Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GN421 Exam 2 > Exam 2 (Everything) > Flashcards

Exam 2 (Everything) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the major control point of transcription?

A

Initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In lambda phage, the Q cut site overlaps:

A

Promoter to the right ‘

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What group of genes is transcribed by PR’

A

Late genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which lambda phage promoter is autoregulated by the lambda repressor?

A

The promoter of repressor maintenance (PRM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which lambda phage promoter is used to transcribe an antisense product of cro and the lambda repressor?

A

The promoter of repressor establishment (PRE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If lambda phage had a mutation in OR3 in both the promoter to the right and the promoter to the left that reduced the affinity for cro, would this promote lysis or lysogeny?

A

Lysogeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If lambda phage infects E. coli cells that are expressing genes of the lac operon, will lambda most likely choose to undergo lysis or lysogeny?

A

Lysogeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which part of RNA polymerase II moves the most during transcription?

A

Clamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase transcribes the tRNA genes?

A

RNA polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase transcribes the rRNA genes?

A

RNA polymerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase transcribes the mRNA genes?

A

RNA polymerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When RNA polymerase II is said to be “processive”, what does this mean?

A

The enzyme forms a stable interaction with the template and will transcribe until it reaches a terminator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which region of RNA polymerase II positions the template strand of the DNA to be transcribed and then translocates it during synthesis?

A

The bridge helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which region of RNA polymerase II maintains the dissociation of the RNA-DNA hybrid during transcription elongation?

A

The lid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which region of RNA polymerase II contains the zipper, rudder and lid?

A

The clamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which region of RNA polymerase II initiates the dissociation of the template DNA?

A

The zipper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which region of the RNA polymerase II enzyme initiates the dissociation of the RNA-DNA hybrid?

A

The rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When RNA polymerase II is transcribing a gene, where is the upstream DNA relative to the downstream DNA?

A

Perpendicular to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which transcription factor does NOT cause DNA to bend when it binds DNA?

A

Zif286 (TBP and CAP do bend DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which one of the general transcription factors in most like the sigma subunit of E. coli RNA polymerase?

A

TFIIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens after the carboxy terminal domain of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II has been phosphorylated by TFIIH?

A

The polymerase begins elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three most common types of transcription activation domains within gene specific transcription factors?

A

Acidic, glutamine rich, and proline rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 3 eukaryotic helix turn helix proteins?

A

The homeodomain proteins: Antennapedia, engrailed, Mat a-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 prokaryotic helix turn helix proteins?

A

The lambda repressor proteins: cro and CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Normally, the thyroid hormone receptor is a repressor and the estrogen receptor is an activator. If you exchanged the repressive and activation domains between these two proteins, what would happen if you added thyroid hormone to cells expressing both of the new fusion proteins (but not the wild type proteins)?

A

Thyroid hormone receptor target genes would be activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normally, the thyroid hormone receptor is a transcriptional repressor and the estrogen receptor is a transcriptional activator. If you exchange the ligand binding domains between these two proteins, what would happen if you added thyroid hormone to cells expressing both of the new fusion proteins (but not the wild type proteins)?

A

Thyroid hormone receptor target genes would be activated

27
Q

Normally, the thyroid hormone receptor is a repressor and the estrogen receptor is a activator. If you exchange the DNA binding domains between these two proteins, what would happen if you added thyroid hormone to cells expressing both of the new fusion genes (but not the wild type proteins)?

A

Estrogen receptor target genes would be repressed

28
Q

Which family of transcription factors bind both the major groove and minor groove?

A

Helix-turn-helix

29
Q

Which family of transcription factors bind to two successive major grooves in DNA?

A

Zinc finger

30
Q

In DNA sequencing by the Sanger dideoxy chain termination approach, the DNA strand whose sequence is directly determined (i.e. read from autoradiographs of sequencing gels) is the strand that:

A

Has the same sequence as the primer

31
Q

In which two sequencing methods are chain-terminating nucleotides required for DNA sequencing?

A

Sanger and Illumina

32
Q

In a single well of a pico titer plate is a single bead with 1 million single-stranded DNA molecules attached. Each molecule contains 220 nucleotides of genomic DNA. What is the maximum base pairs of DNA sequence information that can be obtained from this one well?

A

220 base pairs

33
Q

What method requires an amplification step prior to sequencing?

A

Illumina

34
Q

What are promoters?

A

Specific RNA polymerase binding sites on DNA

35
Q

What is the difference between the RNA polymerase core and the RNA polymerase holoenzyme?

A

The holoenzyme binds promoters more tightly than the core enzyme because of the sigma factor

36
Q

Which subunit of RNA polymerase binds to the -35 and -10 boxes of prokaryotic promoters?

A

Sigma

37
Q

When are the genes within the lac operon induced?

A

In the presence of low concentrations of glucose

38
Q

Which of the following subunits of prokaryotic RNA polymerase bind to UP elements within promoters?

A

Alpha

39
Q

In lambda phage, what is the function of N?

A

It is an antiterminator protein that binds to its own transcript

40
Q

In the forensic use of DNA for identification of individuals using PCR and VNTR minisatellite DNA, PCR primers must be complementary to:

A

Unique DNA sequences not included in the variable number tandem repeats

41
Q

What mechanism do transposons move by?

A

Cut and paste

42
Q

What mechanism do retrotransposons move by?

A

Copy and paste

43
Q

Consider a 5 bp tandemly-repeated micro satellite DNA found in three arrays scattered throughout the genome. One array has 50 tandem repeats. One array has 1000 tandem repeats. One array has 500 tandem repeats. What is the copy number of the repeat?

A

1550

44
Q

Genes that are transcribed but not translated into protein are classified as:

A

RNA-coding genes

45
Q

Experiments in which isolated nuclei are treated with micrococcal nuclease provide evidence for:

A

The existence of nucleosomes

46
Q

In vertebrate animals and plants, the nucleosome core is made up of:

A

8 histones and 146 bp of DNA

47
Q

In a transformation experiment, two foreign genes were introduced into the genome of plant cells in culture, GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) and NPTII (neomycin phosphotransferase), a gene whose protein product inactivates the antibiotic neomycin. Which is the screenable marker and which is the selectable marker?

A 
GFP = screenable
NPTII = selectable
48
Q

The genome of a certain bird found in the Galapagos Islands has a genome size of 2 Gbp. In a genome reassociation experiment, one-fourth of the genome was found to reassociate as a class of repetitive DNA sequences with a Cot1/2 of 2 x 10-2 moles bp x sec x l-1. Under the same conditions of stringency, E. coli DNA with a complexity of 4.2 x 106 bp has a Cot1/2 of 8.4 moles bp x sec x l-1. What is the complexity of this class of repetitive sequences in the Galapagos Island bird?

A

1 x 10^4 bp

49
Q

The genome of the phage T4 contains 1.7 x 105 base pairs. The genome of E. coli contains 4.2 x 106 base pairs. In both cases the genomes are simple-sequence DNA, i.e., they contain all unique sequences, no repetitive DNA. Which genome has the greater complexity?

A

E.coli

50
Q

What is the function of RAP30?

A

Mediates binding of TFIIF to the core

51
Q

Which part of helix-turn-helix domains bind in the major groove, and which part binds in the minor groove on the opposite side?

A

Major: recognition helix
Minor: N-terminus

52
Q

What is the most common DNA binding motif?

A

2 hydrogen bonds formed between Arginine side chain of the transcription factor and the guanine base of DNA

53
Q

How do hormone receptors bind DNA?

A

As a dimer on one face of the DNA double helix, with each subunit in successive major grooves

54
Q

Which groove of the DNA do TBP’s bind?

A

The minor groove; forcing open the DNA

55
Q

What are 2 of the main functions of Rpb4/7?

A

Locks clamp in closed formation and provides a binding surface for RNA exiting the elongating polymerase

56
Q

GTPase Ras

A

Dominant-negative; bind GDP and stay in inactive state

57
Q

What is the function of the CTD?

A

Binds proteins involved in capping, splicing, and polyadenylating precursor mRNAs

58
Q

Genes O & P

A

Code for the proteins needed for phage DNA replication

59
Q

How does PRE help to promote lysogeny?

A

It direct transcription leftward through cro & cl, producing antisense product of cro (since cro is usually transcribed rightward from PR)

60
Q

Where is PRE located?

A

To the right of PR and cro

61
Q

What is the consensus bind sequence of bHLH proteins?

A

5’-CANNTG-3’

62
Q

When can a lysogen enter lytic phase?

A

When it encounters mutagenic chemicals, UV light, or radiation

63
Q

What is meant by “processive”?

A

Antitermination factors remain associated with polymerase as it moves down the DNA

GN421 Exam 2 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions