Exam 2 Modules 5-8 Flashcards

1
Q

risk factors for pregnancy at risk

A

HTN, diabetes, PCOS, zika, autoimmune, nutrition, substance abuse, genetics, environment, age, parity

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2
Q

risk factors are synergistic

A

meaning more factors = more risk

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3
Q

pregestational risks

A

heart disease, substance abuse, diabetes, anemia, HIV/AIDS

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4
Q

gestational onset risks (risks that can arise during pregnancy)

A

HTN disorders, spontaneous abortions, ectopic pregnancy, Rh alloimunization, herpes, GBS +, CMV, hyperemesis gravidarum, gestational trophoblastic

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5
Q

cardiac changes d/t pregnancy

A

increased demand for cardiac output by as much as 50%

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6
Q

signs of cardiac disease worsening

A

progressive gen. edema, crackles at base of lung, rapid and weak irregular pulse, difficulty catching breath, cough, increased fatigue

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7
Q

Labor/delivery nursing care

A

EKG/FHR monitoring, O2 and pulse ox., anticoagulants for thrombus, pain/stress management to decrease HR, antibiotics to prevent endocarditis, avoid fluid overload, optimize placental perfusion

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8
Q

substances of abuse

A

alcohol, cocaine, opioids, tobacco

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9
Q

alcohol effects

A

brain and neuron development abnormalities, LBW, prematurity, FAS, leading cause of mental retardation

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10
Q

cocaine effects

A

cardiac events leading to maternal death, abruption, PROM, fetal vasoconstriction and neuroexcitation

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11
Q

opioid effects

A

withdrawal symptoms in neonate (NAS)

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12
Q

tobacco effects

A

decreased fertility, increased risk of miscarriage, previa, IUGR, long term cognitive function, increase risk of brain damage

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13
Q

heroin treatment

A

behavior and pharmacological: methadone, buprenorphine, naltrexone

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14
Q

4 cardinal signs of diabetes

A

polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, polyphagia

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15
Q

type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

born with it; 10% of all diabetes; insulin deficient

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16
Q

type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

acquired; 90% of all diabetes; insulin resistant

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17
Q

gestational diabetes mellitus

A

onset is fist discovered during pregnancy; shortage of insulin during pregnancy (not producing as much as is needed)

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18
Q

pregnancy influence on diabetes

A

insulin decreased in first trimester and increased in second and third; increase d/t attempting to get more glucose to fetus which meaning mom has more glucose meaning insulin is higher

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19
Q

insulin antagonist hormones

A

HPL and somatotropin

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20
Q

maternal diabetic risks (what risks because of diabetes)

A

polyhydramnios, preeclampsia-eclampsia, hyperglycemia/ketoacidosis, C-section, increased susceptibility to infections, worsening retinopathy

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21
Q

macrosomic baby

A

> 4000g

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22
Q

fetal/neonatal diabetic risk

A

congenital anomalies, macrosomia, IUGR, respiratory distress syndrome

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23
Q

IUGR

A

decreased blood to placenta or fetus

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24
Q

high risk for gest. diabetes

A

over 40, family history of diabetes in first-degree relative, prior macrosomic/stillborn/malformed, obesity, PCOS, HTN, glucosuria; screen as early as possible

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25
Q

low risk of gest. diabetes

A

screen at 24-28 weeks

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26
Q

high gest. diabetes risk screening

A

> 126 mg/dL fasting; >200 mg/dL random; >6.5% ha1c

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27
Q

gestational diabetes screening image

A
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28
Q

target Hgb A1C

A

less than or equal to 6%; levels between 5-6% are associated with malformation rates of those in normal pregnancy

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29
Q

pregnancy complications

A

Rh factor, ABO incompatability, ectopic pregnancy, HSV, GBS+, preeclampsia-eclampsia, gestational trophoblastic disease

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30
Q

maternal alloimmunization/isoimmunization

A

woman’s immune system is sensitized to foreign erythrocyte surface antigens and produce IgG antibodies; Rh - mom and Rh + fetus

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31
Q

causes for maternal alloimmunization

A

blood transfusion, fetomaternal hemorrhage antepartum/intrapartum, abortion, ectopic pregnancy, placental abruption, abdominal trauma, amniocentesis/CVS, manual removal of placenta

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32
Q

interventions of Rh incompatibility

A

indirect coombs test, monitor the pregnancy, early birth, intrauterine transfusion of fetus (correct anemia), exchange transfusion (erythropoietin and iron)

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33
Q

if mother Rh - and baby Rh + (not sensitized)…

A

300 mcg Rh immune globulin (Rhogam) IM at 28 weeks (prophylactic); if baby Rh + give 300 mcg Rhogam IM w/in 72 hours

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34
Q

other times to give rhogam

A

birth to Rh + baby, spontaneous abortion, ectopic pregnancy, following invasive procedures, following maternal trauma

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35
Q

how does ABO incompatibility work

A

maternal serum antibodies cross placenta causing hemolysis of fetal RBC, anemia, bilirubinemia

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36
Q

parent infections

A

HSV (herpes simplex virus) and GBS (group beta streptococcus)

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37
Q

HSV risks of fetal-neonatal

A

spontaneous abortion, preterm labor, IUGR, neonatal infection, presence of lesion (route variable), cesarean if outbreak during labor; antiviral after 36 weeks

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38
Q

GBS neonatal risk

A

unexpected intrapartum stillbirth

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39
Q

HTN disorders of pregnancy

A

Chronic HTN, Chronic HTN w superimposed preeclampsia, preeclampsia-eclampsia, gestation HTN

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40
Q

HTN threshold pregnant

A

140/90 mmHg

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41
Q

Chronic HTN

A

> 140/90 before 20 weeks gestation and absence or stable proteinuria

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42
Q

Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic HTN

A

> 140/90 before 20 weeks gestation, new or increased proteinuria, increasing BP or HEELP syndrome

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43
Q

Preeclampsia

A

> 140/90 after 20 weeks gestation, absent or present proteinuria, can have gestational HTN

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44
Q

characteristics of preeclampsia

A

vasospasm and decreased organ perfusion (HTN), intravascular coagulation, increased permeability and capillary leakage (edema), headache

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45
Q

risk factors for preeclampsia

A

nulliparity, moms under 19 and over 30, Af. Am. and Hisp., low socioeconomic status, family history of preeclampsia, chronic HTN, DM, lupus, multigestation, gestational trophoblastic disease, fetal hydrops

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46
Q

eclampsia

A

presence of seizure or coma (multifocal, focal, generalized)

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47
Q

treatment of eclampsia

A

magnesium sulfate and antihypertensive agents

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48
Q

use for magnesium sulfate

A

not given to decrease BP, CNS depressant, seizure prophylaxis, smooth muscle relaxant, safe for fetus

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49
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count (associated with severe eclampsia)

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50
Q

eclampsia increases risk of

A

abruptio placentae, retinal detachment, acute renal failure, cardiac failure, stroke

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51
Q

preeclampsia fetal risks

A

growth retardation, death, hypoxia

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52
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

pregnancy outside uterine cavity (2% of all pregnancies); 95% implant in fallopian tube

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53
Q

risk factors for ectopic

A

PID or STI, prior tubal or pelvic or abd surgery, endometriosis, IVF, IUD, abnormalities of reproductive organs

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54
Q

ectopic pregnancy treatment

A

salpingostomy/salpingectomy, methotrexate, monitor blood loss, emotional support

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55
Q

hydatiform mole (molar pregnancy)

A

1:1500; increased in women with low protein intake, women >35, asians, prior miscarriage, ovulation stim.; 20% become malignant

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56
Q

signs/symptoms of hydatiform

A

rapid growing uterus, vag. bleeding, N/V, HTN, abnormal high hCG, not fetal heartbeat, US shows cysts only (no fetus)

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57
Q

Haydatiform management

A

D&C (dilation and curretage), monitor serial hCG for malignancy, no pregnancy for 1 year, emotional support

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58
Q

placenta previa

A

implantation in lower uterine segment, over or near the cervical os

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59
Q

placenta previa risk factors (what makes you at risk)

A

scarring, large placenta or multiple gestation, infertility, non-white, low socioeconomic, short interpregnancy interval, impeded endometria; vascularization (>35Y), diabetes, smoking, cocaine

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60
Q

placenta previa signs/symptoms

A

painless intermittent bleeding, US confirmation,

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61
Q

primary fetal risk from placenta previa

A

prematurity; malpresentation, fetal anemia, IUGR

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62
Q

primary maternal risk placenta previa

A

hemorrhage; lower uterine not responsive to oxytocin so use methergine

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63
Q

precautions when have placenta previa

A

avoid vaginal exam, monitor maternal vitals, continuous EFM, BPP, amniocentesis (for lung maturity)

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64
Q

when active bleeding placenta previa

A

large bore IV access, measure I&O, weigh pads, CBC and coag. studies, known blood type, keep O2 >95%, anticipate emergent C-sect.

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65
Q

placental abruption

A

premature separation of normally implanted placenta; bleeding can be concealed or external; severity dependent on degree of separation

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66
Q

grade 1 placental abruption

A

partial (or concealed); blood retroplacental; pain and abd rigidity form blood pooling

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67
Q

grade 2 placental abruption

A

Partial; marginal bleeding apparent (mild to moderate bleeding)

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68
Q

Grade 3 placental abruption

A

complete abruption (bleeding concealed or apparent); moderate to severe bleeding; high mortality rate

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69
Q

risk factors for placental abruption (what puts you at risk for developing)

A

HTN (140/90), blunt trauma to maternal abdomen, short umbilical cord, previous abruption, smoking or cocaine

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70
Q

placental abruption symptoms

A

sharp abd. pain, uterine irritability, increase resting tone, vaginal bleeding may or may not be present, dark port-wine stained amniotic fluid, FHR could be compromised, maternal tachycardia

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71
Q

treatment of placental abruption

A

assess fundal height, assess pain and tenderness, assess signs/symptoms of shock, I&O, weigh pads, continuous EFM, O2 >95%, observe for DIC and admin blood, prep for emergency delivery

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72
Q

polyhydramnios

A

excessive amniotic fluid >2000mL; associated with maternal diabetes and fetal GI abnormalities; amniocentesis if SOB appears

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73
Q

oligohydramnios

A

scanty amniotic fluid <500mL; risk for fetal adhesion and malformations; amniofusion for treatment

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74
Q

assessment of prenatal newborn

A
  1. anticipate what might have compromised fetus in utero
  2. maternal medical/prenatal history: blood type, lab values, GBS/HIV/HepB, diabetes or preeclampsia, smoking/substance abuse
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75
Q

assessment of intrapartum newborn

A

what may have occurred in labor: analgesia/anesthesia, prolonged ROM, meconium amniotic fluid, nuchal cord, forceps/vacuum, distress, precipitous birth (rapid)

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76
Q

postpartum newborn first assessment

A

Need for resus, ABCs, thermoregulation, APGAR, P.E., if all well then skin-skin

77
Q

postpartum newborn secondary assessment

A

physical exam, general measurements, gestational age assessment,attachment

78
Q

ongoing postpartum newborn assessment

A

progress of adapting to extrauterine life, nutritional status/ability to feed, behavioral state

79
Q

avg measurements

A

weight 2500-4000g (7lb 8oz); head circum. 33-35cm (2cm greater than chest); chest circum at nipple line; abd circum; length 18-22 in (48-52cm)

80
Q

gestational age

A

established in first 4 hours to predict at risk infants; ballard tool used

81
Q

assessment of physical maturity chracteristics

A

skin, lanugo, sole creases, areola and breast bud tissue, eye/ear formation, genitalia

82
Q

neuromuscular maturity assessment characteristics

A

posture, square window, arm recoil, popliteal angle, scarf sign, heel to ear

83
Q

newborn vital signs

A

HR 110-160 (low as 70 during rest and 180 when crying), Respirations 30-60, BP 70-50/45-30 at birth (90/60 day 10), rectal temp. 36.6-37.2 C (97.8-99F)

84
Q

Normal Fetal head assessment

A

anterior fontanelle is diamond shape (closes 18 months); posterior fontanelle is triangle shaped (closes 8-12 weeks); asymmetry is normal; normal term infants should be able to hold head up temporarily

85
Q

abnormal fetal head assessment

A

depressed fontanelles (dehydration/decreased intracranial pressure); bulging fontanelles (signs of increased intracranial pressure)

86
Q

head variations of newborn

A

molding d/t birth canal; cephalohematoma d/t broken blood vessels under scalp within suture line; caput succedaneum d/t formation of edema under scalp that crosses suture line

87
Q

craniosynostosis

A

premature fusion of cranial sutures leading to growth restriction

88
Q

plagiocephaly

A

infant rapidly growing head attempts to expand but meets resistance from flat surface like bed mattress

89
Q

eye and ear newborn assessment

A

symmetry; tearless crying (immature lacrimal), peripheral vision, fixate on near objects (8-12 in), can perceive faces shapes colors, blink in response to light, pupillary reflex; ears soft and pliable, ready recoil, pinna parallel with inner and outer canthus

90
Q

abnormal eye and ear variations

A

low set ears can indicate chromosomal or renal abnorm.; edema of eyelids can indicate infection, increased intracranial pressure, or trauma

91
Q

normal eye and ear variations

A

subconjuctival hemorrhage can be due to traumatic birth, transient strabismus (cross-eyed/lazy eye)

92
Q

normal nose and mouth findings

A

nose: small and narrow, nose breathing, no chonal atresia; mouth: pink lips, taste buds present, epstein pearls (keratin cysts)

93
Q

abnormal nose and mouth findings

A

flat philtrum (FAS), ankyloglossia (tongue tied- tight frenulum), cleft lip (indicative of chromosomal abn.)

94
Q

normal chest findings

A

cylindrical, 1-2cm smaller than head, engorged breasts w/ white secretion (pseudomenses milk), diaphragmatic respirations, normal heart sound

95
Q

abnormal chest findings

A

retractions while breathing, murmur (common in 24 hours but issue after)

96
Q

signs of fetal respiratory distress

A

nasal flaring, intercostal substernal or xiphoid contractions, expiratory grunting (may sound cute), seesaw respirations, tachypnea (>60)

97
Q

fetal cardiac abnormalities

A

low pitched murmur, decreased strength or femoral pulses, congenital heart defects, heart heard on right side

97
Q

heart heard on right side

A

transposition or pneumothorax

98
Q

fetal abdominal findings

A

cylindrical, soft, bowel sounds present after 1 hour, umbilical cord initially white with 2 arteries 1 vein

99
Q

umbilical cord blood supply

A

2 arteries remove blood and waste; 1 vein brings nutrients and blood

100
Q

fetal genitalia findings

A

females labia majora covers labia minora; male testes are descended with pendulous scrotum

101
Q

fetal extremities findings

A

short flexible and symmetrical movement; legs equal in length with symmetrical creases

102
Q

musculoskeletal variations

A

prominent xiphoid cartilage (benign); fractured clavicle shows asymmetry d/t traumatic birth

103
Q

fetal extremity abnormal findings

A

gross deformities, extra digits (polydactyly), webbing (syndactyly), clubfoot, hip dislocation

104
Q

testing for hip dysplasia

A

barlow test (click is normal, clunk is abnormal), ortolani test

105
Q

female genitalia variations

A

vaginal tag (hormonally related and normal, dries up and falls off); pseudomenstruation (resides by day 4)

106
Q

male genitalia variations

A

hypospadias (urethra under penis), phimosis (foreskin cannot be retracted), hydrocele (fluid/edema), cryptorchidism (undescended testes)

107
Q

when do male testes usually descend

A

about 3rd trimester

108
Q

fetal skin variations

A

acrocyanosis, mottling, jaundice, erythema toxicum, milia

109
Q

acrocyanosis

A

bluish discoloration of hands and feet; poor indicator of poor perfusion d/t immature circulatory system

110
Q

mottling

A

d/t dilated blood vessels; usually benign but systemic can indicate sepsis, apnea, hypothyroidism

111
Q

jaundice

A

hyperbilirubinemia, progresses head to toe, within first 24 hours can be pathologic

112
Q

erythema toxicum

A

newborn rash

113
Q

not as common skin variations

A

vernix caseosa (protects skin in utero), forceps mark (look for paralysis) , telangiectactic nevi (stork bites), mongolian spots (usually on back and look like bruising) nevus flammeus (capillary density)

114
Q

newborn reflexes

A

tonic-neck, moro, graspin, rooting, sucking, babinksi, trunk incurvation

115
Q

moro reflex

A

arms out when being placed down quickly; appears 32 weeks and disappears 6 months

116
Q

stepping relfex

A

baby steps when holding them upright

117
Q

babinski reflex

A

stroke foot heel to toe and baby curls toes then extends

118
Q

trunk incurvation

A

stroke 1 side of vertebral column and baby moves butt to that side

119
Q

protective reflexes of baby

A

blink (protect eye), yawn (overstimulated), cough(airway protection), sneeze (clear nare)

120
Q

behavioral states of newborns

A

deep sleep, light sleep, drowsiness, quiet alert (best feeding outcomes), active alert, crying

121
Q

behavioral response

A

habituation, orienting response, motor organization, consolability, cuddliness

122
Q

daily newborn care

A

thermoregulation, feeding, skin/cord care, prevention of infection, security

123
Q

daily newborn assessments

A

vitals, weight, overall color, I&O, umbilical cord, feeding, attachment

124
Q

prep for discharge

A

Hep B vaccine (and immunoglobuling if mom +), state screening, hearing screening, CHD screening

125
Q

parental education

A

proper picking up,holding/feeding, diaper changing, newborn cues, bathing, voiding and stooling, safety

126
Q

newborn safety

A

car seat safety, SIDS, shaken baby

127
Q

newborn signs of illness

A

temp above 38 or below 36.6 (axillary), frequent vomiting, refusal of 2 feedings in a row, difficulty awakening baby, cyanosis, jaundice, apnea (>20sec), inconsolable cry, no wet diapers (18-24 hours), eye drainage, bleeding from umbilical, circumcision, or any orifice

128
Q

extrauterine physiologic transitions

A

respiratory, circulatory, thermoregulation

129
Q

4 heat loss mechanisms

A

evaporations, convection (air current), conduction (direct skin contact) radiation (indirect source)

130
Q

why do infants lose heat

A

large body surface related to mass, less insulating fat

131
Q

closure of which fetal shunts

A

foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, ductus venosus

132
Q

APGAR scores

A

assessed at 1 and 5 minutes; 1-3 severe distress, 4-6 moderate difficulty with transition, 7-10 stable

133
Q

APGAR Pulse (HR)

A

0= absent, 1= 60-100, 2= >100

134
Q

APGAR Respiratory

A

0= apnea, 1=slow, irregular, weak cry, 2= lust cry

135
Q

APGAR Grimace (reflex)

A

0= no response, 1= grimace, 2= vigorous cry

136
Q

APGAR Appearance (color)

A

0= cyanotic/pale, 1= body pink, extremities blue, 2= pink

137
Q

APGAR Activity (muscle tone)

A

0= flaccid, 1= some flexion, 2= active motion

138
Q

delayed cord clamping results

A

~61% increase in blood volume

139
Q

vaccines administered after birth

A

vitamin K (coagulation) and erythromycin eye drops (prevent infection)

140
Q

reasons for hyperbilirubinemia

A

accelerated destruction of RBC d/t ABO or Rh incompatibility, delayed cord clamping causing increased blood

141
Q

the infant is able to excrete conjugated bilirubin but not unconjugated

A

true

142
Q

sign of neurological development

A

losing of reflexes

143
Q

when to initiate breastfeeding after birth

A

within 1 hour; when starting to breast feed do not use bottle, artificial nipples, pacifiers

144
Q

contraindications to breastfeeding

A

HIV, active untreated TB, Human T-cell Leukemia, chemical exposure, illegal drug use, children with galactosemia, some medications

145
Q

infant nutritional requirements

A

100-120 cal/kg/day; whey and casein, carbs, fats; fluids 100-150mL/kg/day, iron, fluoride, vitamin D, vitamin K

146
Q

colostrum

A

thick watery yellow consistency; higher in proteins fat soluble vitamins and minerals than mature milk; maternal antibodies

147
Q

infant stomach size

A

day 1- 5-7mL, day 3 0.75-1oz, day 7 1.5-2oz

148
Q

signs of effective breasfeeding

A

nursing >= times in 24 hours; audible swallowing, breast soften after feeding, increasing wet diapers, stools lighten

149
Q

let-down reflex stimulated by

A

lullaby music, changing a diaper, eliciting palmar grasp reflex, maternal thoughts of infant

150
Q

difference in cows milk and breast milk

A

breast milk has higher amount of lactalbumin

151
Q

common complications in newborn period

A

gestation age and birthweight issues, drug exposure, congenital anomalies, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, RDS, TTN, MAS, PPHN, sepsis, hyperbilirubinemia

152
Q

mortality of neonates

A

75% of all neonatal deaths occur in 1st week; risk decreases as gestational age and birth weight increase

153
Q

morbidity of neonates

A

based on gestational age and birthweight

154
Q

age of viability

A

22-23 weeks

155
Q

conditions present at birth

A

IUGR, SGA, LGA, infant of diabetic mother, preterm baby, CHD, inborn errors of metabolism, infant of substance abusing mother

156
Q

gestational age classifications

A

preterm infant (<37 weeks), full term infant (39-41 weeks), late-preterm infant (34-37 weeks), postterm infant >42 weeks)

157
Q

IUGR

A

deviation and reduction in expected fetal growth pattern; multiple conditions can cause this

158
Q

IUGR associated factors

A

fetal factors: affecting genetic growth; maternal factors: age, drug use, smoking; Placental factors: inadequate delivery of nutrients

