Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Therapeutics > Exam 2 Lecture 1 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Lecture 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is one of the most feared side effects induced by chemo

A

CNIV (Chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Complications that could result from CNIV

A

inability to deliver the intended full dose of chemotherapy.

could lead to dehydration, fatigue, depression, electrolyte abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some potential causes of nausea/vomiting in cancer patients

A

Therapy related- chemo, post surgical, radiation therapy
Gastrointestinal- constipation, gastroparesis, bowel obstruction
Neurologic- Severe chronic pain, anticipatory N/V,
Metabolic- hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, hyponatremia
drugs- opioids, anesthetics
psychophysiologic- anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the types of Nausea/vomiting? describe them

A

Anticipatory- learned response conditioned by severity and duration. can be provoked by sight, smell or sound

Acute- emetic response within 24 hrs of receiving chemotherapy

Delayed- related to chemotherapy occuring >24 hrs (probably due to substance P binding to neurokinin 1)

breakthrough- N/V occuring even if on scheduled anti-emetics prior to chemo

Refractory- N/V that persists despite appropriate anti-emetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why does nausea/vomiting happen during chemotherapy?

A

cytotoxic chemotherapy induces damage to the epithelial cells lining the GI tract.
Enterochromaffin cells lining the GI tract contain large stores of serotonin
These are released in massive quantities after exposure to chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where in the brain is vomiting induced

A

The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) stimulates the vomiting center (Located in nucleus tractus solitarii in medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the neurotransmitters implicated in CINV

A

Serotonin, Substance P (NK-1), dopamine, histamine, acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe Serotonin and substance P role in CINV

A

serotonin- Plays a pivotal role in CINV in acute phase. Receptors are abundant in GI tract, area postrema and nucleus tractus solitari. There is an increased level of serotonin during exposure to chemotherapy. This is evidenced by the increase in serotonin metabolite 5-HIAA in urine after exposure to cisplatin.

Substance P- mammalian tachykinin found in neurons, including vagal afferent fibers innervating the brain-stem nucleus tractus solarii and area postrema. The biologic action of this neurokinin is mediated via NK-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the roles Dopamine, Histamine and acetylcholine play in CINV

A

Dopamine- D2 receptors are abundant in the area postrema of the medulla appears to mediate CINV. Primary sire of action is CTZ

Histamine- Histamine receptors are present in the nucleus tractus solitarii, efficacy of histamine antagonists is moderate. Useful when emesis is associated with motion

Acetylcholine- Muscarinic receptors are present near the CTZ, may have mild activity for motion associated n/v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the compound with the highest emetogenic chemotherapy potential

A

Cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How would level 1 and 2 agents contribute to emetogenicity of the regimen? What about adding level 3 and 4 agents?

A

Level 1 and 2 agents do not contribute to the emetogenicity of the regimen.
Adding level 3 or 4 agents increase emetogenicity by 1 level per agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some risk factors for CINV

A

-Women>men
-Younger patients>old
-Prior h/o of motion sickness
-previous CINV tend to do worse
-anxiety/high pretreatment anticipation of nausea
- chronic alcoholism tends to be protective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can we substitute different 5-HT3 antagonists for each other?

What are the 4 types of drugs used for prophylaxis of emesis

A

Yes.

NK-1 antagonist
Steroid
5-HT3 antagonist
Atypical antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are NK-1 antagonists drugs used for emetogenic prophylaxis

A

Aprepitant oral
Aprepitant Injectavle
Fosaprepitant
Rolapitant
Netupitant/palonsetron
Fosnetupretant/palnosetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are steroids used in steroids

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 5-HT3 antagonists used for prophylaxis in emesis

A

Dolasetron
Granisetron
Ondansetron
Palonsetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

WHat are atypical antispychotics used for prophylaxis in emesis

A

Olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two classes of antiemetics that are always used regardless of what regimen we choose?

