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Summer Advanced Principles I > EXAM 2 MO PPT > Flashcards

EXAM 2 MO PPT Flashcards

1
Q

Maternal Gestational Diabetes Tx?

A

Diet control

Insulin

Avoid oral hypoglycemic agent (can cause fetal hypoglycemia)

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2
Q

Gestational Diabetes Complications Maternal?

A 
Preterm labor
Polyhydramnion
C/S for macrosomia
Preeclampsia/eclampsia
DM type II
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3
Q

Gestational Diabetes Complications Fetal?

A 
Macrosomia
Shoulder dystocia
Perinatal mortility 2-5%
Congenital defects
!!!Hypoglycemia!!!
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4
Q

Dilutional Anemia during Pregnancy is due to what?

A

Due to 50% increase in plasma volume

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5
Q

If Maternal Hb falls below what level, you should look for another cause (not dilutional anemia due to pregnancy)

A

below 10.5g/dl

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6
Q

Most common hereditary bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrand’s’s disease

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7
Q

What are signs and symptoms of Von Willebrand’s dz?

A

Prolonged BT despite normal platelet count (cannot stick to injured area)

A functional deficiency of factor VIII (pseudo-hemophilia) occurs as a result of deficit of vWF, its carrier protein. Deficiency is manifested clinically by prolonged PTT

Mucous membrane bleeding

Easy brusiability

Prolonged bleeding from wounds

Menorrhagia– very heavy period

LABS
Prolonged PTT
Prolonged BT

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8
Q

Treatment of Von Willebrand’s dz?

A

Desmopressin (dDAVP) increases vWF level

Cryoprecipitate is rich in factor VIII:vWF

Estrogen and OCP

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9
Q

Labs performed on a Mom with gestational Diabetes?

A

Glycosuria, fastening hyperglycemia

Abnormal GTT

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10
Q

Hemophilia A is a deficiency in what factor?

A

VII

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11
Q

Second most common X-linked Coagulation defect? This mean what sex is rarely affected?

A

Hemophilia A, and females are rarely affected.

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12
Q

Clinical findings with Hemophillia A?

A

Soft tissue and joint bleeding
Dangerous CNS bleeding with minor trauma
Spontaneous hematuria leading to ureteral colic

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13
Q

Labs with Hemophilia A?

A

Prolonged PTT (intrinsic pathway)
Low factor VIII
Normal vWF , therefore normal BT

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14
Q

Treatment for Hemophilia A?

A

FFP and cryo (low in VIII)
Factor VIII replacement
Hepatitis C and HIV infection very common due to tinted blood transfusion

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15
Q

What factor is deficient in Hemophilia B?

A

IX

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16
Q

Vitamin C deficiency is a coagulation defect (apparently), what will you lack?

A

Lack of stable collagen (elderly, alcoholics)

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17
Q

Hepatic failure is a coagulation defect, why is this?

A

Almost all clotting factors are made in the liver.

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18
Q

What clotting factors ARE NOT made in the LIVER?

A 
Factor VIII:vWF
Factor III ( tissue factor thromboplastin)
Factor IV ( Ca++)
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19
Q

Vitamin K deficiency is considered a coagulation defect. Tell me why?

A

Yes, Vit K is fat-soluble vitamin and is required for II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X formation (also protein C and protein S)

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20
Q

What issues would cause a deficiency in Vitamin K?

A

Fat malabsorption due to lack /obstruction of bile secretion leads to fatty diarrhea causing deficiency of Vit K

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21
Q

What will you give to all surgical patients with liver dz?

A

Vit. K

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22
Q

What is Thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelets of less than 150,000

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23
Q

What does Thromboccytopenia cause?

A

Bleeding from small capillaries and blood vessels Mucosal, skin bleeding.

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24
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

Low number of platelets, you stop producing new blood cells.

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25
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), what is it and what does it cause?

A

Autoimmune, common.
Due to antiplatelet antibodies.

decreased anti-GPIIb/IIIa antibodies causeing peripheral platelet destruction

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26
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), what is it associated with?

A

Associated with chemo, liver disease, splenomegaly, DIC pre- eclampsia

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27
Q

Tell me about DIC?

A

Abnormal bleeding and clot formation

Critically ill patients

Coagulation and clot lysis in uncontrolled manner

Due to massive tissue damage

Depletion of clotting factors

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28
Q

Anesthesia considerations with coagulation disorders? (what do you want to know, what are they likely to receive?)

A

Careful history about bleeding disorders

Operation history

Massive blood transfusion causes
Functional deficiency of platelets
Packed RBCs infusion leading to dilution of V & VIII

FFP contains all clotting factors (except platelets)

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29
Q

What is AIDS? (very basically what does it do)

A

HIV infect and kill T-helper lymphocytes resulting suppression of cell mediated immunity. Host will develop opportunistic infections (Pneumocystis pneumonia) and various tumors

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30
Q

HIV becomes?

A

AIDS

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31
Q

HIV 1, what exactly is it?

A

single strand of RNA enclosed in a protein envelope, belongs to Retrovirus family.

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32
Q

What is reverse transcriptase? (has to do with how HIV replicates)

A

Viral replication is dependent upon a DNA polymerase known as reverse transcriptase, which is responsible for copying the viral RNA to DNA

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33
Q

How does HIV (AIDS) weaken the cellular immunity?

A

Additional transcription of DNA results in billions of new viral particles that are extruded from cell membrane by killing the T-helper cells (CD4)  weakness of cellular immunity

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34
Q

Where does incorporation of DNA take place (talking about HIV)

A

Incorporation of DNA then takes place into the host cell genome; the T-helper cells (CD4) cell genome

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35
Q

CD4 count?

A

<200/mm^3

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36
Q

RISK FACTORS for HIV?

A

Transmitted by body fluids e.g. semen, blood, vaginal fluids and breast milk

Homosexual and bisexual men

IV drug abusers

Hemophiliacs and recipient of other blood products before 1985

Sexual partners of these groups

Vertical transmission through placenta

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37
Q

HIV - Pathogenesis?

what cells does HIV mess with and what does this cause?

A

T-helper cells coordinates the immune response of T & B lymphocytes, monocytes and macrophages

Therefore, impaired immunity of both cell-mediated and humoral immunity occur

HIV is also neurotropic and neurological dysfunction is common

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38
Q

Is neurological dysfunction common with HIV?

A

Yes

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39
Q

HIV- Laboratory diagnosis?

A

Look for antibodies against viral proteins

Presumptive Dx made with ELISA “RULE OUT test”

Positive results are then confirmed with Western blot assay “ RULE IN test”

HIV PCR / viral load tests

AIDS diagnosis less than or equal to 200 CD4 (N=500-1500)

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40
Q

Stage 1 HIV, tell me about it?

A

Stage I can include a flu-like illness within a month or two of exposure.

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41
Q

What is seroconversion?

A

Stage I can include a flu-like illness within a month or two of exposure
Seroconversion means the immune system is activated against the virus, and antibodies can be detected in the blood.

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42
Q

Stage II of HIV?

A

Sage II, the individual usually remains free of major disease, even without treatment.

It can last 6-8 years, during which HIV levels in the blood slowly rise.

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43
Q

Stage III of HIV?

A

Stage III occurs when the immune system loses the fight against HIV.

Symptoms worsen and opportunistic infectious develop

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44
Q

Four stages of infection with HIV?

A
  1. Flu-like (acute)
  2. Feeling fine (latent)
  3. Falling count
  4. Final crisis

During latent phase, virus replicates in lymph node.

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45
Q

Physical Examination of a person with HIV? (What signs and symptoms may you see (6 things))

A

Low grade fever, night sweat, weight loss

Facial seborrhea

Diffuse lymphadenopathy (like Mono)

Splenomegaly

Oral candidiasis “thrush”

Herpes zoster infection

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46
Q

Clinical features of a person with HIV?

A

Asymptomatic

Persistent fevers and chill

Drenching night sweats

Fatigue, arthralgias, myalgias

Unintentional weight loss “HIV wasting syndrome”

Depression, apathy, as early signs of HIV-related encephalopathy

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47
Q

Special features associated with HIV?

A 
Fever
Lymphadenopathy is a common finding
Skin lesion
Dyspnea
Dysphagia
Diarrhea
Headache and seizures
Blindness
Hematological abnormalities
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48
Q

What is the most common complaint of a person with HIV, and what labs should be done in relation to this?

A

Fever!

Blood culture should be drawn for bacteria, fungus, atypical mycobacterium (MAI) and CMV

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49
Q

What kind of skin lesions do you see with HIV?

A

Pruritus and folliculitis common

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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50
Q

What may be causing the Dyspnea in an HIV patient? (also the leading cause of death)

A

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is leading cause of death

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51
Q

Other causes of pulmonary distress in the HIV patient?

A

Tuberculosis ( -ve tuberculin test)

Atypical mycobacteria

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52
Q

Dysphagia in an HIV patient may be related to?

A

Candidal esophagitis “oral thrush”.

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53
Q

Diarrhea in the HIV patient may be due to?

A

Cryptosporidium , microsporidium , giardia, E.histolytica

Colitis – CMV

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54
Q

HA and seizures in the HIV patient may be due to?

A

Toxoplasma is the most common finding with patients presenting with headache, confusion and seizures.

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55
Q

Blindness in the HIV patient may be due to?

A

CMV retinitis – “Cheese and ketchup lesion” MCC

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56
Q

Hematological abnormalities in the HIV patient may be due to?

A

ITP like thrombocytopenia

Anemia of chronic disease

Lymphocytopenia

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57
Q

Therapy for HIV?

A

Azidotheymidine (AZT) with CD4 < 500

With CD4 < 200 add pneumocystis prophylaxis

Vaccination for pneumococci, influenza and hepatitis

No live vaccine (polio, rubella) should be administered.

High risk of TB

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58
Q

What HIV medication is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

A

AZT

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59
Q

What is Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole given for?

A

With CD4 < 200 add pneumocystis prophylaxi (HIV patient)

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60
Q

What is Preganancy Induced Hypertension?

A

> 140/90 mmHg after 20th week and resolve within 48 hrs after delivery.

61
Q

Preeclampsia S/S

A

HYPERTENSION, PROTENURIA (> 5 g/day) and EDEMA (hand, face, lung)
Oliguria (< 500 ml /day), headache, visual disturbance , hepatic tenderness, hyperreflexia

62
Q

Eclampsi?

A

(+)Seizures in preeclampsia

63
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

(high maternal and fetal mortality). Call for IMMEDIATE DELIVERY

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count

64
Q

Risk factors for Pregnancy induced hypertension?

A

Nulliparity, AA, extreme of age (<15 or >35), multiple gestation. Vascular disease due to SLE and DM, + family history, chronic HTN, HELLP SYNDROME

65
Q

Pathophysiology for pregnancy induced hypertension?

A

Increased: Thromboxane A2, endothelin-1, renin.

Decreased: PGI2, NO

COCAINE ABUSE

66
Q

S/S - pregnancy induced hypertension?

A 
Vasospasm,
decreased I/V volume, decreased GFR, 
edema , 
CNS dysfunctions
decreased uterine BF
67
Q

CURE of PIH? (Pregnancy induced HTN)

A

ONLY CURE is delivery of baby. Monitor PT, PTT

68
Q

Treatment of PIH, that is not delivery?

A

Hydralazine and methyldopa to control HTN
High dose of nitroprusside (could lead to S/E cyanide toxicity)
Seizures require mag sulf and benzo
Mag Sulf to prevent convulsion (Mag sulf antagonizes calcium)

69
Q

What do you give for seizures (if your patient has PIH)?

A

Mag sulfate and benzos

70
Q

Mag sulfate antagonizes what?

A

calciujm

71
Q

What can occur with high dose Nitroprusside?

A

cyanide toxicity

72
Q

Magnesium depresses what?

A

Magnesium depresses CNS by decreasing Ach release

73
Q

What prevents Calcium entry into the cell?

A

Mag sulfate

74
Q

If you prevent calcium from entering the cell, what does that cause?

A

smooth muscle relaxation.

75
Q

What does magnesium toxicity look like?

A

Ventilatory failure ( requires prompt intubation and ventilation)
Absent deep tendon reflexes
Heart block (Prolong PQ, wide QRS), cardiac arrest
Hypotension
Drowsiness, atonia and hypoventilation in fetus

76
Q

With high dose nitroprusside you may have cyanide toxicity, WHY and what will you give to treat the cyanide toxicity?

A

Nitroprusside metabolism (hydrolysis) results in cyanide ion production. To treat cyanide toxicity give sodium thiosulfate to produce thiocyanate which is less toxic and is eliminated by the kidneys

77
Q

Treatment of Magnesium toxcity?

A

D/C magnesium
Intubation and ventilation
IV calcium gluconate ( calcium antagonizes effects of magnesium)

78
Q

What anesthesia drug will you avoid if your patient has PIH?

A

KETAMINE, it causes HTN.

79
Q

Complications to mother and baby with Pregnancy induced HTN (PIH)?

A
  1. Pulmonary edema/ cerebral hemorrhages (leading causes of maternal death)
  2. Prematurity
  3. Prematurity/fetal distress
  4. Intrauterine growth retardation
  5. Placental abruption
  6. ARF, cerebral edema
  7. Fetal/maternal death
80
Q

Name some things you will see with Mild Preeclampsia?

A 
>140/90
Headache, somnolence, blurred vision. 
Epigastric pain, rapid weight gain, edema , JV distension.
Hyperactive reflexes, clonus.
Proteinuria (>300 mg/24 hrs)
81
Q

Name some things you will see with Severe Preeclampsia?

A 
S/S of mild preeclampsia PLUS:
>160/90
Proteinuria (>5 g/24 hrs or 3+ on dipstick
Oliguria
Pulmonary edema, cyanosis
HELLP syndrome
Oligohydramnios
Intrauterine growth retardation
82
Q

The three most common symptoms preceding an eclamptic attack?

A
  1. Headache, visual changes
  2. RUQ/epigastric pain
  3. Seizures; severe if not controlled with anticonvulsant therapy
83
Q

Management of Preecalmpsia will include?

A

If term or fetal lung mature; deliver
If severe; expedite delivery by induction or C/S
Bed rest, monitor BP, reflexes, weight and proteinuria
Control BP ; diastolic < 90-100
Seizure prophylaxis by mag sulf

84
Q

Management of Eclampsia will include?

A

Supplemental O2
Mag sulf + benzo
Monitor fetal status
Initiate steps to delivery.

85
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Chronic, destructive ,systemic inflammatory arthritis characterized by symmetric involvement of both large and small joints. RA causes synovial hypertrophy and pannus formation with resultant erosion of adjacent cartilage, bone and tendons.

86
Q

What age groups/sex/serotype is more likely to have RA?

A

MC in female 20-40 age

High incidence with HLA-DR4 serotype

87
Q

What hx/S/S are common with RA?

A 
Insidious onset
Morning stiffness improves with use
Pain warmth, swelling and decreased mobility
Polyarthropathy
Fatigue, anorexia, weight loss
88
Q

What joints are spared in RA?

A

Distal interphlangeal joints (DIP) are spared in RA

89
Q

Physical examination of someone with RA, what will you typically see?

A

Wrist, metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, ankle, knees, shoulder, hip, elbow and cervical spine (C1, C2)
Cricoarytenoid joint involvement is severe cases
Ulnar deviation of the fingers, swan neck deformities of digits
Extra-articular manifestations
Vasculitis, Subcutanous nodules
Pericarditis, pleuritis
Carpal tunnel syndrome

90
Q

Evaluation of RA, what labs will be significant?

A 
Rheumatoid factor (anti-Fc IgG antibody)
increased ESR
X-ray: narrowing of joint spaces and erosion, pannus formation
91
Q

Tx of RA?

A

NSAIDs

Steroid, methotrexate , choroquine, gold

92
Q

Osteoarthritis, tell me the basics of this disorder?

A

Chronic, noninflammatory arthritis of movable joints
Degenerative joint disease- “wear and tear arthritis”
No systemic manifestation
Deterioration of articular cartilage
Osteophyte (bony spur) formation at joint surfaces.

93
Q

Risk factors for Osteoarthritis?

A

Family history
Obesity
Previous joint trauma

94
Q

What will a patient with osteoarthritis report? (hx)

A

Joint pain worsen by activity and weight bearing and relieved by rest
Crepitus
decreased range of motion

95
Q

What will you find upon physical examination of a patient with osteoarthritis?

A

Involvement of weight bearing joints (hip, knee, lumbar)
Also involve DIP, PIP and cervical
Stiffness and marked crepitus of the affected joints

96
Q

What will labs or imaging of someone with osteoarthritis show?

A

Normal ESR

X-ray: ulcerated cartilage, narrowing of joints spaces, osteophytes , dense subchondral bone

97
Q

treatment of osteoarthritis?

A 
Physical therapy
Weight reduction
NSAID
Intra-articular steroids for temporary relief
Replacement
98
Q

Scoliosis, what is it, what does it affect, what changes occur if someone has scoliosis?

A

Lateral curvature of vertebra and deformity of rib cage
Affect cardiac and respiratory functions
Hypoxia due to V/Q mismatch
Restrictive disease with low lung volume
decreased chest compliance
increased PCO2 in severe disease
Pulmonary hypertension due to increased pul vascular resistance leading to RVH

99
Q

Anesthetic considerations with Scoliosis?

A

Significant blood loss and risk of paraplegia during surgery
Monitor sensory and motor EP
Predispose to MH, arrhythmia, and adverse effects of sux i.e. hyperkalemia, myoglobinuria and sustained muscle contraction

100
Q

Preop what labs do you want on a scoliosis patient?

A

PFT, ABG, ECG

101
Q

What causes CF?

A

Defective chloride channels

102
Q

What chromosome is responsible for the gene location of Cystic Fibrosis (CF)

A

chromosome 7

103
Q

What is CF, what symptoms does it cause?

A

Hereditary disease of exocrine glands of lungs and GIT
Thick and viscous secretion difficult to clear
Recurrent pneumonia, bronchiectasis
increased RV, increased airway resistance, decreased VC, decreased expriatory flow rate
Fluid and electrolyte imbalance due to malabsorption

104
Q

Anesthetic considerations in relation to CF?

A

Anticholinergic drugs are controversial
Prolong inhalation induction
Deep anesthesia for intubation
Avoid hyperventilation; may lead to shallow postop respiration
Respiratory therapy
Bronchodilators, incentive spirometry, postural drainage and proper antibiotics

105
Q

What is Asthma?

A

Asthma is’ reversible’ airway obstruction by contraction of smooth muscle of bronchioles

106
Q

What causes Asthma?

A

Exposure to antigen–> formation of IgE–> IgE attach to mast cells–> re-exposure to the antigen–> Mast cells release:

  • Histamine
  • Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis
  • Eiosinophilic chemotactic factor
  • Bradykinin
  • Heparin, proteolytic enzymes
107
Q

What S/S will you see with asthma?

A

Inflammation ,edema and increased secretion

Bronchoconstriction

decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC
increased FRC ,increased RV due to air trapping
Hyperventilation- decreased PCO2

108
Q

On X-Ray what will you see with Asthma?

A

Hyperinflated lungs, flatening of diaphragm , air trapping

109
Q

Pathophysiology of Asthma?

A

“Reversible” increased resistance to airflow due to airway narrowing (normal physiology between the attacks)

110
Q

Causes of ASTHMA?

A

Airway bronchospasm

Airway inflammation

111
Q

Triggering factors of Asthma?

A 
Airway irritants, environmental pollutants (including occupational exposure)
Exercise, cold air , dry air
Upper and lower resp. tract infection
Aspirin,  blockers 
Gastro esophageal reflux
112
Q

Clinical features of Asthma?

A 
SOB
Cough , chest tightness 
Wheezing 
Dyspnea
Worst at night
113
Q

Physical findings of Asthma (not during an attack)

A

Exam (not PFT) is normal between attacks, this a reversible disease

114
Q

During an Asthma attack, physical findings?

A 
Tachypnea
Insp. and exp. wheezing 
Use of accessory muscles 
Pulsus paradoxus
Paradoxical movement of abdomen
115
Q

Chest x-ray with asthma?

A 
May be normal 
Hyperinflation
Flattening of diaphragm 
Mucus plugging
Atelactasis
116
Q

ABG with Asthma?

A

Hypocapnia
Mild hypoxemia
Hypocarbia is common.Normal CO2 or hypercapnialeading to Respiratory Emergency (40@40) leading to Respiratory failure. Immediate intubation is indicated

117
Q

Asthma Diagnosis, what labs and measurments will be off?

A

Peak flow expiratory rate decrease
FVC , FEV1 and FEV1/FVC decrease
Increase RV
Normal diffusion capacity
Improvement of flow rate with bronchodilators
Bronchial hyper-responsiveness to histamine
Eosinophilia

118
Q

What is the treatment for Asthma?

A

Anti-inflammatory drugs

Bronchodilators

119
Q

Anti-inflammatory drugs as a treatment for Asthma would include?

A

Inhaled steroids
Systemic steroid
Cromolyn-prevents mast cell degranulation; useful for prophylaxis not for an acute attack. Also used to prevent exercise induced asthma.

120
Q

Bronchodilators for the treatment of Asthma would include?

A

Beta2 agonist -inhaled and nebulizer
Anticholinergic – atropine and ipratropium
Aminophyllin (PDE inhibitor) preprations

121
Q

Management of an Acute Asthma Attack?

A

Beta 2 agonist + steroid + ipratropium
Systemic steroid (I/ V)
Aminophylline not helpful in control of severe acute attack

122
Q

Management of Chronic Asthma disease?

A

Inhaled steroid as maintenance + inhaled Beta2 steroid for symptomatic control
Add ipratropium
Consider aminophylline
Short course of oral steroid

123
Q

most serious risk factor associated with surgery during pregnancy?

A

UTERINE ASPHYXIA

124
Q

What position do you want to avoid with pregnant ladies and why?

A

Supine position due to uterine displacement causing supine hypotesion.

125
Q

Decrease in what makes pregnant ladies prone to hypoxia?

A

decreased FRC

126
Q

What diffuses the plancenta rapidly?

A

lipid soluble substances

127
Q

How will you prevent DVT during C/S?

A

prevent DVT with pneumatic compression stockings during C/S

128
Q

MOST frequent complication of spinal and epidrual? How do you treat?

A

Hypotension is the most frequent complication of spinal and epidural; treated by
Left uterine displacement, IV hydration and ephedrine

129
Q

Beta 2 agonist given to stop premature contraction?

A

Ritodrine

130
Q

S/E of ritodrine? (mom and fetus)

A

Mom: hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, tachycardia
Fetus: : hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, tachycardia (+/-)

131
Q

Why avoid atropine with ritodrine?

A

can cause tachycardia leading to pulmonary edema

132
Q

Mag sulfate and NMB, what’s the issue?

A

Mag sulf increases sensitivity to both depolarizing and non-depolarizing muscle relaxant , therefore, decrease the dose

133
Q

What does Lidocaine in high doses do to the uterus?

A

causes uterine vasoconstriction and increased tone.

134
Q

base+acid =?

A

ionized (can not cross, trapped in fetus)

135
Q

base + base =?

A

un-ionized (can cross)

136
Q

LA, base or acid?

A

weak base

137
Q

What patients are considered “full stomachs” and are high risk for aspiration?

A

pregnant ladies (also traumas but that is not for this class)

138
Q

What two medications can you give to pregnant ladies to help with their “full stomach”

A

H2 blockers and Reglan

139
Q

MC morbidities are

mother/child

A

Hemorrhage

Preeclampsia

140
Q

What medication can cross the placental barrier, making regionals the preferred?

A

Opioids

141
Q

Lumbar epidural, what is it likely to do to MC?

A

S/E hypotension

Give ephedrine and IV fluid

142
Q

Problems with GA while pregnant?

A

Rapid desaturation, laryngeal spasm/edema, aspiration

143
Q

What anesthesia/analgesia will you use for C/S

A

spinal/epidural

144
Q

Level of block for C/S is?

A

T4

145
Q

MC adverse effect of regional is hypotension, what will you give?

A

Give phenylephrine with fluid

146
Q

Most common cause of polyhydramnios is?

A

esophageal atresia

147
Q

What nerve is most commonly injured during the following surgeries/proceedures:
Abd hysterectomy
Vaginal hysterectomy
Vaginal delivery

A

Abd hy = Femoral nerve
Vag. hy = peroneal nerve
Vag. delivery = Lumbosacral nerve

148
Q

If you damage the peroneal nerve what will result?

A

Foot Drop

149
Q

Most COMMON cause of anethesia-related maternal mortality?

A

Airway complications

Summer Advanced Principles I (5 decks)

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