159
Q

symmetric IUGR

A

intrinsic factors; growth failure early

160
Q

asymmetric IUGR

A

extrinsic factors; growth failure late

161
Q

characteristics of SGA

A

large head compared to body, reduced subcutaneous fat, decreased breast tissue, scaphoid abdomen, wide skull sutures, poor muscle tone, loose dry skin, thin umbilical cord

162
Q

SGA complications

A

chronic hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hypothermia, polycythemia, cognitive difficulties d/t hypoxia, intrauterine infection (torch), congenital malformations

163
Q

characteristics of LGA

A

birth weight >90% for gestational age, increased C-section, hypoglycemia, polycythemia, birth trauma, often apneic, shoulder dystocia, cephalopelvic disproportion

164
Q

infant of diabetic mother complications

A

hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hyperbilirubinemia, birth trauma (macrosomia), polycythemia, RDS, congenital malformations

165
Q

postterm newborn

A

after 42 weeks (4-14% of pregnancies), postmaturity syndrome, risk of perinatal asphyxia and meconium passage, polycythemia, hypoglycemia, decreased amniotic fluid (cord compress. ad thicker meconium stained amn. fluid)

166
Q

CHD screening

A

pulse oximeter on right hand and either foot to detect diminished oxygen delivery

167
Q

newborn screening

A

used to detect 50+ inborn errors that effect metabolism

168
Q

inborn errors

A

enzyme defects that block metabolic pathways causing toxin accumulation which can lead to end organ function

169
Q

tobacco effects on infant

A

LBW, SIDS more likely, 30% increase of prematurity

170
Q

common complication with FAS

A

developmental delay (long term behavioral and cognitive delays), phenotypic features like growth restriction, CNS abnormalities, facial dysmorphology

171
Q

management of infants from substance abuse mothers

A

reducing withdrawal symptoms (jittery, irritable for 6-8 weeks), promote adequate respiration temperature and nutrition, administer meds as ordered, swaddling

172
Q

cold stress infant

A

newborn compensates by increasing metabolic rate, decreased surfactant production = hypoxia, increase glucose consumption = hypoglycemic, metabolic acidosis increases risk of jaundice

173
Q

infant cold stress management

A

rewarm: skin to skin, heat lamp, swaddling. monitor glucose levels, monitor saturation, educate parents

174
Q

who to screen for hypoglycemia

A

LGA, SGA, IUGR, preterm, cold stress, premature, respiratory distress

175
Q

glucose target in newborn

A

> 40mg/dL

176
Q

signs of hypoglycemia in newborn

A

jittery, tachypnea, diaphoresis, hypotonia (floppy), lethargy, apnea, temperature instability

177
Q

physiologic jaundice

A

usually occurs on days 2-5 postpartum; increased bilirubin d/t polycythemia and short life span of RBC, decreased liver uptake, inability to conjugate, breast feeding, over production or underclearance

178
Q

pathological jaundice

A

first 24 hours of life

179
Q

bilirubin encephalopathy

A

unconjugated bilirubin in excess which binds to albumin and crosses BBB; can cause neurotoxicity signs: lethargy, irritability, retrocollis (neck arch) and trunk (opisthonos)

180
Q

kernicterus

A

end stage hyperbilirubinemia; brain damage caused by excessive jaundice; causes specific movement disorders, hearing loss or deafness, impairment of eye movements, abnormal staining of baby teeth enamel

181
Q

hyperbilirubinemia interventions

A

phototherapy, exchange transfusion

182
Q

newborns with infections

A

anticipate sepsis neonatorum, immature immune system, vertical transfusion, horizontal transmission (nosocomial)

183
Q

antibodies that are passed from mother to infant

A

IgG; gives passive acquired immunity

184
Q

signs of respiratory distress syndrome in newborn

A

grunting, flaring, retracting, tachypnea, gray skin color, hypoxemia, acidosis from hypoxemia

185
Q

management of RDS in newborn

A

pulse oximetry, cardiac monitoring, exogenous surfactant, O2, CPAP, intubation, ECMO

186
Q

Transient tachypnea of newborn

A

failure to clear lung fluid, mucus, and debris; exhibits signs of distress shortly after birth (usually from c-section d/t not being squeezed during birth canal)

187
Q

TTN signs

A

expiratory grunting and nasal flaring, subcostal retractions, slight cyanosis

188
Q

meconium aspiration syndrome

A

mechanical obstruction of airway, chemical pneumonitis, vasoconstriction of pulmonary vessels, inactivation of natural surfactant