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RUSVM Bacteriology Spring 2017 > Exam 2: E. coli - A. Lignieresii > Flashcards

Exam 2: E. coli - A. Lignieresii Flashcards

1
Q

Where does Enterobacteriaceae reside?

A

the GI tract of humans and animals

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2
Q

Is lipid A an endotoxin or exotoxin? What type of bacteria is it found in?

A

endotoxin, in gram negative bacteria

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3
Q

Is enterobacteriaceae gram positive or negative? Is it an aerobe or anaerobe?

A

gram negative, facultative anaerobe

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4
Q

Why is coliform enumeration performed?

A

to evaluate fecal/sewage contamination

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5
Q

What are the most common nosocomial infections? Are these obligate or opportunistic pathogens?

A

Klebsiella pneumonia, Klebsiella oxytoca, Enterobacter cloaca, Enterobacter aerogenes, Proteus mirabilis, and Citrobacter freundii. These are opportunistic pathogens.

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6
Q

What is a serotype? What do O, H, F, and K represent?

A

complete antigenic formula. O-antigen, H-Flagella, F-fimbriae, K-capsule.

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7
Q

Is Shigella spp. also considered and Escherichia?

A

Yes, but it is not present in animals.

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8
Q

What are ExPEC E. coli strains? What do they affect?

A

Extra-intestinal pathogenic strains. They affect resp., septicaemiae, UTI, mastitis

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9
Q

What are the 5 main enteric pathotypes of E. coli?

A

ETEC - enterotoxigenic, EHEC - enterohemorrhagic, VTEC/STEC - verotoxigenic/shiga-like toxic, EPEC - enteropathogenic, and RPEC - rabbit pathogenic.

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10
Q

What are the 4 main types of E. coli extra intestinal pathotypes? Who do each affect?

A

APEC - avian pathogenic, NTEC (necrotoxigenic) - cattle, Mastitis causing E. coli - cattle, and MMA in pigs.

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11
Q

What causes bacterial diarrhea in piglets?

A

ETEC and EPEC

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12
Q

T/F: Bacterial diarrhea in fattening pigs, sows, and boar is always caused by E. coli

A

False. It is seldom caused by e. coli

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13
Q

Which ETEC adhesion factor is seen in neonates->post weaning pigs and is expressed at body temp?

A

F4 (K88)

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14
Q

What ETEC adhesion factor is in both pigs and bovines, and expression is temperature dependent?

A

F5 (K99)

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15
Q

Which ETEC adhesion factor is mainly extrachromosomal and seen only in neonates?

A

F6 (987P)

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16
Q

Which enterotoxin is seen in ETEC, EPEC, and VTEC, and is also closely related to STa?

A

EAST1

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17
Q

What are the clinical signs of ETEC?

A

animals remain drinkin, have smelly feces, and are dehydrated. Older animals have white-grey diarrhea that isn’t as watery.

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18
Q

What is the ideal way to prevent ETEC?

A

keep infection pressure low and maternal immunity high by vaccines, hygiene, and selecting receptor free piglets.

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19
Q

Which E. coli strain causes oedema disease? In what age group?

A

VTEC, in post weaning

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20
Q

What are the VTEC virulence factors?

A

adhesion (F18), exotoxin (VT2e or Stx2e), and endotoxin which causes acute mortality

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21
Q

What are the clinical signs of VTEC?

A

acute mortality (some), diarrhea (some), anorexia, oedema (especially swollen eyelids), and CNS.

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22
Q

What is the course of treatment for VTEC affected animals?

A

fast them to eliminate the toxin, antimicrobial therapy after susceptibility testing (because of resistance).

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23
Q

T/F: You want to vaccinate and castrate piglets at the same time.

A

False. You want to keep stress levels to a minimum in order to prevent VTEC.

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24
Q

Which is the most important pathogen in UTIs in pigs?

A

E. coli

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25
Q

T/F: Septicaemiae caused by E. coli us secondary to enteric infection.

A

True. It is rarely a primary disease.

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26
Q

What are the E. coli diseases in bovines and what age groups do they affect?

A

ETEC - animals less than 3 days of age, EPEC and EHEC - animals older than 1 week, Septicaemic (NTEC) - neonates, lack of colostrum.

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27
Q

Which is the most common virulence factor in ETEC in bovines?

A

F5

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28
Q

T/F: EHEC and EPEC are both zoonotic.

A

False, only EHEC is.

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29
Q

Which are the most frequent E. coli serotypes in poultry and other birds?

A

O1, O2, and O78

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30
Q

T/F: Salmonella is not very resistant in the environment.

A

False. It is very resistant, especially when protected by organic material or in a dry environment.

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31
Q

What are the 2 main Salmonella serotypes seen in bovines?

A

S. typhimurium and S. dublin

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32
Q

Which Salmonella strain causes typhoid in pigs?

A

S. choleraesuis

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33
Q

Is the salmonella abortus equi bacteria in horses intracellular or extracellular?

A

Intracellular. This makes it hard to remove from the reproductive system/organs.

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34
Q

Which is the most common form of non-host specific salmonella in horses?

A

the acute form. This can evolve to a chronic form.

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35
Q

What percentage of dogs are carriers for Salmonella? Percentage of cats?

A

Dogs: 0-36%, Cats: 0-20%

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36
Q

What is the main way for cats and dogs to get Salmonella?

A

through feed.

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37
Q

When is the use of antibiotics for Salmonella infections in cats and dogs contraindicated? Why?

A

When the animals have a good general condition. This can lead to the creation of carriers.

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38
Q

Salmonella in pigeons is caused by what variation?

A

S. typhimurium var. Copenhagen

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39
Q

When is acute parathyphus typically seen?

A

during breeding.

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40
Q

Typhoid salmonella in poultry is typically caused by what strains?

A

S. pullorum and S. gallinarum

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41
Q

T/F: S. enteriditis causes non-typhoid salmonella in poultry

A

True.

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42
Q

What causes typhoid salmonella in turkeys?

A

S. enterica ssp. arizonae. It is only seen in younger animals.

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43
Q

T/F: S. pullorum can be transmitted vertically and horizontally.

A

True.

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44
Q

Which paratyphoid salmonella strain is zoonotic and spread through egg contamination?

A

S. enteriditis

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45
Q

What can cause equine metritis?

A

Kelbsiella infections

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46
Q

What animals do Klebsiella infections affect?

A

Non-human primates, horses, bovines.

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47
Q

T/F: Klebsiella infections cause mastitis in bovines.

A

True.

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48
Q

T/F: Klebsiella can be the cause of pyometra or cystitis in dogs.

A

True, but very rare.

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49
Q

Which Yersinia strains are zoonotic?

A

Y. pestis, Y. pseudotuberculosis, and Y. enterocolitica.

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50
Q

Which Yersinia strain is known to cause “black death”?

A

Yersinia pestis.

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51
Q

Which Yersinia spp. was responsible for the bubonic plague? How was it transmitted?

A

Yersinia pestis. Fleas of wild rodents.

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52
Q

When is Yersinia pestis typically seen?

A

Mainly in warm months, when temperatures are above 27 degrees celcius.

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53
Q

Where does Yersinia pestis replicate in fleas?

A

in the proventriculus.

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54
Q

How do cats obtain Yersinia pestis?

A

by eating infected prey.

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55
Q

What Yersinia spp. is a major pathogen in Passeriformes?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

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56
Q

Where does Yersinia pseudotuberculosis replicate in birds and rodents?

A

In the blood. This leads to sepsis.

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57
Q

What bacteria causes “fat liver disease” or “rodentiosis”?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

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58
Q

What bacteria multiplies post-mortem and causes difficulties as a contaminant in bacteriological cultures?

A

Proteus

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59
Q

What bacteria is seen in otitis post-treatment?

A

Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis

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60
Q

Is Pseudomonas an aerobe or anaerobe? Where is it predominantly found?

A

obligate aerobe, typically found in water.

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61
Q

Is P. aeruginosa an obligate or facultative pathogen? Is it oxidase positive or negative? What about lactose?

A

facultative pathogen, oxidase positive, lactose negative.

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62
Q

T/F: P aeruginosa causes fleece rot in sheep

A

True

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63
Q

When is P. aeruginosa seen in cats and dogs?

A

skin infections (pyoderma), cystitis, otitis externa, and it is seen in some purulent processes (pus can be blue/green) in these cases. Also seen in eye infections.

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64
Q

P. aeruginosa causes what in rabbits?

A

skin infection (moist dermatitis). Can also cause pneumonia.

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65
Q

What does P. aeruginosa cause in horses?

A

metritis-vaginitis secondary to prolonged antimicrobial treatment, and keratitis conjunctivitis as a secondary infection following topical treatment with steroid/antibiotic mixtures.

66
Q

Does P. aeruginosa have a high instance of aquired resistance?

A

Yes.

67
Q

In what species does P. aeruginosa cause mastitis? Fleece rot?

A

Bovines, sheep, and goats get mastitis. Sheep get fleece rot.

68
Q

What does P. aeruginosa cause in reptiles?

A

necrotic stomatitis, pneumonia, septicaemiae all usually due to poor housing.

69
Q

Where is P. aeruginosa found in turkeys?

A

In their oviduct.

70
Q

What is the most crucial step in treating P. aeruginosa infections?

A

take away the cause of infection.

71
Q

Which Burkholderia species was used in WWI and is reportable?

A

B. mallei (glanders). Mainly an equine pathogen but infects felines, dogs, and humans.

72
Q

How is B. mallei transmitted?

A

ingestion, inhalation, and through wounds.

73
Q

Which form of glanders is typically fatal?

A

the acute infection.

74
Q

What is the official test to diagnose glanders in horses? What is the issue with this test?

A

CFT. false positives.

75
Q

What is the best form of treatment and prevention of B. mallei?

A

cull positive animals, burn bedding and feed. REPORT DISEASE.

76
Q

T/F: Burkholderia pseudomallei (melioidosis) is not a reportable disease.

A

False. It is reportable.

77
Q

When are B. pseudomallei infections frequently seen? Why?

A

after flooding or heavy rainfalls. This bacteria is a real saprophyte.

78
Q

What are the virulence factors of Melioidosis?

A

adhesins (flagella), capsule, T3SS and T4SS

79
Q

What bacteria was very important in military dogs during the war in Vietnam?

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei (Melioidosis)

80
Q

Melioidosis is known as what in horses?

A

pseudoglanders

81
Q

T/F: You want to cull animals affected with Burkholderia pseudomallei (melioidosis)

A

False. Course of tx is abscess drainage and antimicrobial treatment following a susceptibility profile. REPORTABLE.

82
Q

What are some virulence factors of Francisella tularensis?

A

capsule (anti-complement), endotoxin (LPS), and factors that promote intracellular survival in phagocytes.

83
Q

Which subspecies of F. tularensis is found in Europe? in Central Asia? N. America?

A

F. tularensis subsp. holarctica, F. tularensis subsp. mediasiatica, and F. tularensis subsp. tularensis

84
Q

T/F: F. tularensis always has a systemic phase with multi-organ failure

A

True.

85
Q

What are the organs mainly affected with F. tularensis infections?

A

liver, spleen, and lungs.

86
Q

Which strain of F. tularensis is more virulent?

A

Type A (ss. tularensis)

87
Q

Which Taylorella sp. is non-pathogenic and seen in donkeys?

A

Taylorella asinigenitalis

88
Q

T/F: Taylorella equigenitalis is an obligate pathogen who is also obligate symbiotic

A

True

89
Q

This bacteria is reportable, causes contagious equine metritis, and only has immunity develop in females. It is asymptomatic in males.

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

90
Q

What bacteria are BSL3?

A

Francisella tularensis, Burkholderia mallei, and Burkholderia pseudomallei

91
Q

How do you diagnose T. equigenitalis in stallions?

A

Swab the preputium, urethra, fossa glandis, and sinus urethralis.

92
Q

How do you diagnose T. equigenitalis in females?

A

swab the fossa clitoridis and sinus clitoridis.

93
Q

T/F: there is a vaccine available for T. equigenitalis that prevents infection.

A

False. There is a vaccine available, but it does not prevent infection. Simply reduces severity of disease.

94
Q

T/F Brucella abortus has distinct symptoms.

A

False. It is asymptomatic, spreads intracellularly in macrophages.

95
Q

What are the target organs for Brucella abortus?

A

reproductive organs, articulations, tendon sheath, synovial bursa

96
Q

T/F: Brucella abortus can cause subclinical mastitis

A

True

97
Q

T/F: Brucella abortus has a cell wall, a capsule, and no flagella.

A

False. It has no capsule or flagella. Only a cell wall

98
Q

What is responsible for B. abortus’ preferential location?

A

erythritol

99
Q

Which colonies of Brucella have increased virulence? Which are zoonotic?

A

Smooth colonies. B. melitensis, B. abortus, and B. suis

100
Q

When are antibodies against Brucella abortus formed?

A

When it’s in the organs.

101
Q

How do you diagnose B. abortus?

A

SAW or SAT test.

102
Q

Who is the reservoir for B. suis?

A

wild boar

103
Q

Which biovars of B. suis are the most pathogenic for pigs?

A

1-3. 1 and 2 have hares as reservoirs.

104
Q

T/F: B. suis has been weaponized and is more pathogenic than B. abortus

A

True

105
Q

In what organs does B. suis localize and form abscesses?

A

lymph nodes, repro organs, liver, spleen, joints

106
Q

Who does B. melitensis and B. ovis affect? Are they both zoonotic?

A

Sheep and goats, no. Only B. melitensis is zoonotic.

107
Q

T/F: Brucella canis is zoonotic and considered and STD.

A

True

108
Q

Where is Bordetella bronchiseptica mainly found?

A

in the upper respiratory tract of many animal species. Has affinity for ciliated resp. epithelium.

109
Q

B. bronchiseptica causes pathology in what species most frequently?

A

dogs (kennel couch), pigs (atrophic rhinitis), rabbits, and guinea pigs

110
Q

B. bronchiseptica has which adhesins that contribute to it’s virulence?

A

filamentous hemagglutinin, pertactin (OMP) and fimbriae.

111
Q

What are the diseases in pigs caused by B. bronchiseptica?

A

non-progressive atrophic rhinitis, pneumonic bordetellosis, progressive atrophic rhinitis

112
Q

T/F: Kennel cough is always a self limiting disease.

A

False. It is a self limiting disease most of the time, not always.

113
Q

How long does it take a horse to fully recover from B. bronchiseptica?

A

3 weeks.

114
Q

What is bordetella in poultry known as?

A

B. avium, coryza

115
Q

T/F: nearly all rabbits are carriers of bordetella

A

True

116
Q

What causes bronchopneumonia in rabbits?

A

Bordetella + P. multocida

117
Q

Is bordetella zoonotic?

A

Seldomly. Mainly in immunocompromised people

118
Q

What antibiotics are very toxic to rabbits?

A

Lincosamides. 100% mortality w/ a single dose.

119
Q

What does Moraxella bovis cause in bovines?

A

keratoconjunctivitis “Pink eye”. Mainly in young animals.

120
Q

What is essential for the virulence of Moraxella bovis?

A

fimbriae. They adhere to the host cell (eye)

121
Q

How do you diagnose M. bovis?

A

Immunofluorescence, culture, PCR.

122
Q

What is M. ovis associated with in bovines and sheep?

A

keratoconjunctivitis and pneumonia.

123
Q

High virulent strains of Pasteurella multocida are seen in what animals?

A

bovines, birds, and rabbits

124
Q

Type A Pasteurella multocida has what hosts?

A

cattle, sheep, pigs, rabbits, poultry, and domestic and wild animals

125
Q

Snuffles is caused by what and is seen in what animal?

A

P. multocida and in rabbits

126
Q

What serotypes of P. multocida in bovines is found mainly in Africa? In SE Asia?

A

E:2, B:2

127
Q

P. multocida in pigs causes what?

A

Atrophic rhinitis (along w/ Bordetella bronchiseptica) and lung pasteurellosis

128
Q

P. multocida in poultry is always hyperacute in which case?

A

In the case of cat bites

129
Q

Where are the less virulent serotypes of P. multocida in cats and dogs found?

A

nose and tonsils

130
Q

What bacteria used to be known as Pasteurella hemolytica?

A

Mannheimia hemolytica

131
Q

Leukotoxin of Mannheimia hemolytica is only effective on leucocytes of which animals?

A

bovines and sheep

132
Q

What is bacterial broncho-pneumonia in calves by M. haemolytica and P. multocida called?

A

Shipping fever

133
Q

is the pathogenesis caused by M. haemolytica exogenic or endogenic?

A

It is both!

134
Q

Bibersteinia trehalosis was formerly known as?

A

Pasteurella trehalosi

135
Q

Who does Bibersteinia trehalosis affect?

A

Sheep 5-10 month old

136
Q

What causes the disease known as Glasser disease?

A

Haemophilus parasuis

137
Q

T/F: Haemophilus is NAD dependent

A

True

138
Q

T/F: Haemophilus parasuis is only an exogenic infection.

A

False. It is endogenic and exogenic

139
Q

What does Haemophilus felis cause in cats?

A

chronic pneumonia and conjunctivitis

140
Q

What was Histophilus somnei formerly known as?

A

Haemophilus somnus

141
Q

Where does Histophilus somnei usually colonize?

A

the mucosal surfaces of ruminants (urogenital)

142
Q

T/F one of the symptoms of Histophilus somnei is sleepers disease. What is sleepers disease?

A

True. Caused by thrombo embolic meningo-encephalitis

143
Q

How do you diagnose Histophilus somnei?

A

via bacterial culture

144
Q

T/F here is no vaccine available for Histophilus somnei

A

False

145
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum was formerly known as what? What is the name of the disease it causes?

A

Haemophilus paragallinarum, Infectious coryza

146
Q

Is infectious coryza NAD dependent?

A

Yes.

147
Q

T/F Avibacterium paragallinarum is not an obligate pathogen for chickens.

A

False.

148
Q

How do you diagnose Avibacterum paragallinarum?

A

bacterial culture

149
Q

T/F: pericarditis can be seen with O. Rhinotracheale

A

True

150
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae is an important disease in what?

A

In swine rearing

151
Q

Which biotype of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae is NAD independent?

A

Biotype 2

152
Q

How is Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae spread?

A

From pig to pig via direct contact or aerosol, or through the stable via ventilation, regrouping of pigs, and through the farmer.

153
Q

What is necessary for Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae to replicate?

A

Fe

154
Q

How do you diagnose Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae?

A

Clinical signs, autopsy, bacterial culture.

155
Q

T/F: A suis is pathogenic only in pigs

A

False. It is also pathogenic for mice

156
Q

Who is mostly acutely affected by A. suis?

A

Young animals.

157
Q

Which subspecies of Actinobacillus equuli is a reservoir in only the horse?

A

subsp. haemolyticus

158
Q

What causes sleepy foal disease?

A

A. equuli

159
Q

Where does A. lingieresii infect?

A

infection of weak tissues, connective tissue proliferation.

160
Q

When is treatment most effective in A. lignieresii?

A

in the initial phase. Must be fast!

RUSVM Bacteriology Spring 2017 (1 decks)

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