygen.
d. The trachea is shifted toward the opposite side of the neck.
d. The trachea is shifted toward the opposite side of the neck.
Rationale: A shift of central thoracic structures toward one side is a sign of a tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency.
The other findings are normal or near normal. The nurse would report this finding immediately or call the Rapid Response Team.
A nurse cares for a client who had a bronchoscopy 2 hours ago. The client asks for a drink of water. What action would the nurse
take next?
a. Call the primary health care provider and request food and water for the client.
b. Provide the client with ice chips instead of a drink of water.
c. Assess the client’s gag reflex before giving any food or water.
d. Let the client have a small sip to see whether he or she can swallow.
c. Assess the client’s gag reflex before giving any food or water.
Rationale: The topical anesthetic used during the procedure will have affected the client’s gag reflex.
Before allowing the client anything to
eat or drink, the nurse must check for the return of this reflex.
A nurse plans care for a client who is experiencing dyspnea and must stop multiple times when climbing a flight of stairs. Which
intervention would the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
a. Assistance with activities of daily living
b. Physical therapy activities every day
c. Oxygen therapy at 2 L per nasal cannula
d. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning
a. Assistance with activities of daily living
Rationale: A client with dyspnea and the inability to complete activities such as climbing a flight of stairs without pausing has class IV dyspnea.
The nurse would provide assistance with activities of daily living.
These clients would be encouraged to participate in activities as tolerated.
They would not be on complete bedrest, may not be able to tolerate daily physical therapy, and only need oxygen if hypoxia is present.
A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed nicotine replacement therapy. Which statement would the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
a. “Make a list of reasons why smoking is a bad habit.”
b. “Rise slowly when getting out of bed in the morning.”
c. “Smoking while taking this medication will increase your risk of a stroke.”
d. “Stopping this medication suddenly increases your risk for a heart attack.”
c. “Smoking while taking this medication will increase your risk of a stroke.”
Rationale: Clients who smoke while using drugs for nicotine replacement therapy increase the risk of stroke and heart attack. Nurses would teach clients not to smoke while taking these drugs.
The nurse would encourage the client to make a list of reasons for stopping the habit but would not phrase it so judgmentally. Orthostatic hypotension is not a risk with nicotine replacement therapy.
Stopping suddenly does not increase the risk of heart attack.
A nurse is caring for a client who received benzocaine spray prior to a recent bronchoscopy. The client presents with continuous cyanosis even with oxygen therapy. What action would the nurse take next?
a. Administer an albuterol treatment.
b. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
c. Assess the client’s peripheral pulses.
d. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
b. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
Rationale: Cyanosis unresponsive to oxygen therapy is a sign of methemoglobinemia, which is an adverse effect of benzocaine spray.
This condition can lead to death.
The nurse would notify the Rapid Response Team to provide advanced care.
An albuterol treatment would not address the client’s oxygenation problem.
Assessment of pulses and cultures will not provide data necessary to treat the client.
A nurse auscultates a harsh hollow sound over a client’s trachea and larynx. What action would the nurse take first?
a. Document the findings.
b. Administer oxygen therapy.
c. Position the client in high-Fowler position.
d. Administer prescribed albuterol.
a. Document the findings.
Rationale: Bronchial breath sounds, including harsh, hollow, tubular, and blowing sounds, are a normal finding over the trachea and larynx.
The nurse would document this finding.
There is no need to implement oxygen therapy, administer albuterol, or change the client’s position because the finding is normal.
A client is scheduled to have a tracheostomy placed in an hour. What action by the nurse is the priority?
a. Administer prescribed anxiolytic medication.
b. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart.
c. Reinforce any teaching done previously.
d. Start the preoperative antibiotic infusion.
b. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart.
Rationale: Since this is an operative procedure, the client must sign an informed consent, which must be on the chart.
Giving anxiolytics and antibiotics and reinforcing teaching may also be required but do not take priority.
A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that the client’s face is puffy and the eyelids are
swollen. What action by the nurse takes best?
a. Assess the client’s oxygen saturation.
b. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
c. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask.
d. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.
a. Assess the client’s oxygen saturation.
Rationale: This client may have subcutaneous emphysema, which is the air that leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy.
The nurse would first assess the client’s oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation.
If the client is stable, the nurse can palpate the skin of the upper chest to feel for air.
If the client is unstable, the nurse calls the Rapid Response Team.
A bag-valve-mask device may or may not be appropriate for the unstable client.
An assistive personnel (AP) was feeding a client with a tracheostomy. Later that evening, the UAP reports that the client had a
coughing spell during the meal. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Assess the client’s lung sounds.
b. Assign a different AP to the client.
c. Report the AP to the manager.
d. Request thicker liquids for meals.
a. Assess the client’s lung sounds.
Rationale: The best action is to check the client’s oxygenation because he or she may have aspirated.
Once the client has been assessed, the
nurse would notify the primary health care provider of possible aspiration and would consult with the registered dietitian about
appropriately thickened liquids.
The UAP should have reported the incident immediately, but addressing that issue is not the immediate priority.
A nurse is caring for a client using oxygen while in the hospital. What assessment finding indicates that outcomes for client safety with oxygen therapy are being met?
a. 100% of meals being eaten by the client
b. Intact skin behind the ears
c. The client understanding the need for oxygen
d. Unchanged weight for the past 3 days
b. Intact skin behind the ears
Rationale: Oxygen tubing can cause pressure injuries, so clients using oxygen have a high risk of skin breakdown.
Intact skin behind the ears indicates that goals for maintaining client safety with oxygen therapy are being met.
Nutrition and weight are not related to using
oxygen.
Understanding the need for oxygen is important but would not take priority over a physical problem.
A client with a new tracheostomy is being seen in the oncology clinic. What finding by the nurse best indicates that goals for the client’s decrease in self-esteem are being met?
a. The client demonstrates good understanding of stoma care.
b. The client has joined a book club that meets at the library.
c. Family members take turns assisting with stoma care.
d. Skin around the stoma is intact without signs of infection.
b. The client has joined a book club that meets at the library.
Rationale: The client joining a book club that meets outside the home and requires him or her to go out in public is the best sign that goals for disrupted self-esteem are being met. The other findings are all positive signs but do not relate to this client problem.
A client is receiving oxygen at 4 L per nasal cannula. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
a. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
b. Periodically turn the oxygen down or off.
c. Replaces the oxygen tubing with a different type.
d. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.
a. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
Rationale: Oxygen can be drying, so the UAP can apply water-soluble lubricant to the client’s lips and nares.
The AP would not adjust the oxygen flow rate or replace the tubing.
Turning the client is not related to comfort measures for oxygen.
A client is wearing a Venturi mask to deliver oxygen and the dinner tray has arrived. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and, if normal, turn off the oxygen.
b. Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal.
c. Have the client lift the mask off the face when taking bites of food.
d. Turn the oxygen off while the client eats the meal and then restart it.
b. Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal.
Rationale: Oxygen is a drug that needs to be delivered constantly.
The nurse would determine if the primary healthcare provider has approved
switching to a nasal cannula during meals.
If not, the nurse would consult with the primary health care provider about this issue.
The primary healthcare provider would need to prescribe discontinuing oxygen if the client’s oxygen saturation is normal.
The oxygen would not be turned off.
Lifting the mask to eat will alter the FiO2 delivered.
The nurse is teaching a client who has pernicious anemia about necessary dietary changes. Which statement by the client indicates understanding about those changes?
a. “I’ll increase animal proteins like fish and meat.”
b. “I’ll work on increasing my fats and carbohydrates.”
c. “I’ll avoid eating green leafy vegetables.
d. “I’ll limit my intake of citrus fruits.”
a. “I’ll increase animal proteins like fish and meat.”
Rationale: Clients who have pernicious anemia have a Vitamin B12 deficiency and need to consume foods high in Vitamin B12, such as animal and plant proteins, citrus fruits, green leafy vegetables, and dairy products.
While carbohydrates and fats can provide sources of energy, they do not supply the necessary nutrient to improve anemia.
A nurse is caring for four clients with leukemia. After the hand-off report, which client would the nurse assess first?
a. Client who had two bloody diarrhea stools this morning.
b. Client who has been premedicated for nausea prior to chemotherapy.
c. Client with a respiratory rate change from 18 to 22 breaths/min.
d. Client with an unchanged lesion to the lower right lateral malleolus.
a. Client who had two bloody diarrhea stools this morning.
Rationale: The client who had two bloody diarrhea stools that morning may be hemorrhaging in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and should be assessed first to monitor for or avoid the client from going into hypovolemic shock.
The client with the slight change in respiratory
rate may have an infection or worsening anemia and should be seen next.
If the client’s respiratory rate was greater than 28 to 30 breaths/min, the client may need the initial assessment.
Marked tachypnea is an early sign of a deteriorating client condition.
The other two clients are not a priority at this time.
“Beefy red tongue pic”
What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Encourage the client to have genetic testing.
b. Instruct the client on high-fiber foods.
c. Place the client in protective precautions.
d. Teach the client about cobalamin therapy.
d. Teach the client about cobalamin therapy.
Rationale: This condition is known as glossitis, and is characteristic of B12 anemia.
If the anemia is a pernicious anemia, it is treated with cobalamin.
Genetic testing is not a priority for this condition.
The client does not need high-fiber foods or protective precautions.
A nurse assesses several clients who have a history of respiratory disorders. Which client would the nurse assess first?
a. A 66-year-old client with a barrel chest and clubbed fingernails
b. A 48-year-old client with an oxygen saturation level of 92% at rest
c. A 35-year-old client who reports orthopnea in bed
d. A 27-year-old client with a heart rate of 120 beats/min
d. A 27-year-old client with a heart rate of 120 beats/min
Rationale: Tachycardia can indicate hypoxemia as the body tries to circulate the oxygen that is available.
A barrel chest is not an emergency
finding.
Likewise, a pulse oximetry level of 92% is not considered an acute finding.
Orthopnea at night in bed is breathlessness
when lying down but is not an acute finding at this moment.
A nurse cares for a client with arthritis who reports frequent asthma attacks. What action would the nurse take first?
a. Review the client’s pulmonary function test results.
b. Ask about medications the client is currently taking.
c. Assess how frequently the client uses a bronchodilator.
d. Consult the primary health care provider and request arterial blood gases.
b. Ask about medications the client is currently taking.
Rationale: Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can trigger asthma in some people.
This results from increased production of leukotriene when aspirin or NSAIDs suppress other inflammatory pathways and is a likely culprit given the client’s
history.
Reviewing pulmonary function test results will not address the immediate problem of frequent asthma attacks.
This is a
good time to review response to bronchodilators, but assessing triggers is more important.
Questioning the client about the use of
bronchodilators will address interventions for the attacks but not their cause.
Reviewing arterial blood gas results would not be of use in a client between attacks because many clients are asymptomatic when not having attacks.
A child has a chronic, nonproductive cough and diffuse wheezing during the expiratory phase of respiration. This suggests
a. Asthma
b. Pneumonia
c. Bronchiolitis
d. Foreign body in trachea
a. Asthma
Rationale: Children with asthma usually have these chronic symptoms.
B Pneumonia appears with an acute onset and fever and general malaise.
C Bronchiolitis is an acute condition caused by RSV.
D Foreign body in the trachea will occur with acute respiratory distress or failure and maybe stridor.
What is a common trigger for asthma attacks in children?
a. Febrile episodes
b. Dehydration
c. Exercise
d. Seizures
c. Exercise
Rationale: Febrile episodes are consistent with other problems, for example, seizures.
B Dehydration occurs as a result of diarrhea; it does not trigger asthma attacks. Viral infections are triggers for asthma.
C Exercise is one of the most common triggers for asthma attacks, particularly in school-age children.
D Seizures can result from a too-rapid intravenous infusion of theophylline—a therapy for asthma.
What explanation should the nurse give to the parent of a child with asthma about using a peak flow meter?
a. It is used to monitor the child’s breathing capacity.
b. It measures the child’s lung volume.
c. It will help the medication reach the child’s airways.
d. It measures the amount of air the child breathes in.
a. It is used to monitor the child’s breathing capacity.
Rationale: The peak flow meter is a device used to monitor breathing capacity in the child with asthma.
B A child with asthma would have a pulmonary function test to measure lung volume.
C A spacer used with a metered-dose inhaler prolongs medication transit so medication reaches the airways.
D The peak flow meter measures the flow of air in a forced exhalation in liters per minute.
What is the best nursing response to the parent of a child with asthma who asks if his child can still participate in sports?
a. “Children with asthma are usually restricted from physical activities.”
b. “Children can usually play any type of sport if their asthma is well controlled.”
c. “Avoid swimming because breathing underwater is dangerous for people with asthma.”
d. “Even with good asthma control, I would advise limiting the child to one athletic activity per school year.”
b. “Children can usually play any type of sport if their asthma is well controlled.”
Rationale: Children with asthma should not be restricted from physical activity.
B Sports that do not require sustained exertion, such as gymnastics, baseball, and weight lifting, are well tolerated. Children can usually play any type of sport if their asthma is well controlled.
C Swimming is recommended as the ideal sport for children with asthma because the air is humidified and exhaling underwater prolongs exhalation and increases end-expiratory pressure.
D If asthma is well controlled, the child can participate in any type of sport.
Which classification of drugs is used to relieve an acute asthma episode?
a. Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist
b. Inhaled corticosteroids
c. Leukotriene blockers
d. Long-acting bronchodilators
a. Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist
Rationale: Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist is the first medication administered. Later, systemic corticosteroids decrease airway inflammation in an acute asthma attack. They are given short courses of 5 to 7 days.
B Inhaled corticosteroids are used for long-term, routine control of asthma.
C Leukotriene blockers diminish the mediator action of leukotrienes and are used for long-term, routine control of asthma in children older than 12 years.
D A long-acting bronchodilator would not relieve acute symptoms.