A

5HT3 antagonists
Steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe regimen A for prophylaxis of highly emetogenic susbatnces

A

NK-1 antagonists
Steroid
5-HT3 antagonist
Atypical antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe regimen B for prophylaxis of HIGHLY emetogenic substance

A

Atypical antipsychotic
5-HT3 antagonist
Steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe regimen C for prophylaxis of highly emetogenic substance

A

NK-1 antagonist
Steroid
5 HT3 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe regimen A of moderately emetogenic substances

A

Steroid
5 HT3 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe regimen B of moderately emetogenic substances

A

Olanzapine
Palonsetron
Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe regimen C of moderately emetogenic substances

A

NK-1 antagonist
steroid
5 HT3 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe drugs used in low emetogenic regimens

A

Dexamethasone
Metoclopramide
Prochlorperazine
5HT3 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are drugs used in breakthrough N/V

A

-DOpamine receptor antagonists (haloperidol, metoclopramide)
-Phenothiazines (prochlorperazine, promethazine)
-Antipsychotic (olanzapine)
-BZD (lorazepam)
-Cannabinoids (dronabinol, nabilone)
-Serotonin antagonists (dolansetron, granisetron, ondansetron)
-steroids (dexamethasone)
-anticholinergic (scopolamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Drugs used in delayed N/V

A

Dexamethasone
NK-1 antagonist
Olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are preventive, behavioral etc actions we can take to prevent anticipatory N/V

A

Preventive- antiemetic tx
behavioral- hypnosis, yoga, desensitization
lorazepam
acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Emesis prevention strategy for oral chemotherapy

A

high emetogenic risk- 5HT3 antagonist (start before chemo and continue daily)
Low emetogenic risk- Metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, 5-HT3 antagonist (start before chemo and continue daily)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prevention strategy for radiation induced emesis

A

Start pretreatment for each day of radiation therapy (granisetron PO +/-dexamethasone
Ondansetron PO +/- dexamethasone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Antiemetics should be given ________ before strat of amino acid infusion

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are antiemetic drugs to be given for radiopharmaceuticals like lutetium dotatate? Which ones to avoid?

A

5-HT3 antagonists or NK-1 antagonists

Not steroids due to downregulation of somatostatin receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are serotonin 5HT3 antagonist drugs and toxicities associated with them

A

Ondansetron
Granisetron
Dolasetron
Palonosetron

toxicities
Headache, EKG changes, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are corticosteroid drugs and what are the toxicities associated with them

A

Dexamethasone- (short term use)- anxiety, euphoria, insomnia, hyperglycemia, increased appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name substance P antagonist drugs and their common toxicities

A

Aprepitant, fosaprepitant, rolapitant, netupitant,
common toxicities- hiccups, can have drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name dopamine antagonist drugs and their common toxicities

A

chlorpromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide
common toxicities include- Extra pyrimidal side effects, diarrhea, sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name an agent and common toxicities for these class of antiemetics
atypical antipsychotics, phenothiazines, cannabinoids, BZDs, anticholinergics

A

-Atypical- olanzapine, dystonic rxn, sedation
-phenothiazine- prochloperazine, chloperazine- sedation, akathesia, dystonia (IV promethazine= tissue damage)
-cannabinoids- dronabinol (drowsiness, dizziness, euphoria, mood changes, hallucination, increased appetite)
BZDs- lorazepam- (sedation, hypotension, urinary incontinence, hallucination
ANticholinergic- scopolamine patch, (anticholinergic side effects) (cant see, cant pee, cant spit, cant shit)

38
Q

EPS is a risk with which antiemetic drugs

A

Metoclopramide, phenothiazine

39
Q

What does it mean when we say emetogenicity is additive

A

Two agents that are each moderately emetogenic make a highly emetogenic regimen

40
Q

Is emetogenic potential the same everyday?

A

No, we have different potential on different days of treatment. (for multiple day chemotherapy, potential is high on day 1, moderate day 2 and 3)

41
Q

When are antiemetics most effective?

A

When given as prophylaxis

42
Q

When to begin antiemetics for patient undergoing chemotherapy? What are other important principles for before/after chemo?

A

Administer 5 to 30 minutes prior to chemotherapy

administer around the clock until chemotherapy is complete and provide PRN agents for breakthrough N/V

provide PRN medication for them to take home

43
Q

What is mucositis? Compare continous IV vs short infusion)

A

Inflammation of mucosal (mucous membranes lining mouth and along the GI tract)
May range from mild inflammation to bleeding ulcers

occur more in Continous infusions

44
Q

Risk factors for mucositis?

A

pre-existing oral lesions
poor dental hygiene, ill-fitting denture

45
Q

prevention of mucositis

A

Diet recommendations
- avoid rough food (toast, chips), spice, salt and acidic fruit
avoid smoking and alcohol
eat soft and liquid, non acidic foods

46
Q

What are general mouth care strategies

A

pre treatment dental screening,
soft bristle tooth brushes
saliva substitute
baking soda rinse

-

47
Q

pain management for mucositis

A

-topical anesthetics (magic mouthwash)
-oral cryotherapy (ice chips, causes vasoconstriction)
-Sucralfate (forms protective barrier, increases prostaglandin E2)
-Oral and parenteral opioid analgesics

48
Q

What is the most common dose limiting toxicity of chemotherapy
Range of WBC for neutropenia

A

Bone marrow suppression
Neutropenia- <0.5*10^3

49
Q

What is the normal range of WBC? What is the decreased range? What is decreased range called? RIsk with lower range?

A

Normal- 4.8-10.8 x10^3
decreased WBC (neutropenia- <0.5*10^3), leukopenia, granulocytopenia
Risk of life threatening infections

50
Q

What is the normal range of Megakaryocyte (? What is the decreased range? What is decreased range called? RIsk with lower range?

A

-Megakaryocyte=platelet
-normal range- 140-440 x 10^3
-Decreased platelets are is called thrombocytopenia (<100x10^3)
-Causes risk of bleeding

51
Q

Normal range of RBC?
Decreased RBC name?
Risk?

A

4-6-6.2x10^12
decreased RBC=anemia
risk of hypoxia and fatigue

52
Q

Most common dose limiting toxicity of chemotherapy

A

Bone marrow suppression

53
Q

What is the nadir

A

The lowest value the blood counts fall to during a cycle of chemotherapy (usually measured by ANC or neutrophil count)

54
Q

When do nadirs occur?

A

Generally occurs 10-14 days after chemotherapy administration and counts recover after 3-4 weeks.

Only exceptions are mitomycin C and nitrosoureas which nadir around 4-6 weeks

55
Q

What are the typical blood counts required to administer Chemotherapy in a patient

A

WBC>3x10^3 OR
absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 1.5*10^3 AND platelet count >or= 100x10^3

56
Q

severe neutropenia is defined as

A

ANC < 0.5 x 10^3
neutropenic patients are at an increased risk of developing serious infections.

57
Q

define febrile neutropenia

A

ANC<0.5*10^3 and a single oral temperature >101 F or >100.4 for at least an hour.

58
Q

What are high risk patients defined as for neutropenia

A

-pre existing neutropenia due to disease
- extensive prior chemo
- previous irradiation to pelvis or other areas containing a lot of bone marrow

59
Q

difference between primary and secondary prophylaxis for neutropenia

A

Primary prophylaxis- If the patient is to receive a chemotherapy regimen that is expected to cause >20% incidence of febrile neutropenia
secondary prophylaxis - The patient experienced a neutropenic event from a previous cycle of chemo and we want to prevent it from occurring again (use CSF preventively with next cycle of chemotherapy)

60
Q

What are other uses for CSF

A
  • support patients through dose dense chemotherapy
    -can be used alone, after chemo or in combination with plerixafor to mobilize peripheral blood progenitor cells
  • after a stem cell transplant to reduce duration of severe neutropenia
61
Q

What are the different CSF agents

A
  • Filgrastim (Neupogen) G-CSF
    -Pegfilgrastim (neulasta)
  • sargramostim (leukine) GM-CSF
62
Q

MOA of filgrastim, pegfilgratim and sargramostim.

A

Filgrastim- regulates production, maturation and function of neutrophil cell line. Has dose dependent elevation in neutrophil count. Has a RAPID DROP in WBC and neutrophil count following discontinuation (50% decrease within 24 hrs)

Pegfilgrastim- differs from filgrastim by a pegylated molecule attached to it. Just like filgrastim, ot stimulates production, maturation and function of neutrophil precursors. Non linear PK and clearance increases with increasing neutrophil count

sargramostim- effects on phagocytic accessory cells which mediates its action on neutrophil lineage. Drops in WBC count and neutrophil count following discontinuation. (50% decrease within 24 hrs)

63
Q

Which agent is the first biosimilar CSF to be approved in the US

A

Filgrastim-SNZD
Patient should remain on whichever agent it is started on and not switch
between manufactured product

64
Q

filgrastim and pegfilgrastin dose and when to start

A

Filgrastim- 5 mcg/kg/day
Start 3-4 days after completion of chemotherapy and continue until post nadir

Pegfilgrastim- 6 mg SQ x 1 dose
start atleast 24 hours after chemotherapy and can be given 3-4 days after chemotherapy (atleast 14 days should pass between dose and next cycle of chemo) (do not do same day therap)

65
Q

Filgrastim vial sizes and adverse effects

A

Filgrastim vials come in 300 and 480 mcg vials.
adverse effects- flu like symptoms, bone and joint pain, DVT

66
Q

What percent of patients receiving CSF have bone or muscoskeletal pain? why do they have bone or muscoskeletal pain?

rare adverse events of CSF

A

20-30% have muscoskeletal or bone pain.
These pains can be attributed to rapid proliferation of bone marrow myeloid cells

Enlargement of spleen with long term use

67
Q

Thrombocytopenia definition? When does increased risk of bleeding occur.

A

Usually defined as a platelet count of <100x10^3

increased risk of bleeding occurs at <20x10^3 and may require a tranfusion (ASCO guidelines recommends a threshold of transfusion at 100x10^3)

68
Q

What are the general causes of anemia

A

-decreased RBC production (cancer therapy, tumor infiltration into bone marrow)
-decreased Erythropoietin production (renal dysfunction)
-decreased body stores of vitamin B12, iron or folic acid
-blood loss

69
Q

When should patients undergo a work up for chemo induced anemia

A

Patients with hemoglobin <11 g/dl or >2g/dl decrease from baseline

70
Q

What to do if patient is symptomatic for chemo induced anemia

A

Transfuse as indicated
Consider use of ESA (erythropoietic stimulating agent)
perform iron studies

71
Q

black box warning for ESA

A

ESA increases risk for death, MI, stroke, VTE

72
Q

When are ESAs not recommended?
When are ESAs recommended?

A

Not recommended when
- patients receiving myelosuppressive chemo with curative intent
-cancer patients not receiving chemo
-patients receiving non-myelosuppressive chemo

consider using
- cancer and CKD
-Patients undergoing palliative chemo
-patients without identifiable causes

73
Q

Benefits and risk of ESA in cancer induced anemia

A

Benefit- 1. transfusion avoidance
2. gradual improvement in anemia symptoms

Risk- 1. increased thromboembolic event
2. possible decreased survival
3. time to tumor progression shortened

74
Q

Benefits and risk of blood transfusion in cancer induced anemia

A

Benefits- 1. rapid increase of hemoglobin and hematocrit
2. rapid improvement in anemia related symptom fatigue

risk- 1. transfusion rxn
2. Transfusion related circulatory verload
3. virus transmission (HIV, Hepatitis
4. bacterial contamination
5. iron overload
6. increased thromboembolic event
7. possible decreased survival

75
Q

What is epoetin alfa? What does it do? Where is it produced? What is it regulated by?

A

-It is a glycoprotein that stimulates RBC production
-it stimulates division and differentiation of committed erythroid progenitors in the bone marrow.
- Produced in kidney
- endogenous production regulated by level of tissue oxidation

76
Q

recommendations for epoetin alfa in chemotherapy associated anemia

A

Dose should be adjusted to maintain the lowest hgb level
If hgb increases more than 1 g/dl in a 2 week period, the dose should be decreased by 25% for epoetin alfa and 40% for darbapoietin.

77
Q

MOA of darbapoietin? Indication?

A

Stimulates erythropoiesis by binding to epoetin receptor like erythropoietin

indicated in anemia in patients with non-myeloid malignancies where anemia is caused by chemo

78
Q

All oncology patients who are prescribed ESAtherapy should have what baseline taken?

A

Iron

79
Q

If no other causes for anemia is identified what should we do

A

Oral iron supplementation

80
Q

How is iron absorption affected by food

A

Iron absorption will be reduced, by about one half if food is eaten 2 hrs before or 1 hr after ingestion

81
Q

Myalgias and arthralgias are caused by what chemo agents? How to treat myalgias and arthralgias

A

Paclitaxel, docetaxel, anastrazole, letrozole, exemestane

Treatment- NSAIDs, maybe opioids

82
Q

Which chemo agents cause hemorrhagic cystitis? how to treat hemorrhagic cystitis

A

high dose cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

Treatment- Hydration, mesna (both prevention)

83
Q

Which chemo agents cause heart failure? How to treat this?

A

anthracyclines, high dose cyclophosphamide, trastuzumab (other HER2 therapies)

treatment- monitor cumulative dose, assess for risk factors, Dexrazoxane

84
Q

Which chemo drugs cause peripheral neuropathy? treatment?

A

taxanes, vinca alkaloids, platinums

treatment- change infusion rate for paclitaxel
adjunctive pain meds like gabapentin and amitriptyline

85
Q

Pulmonary toxicity is caused by what chemo drugs? treatment?

A

caused by bleomycin

treatment- corticosteroids

86
Q

Mechanism of cardiac toxicity in chemo drugs? why is myocardium more susceptible?

A

formation of iron-dependent oxygen free radicals due to stable anthracycline-iron complexes, which cause catalysis of electron transfer.

Myocardium is more susceptible due to lower levels of detoxifying oxygen free radicals compared with other tissue.

87
Q

What are the different type I chemotherapy related cardiac toxicity

A

Acute
chronic
late-onset

88
Q

Difference between acute, chronic and late onset (when it occurs? How common and dangerous? cumulative? symptoms?)

A

acute- occurs immediately after a single dose or course of therapy with an anthracycline. Uncommon and transient. May involve abnormal ECG findings like QT prolongation and arrythmias. Congestive HF and pericarditis. Not related to cumulative dose.

Chronic- onset usually within a year of receiving anthracycline therapy. common and life threatening. Rapid onset and progression. Related to cumulative dosing. Symptoms include tachycardia, tachypnea, exercise intolerance, pulmonary and venous congestion.

Late onset- develops several years (even decades) after therapy. Manifests as ventricular dysfunction, CHF, conduction disturbances and arrythmias. Occurs more in childhood/adolescence cancer survivor who received anthracycllines.

89
Q

What drug causes type II chemo related cardiac dysfunction?
Is it dose related?
is it associated with cardiac damage?
MOA?
reversible?
incidence?
What causes increase in cardiac toxicity?

A
  • not dose related
  • Not associated with cardiac damage
  • mechanism involves eGFR pathway which blunts effects of stress signaling pathway that are required to maintain cardiac function
    -reversible
  • Incidence is ~ 3% in non-anthracycline treated
    patients and increases to 5% in those who have
    received previous anthracyclines
    -If trastuzumab is given concurrently with
    anthracycline, the incidence can increase up to
    27% cardiac toxicity
90
Q
A

Therapeutics (38 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions