Exam 2 COPY Flashcards

1
Q

The process of defining a marketing problem or opportunity, systematically collecting and analyzing information and recommending actions to improve its marketing activities

a) Marketing Research
b) hypothesis
c) Market segmentation

A

a) Marketing Research

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2
Q

The process for gathering information not currently known by decision makers. Marketers must define the nature and scope of the situation by probing beneath the superficial symptoms and formulating a hypothesis and then determining what type of research is most appropriate for testing the hypothesis to ensure the results are reliable and valid.

a) conclusive research
b) research development
c) data mining

A

Research Development

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3
Q

An informed guess or assumption about a certain problem or set of circumstances.

a) sampling
b) synergy
c) hypothesis

A

hypothesis

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4
Q

Consistency of test scores over time and across alternative measurements vs. assessing the accuracy of the selection test.

a) reliability vs. validity
b) cannibalization
c) big data

A

Reliability vs. Validity

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5
Q

Research conducted to gather more information about a problem or to make a tentative hypothesis more specific.

a) data considerations
b) exploratory research
c) brand personality

A

Exploratory Research

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6
Q

Research designed to verify insights through objective procedures and to help in making decisions.

a) experimental research
b) research development
c) conclusive research

A

Conclusive Research

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7
Q

Clarifies the characteristics of certain phenomena to solve a particular problem.

a) descriptive research
b) sampling
c) product differentiation

A

Descriptive Research

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8
Q

Allows marketers to make causal inferences about relationships

a) information technology
b) experimental research
c) hypothesis

A

experimental research

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9
Q

Research previously performed and recorded prior to the project at hand vs. research newly performed or collected by you (organization)

a) sales forecast
b) 80/20 rule
c) primary vs. secondary data

A

Primary vs. Secondary data

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10
Q

Size of the Pool, Make-up of the Pool, Cost of the Research, Timeliness of the Data, and Quality of Answers are types of:

a) market segmentations
b) data considerations
c) geographic segmentations

A

Data Considerations

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11
Q

Large amount of data collected from a variety of sources

a) big data
b) branding strategies
c) feature bloat

A

Big Data

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12
Q

Characteristics (4Vs) of Big Data include:

a) Volume , Variety , Velocity, Veracity
b) introduction, growth, decline, maturity
c) intangibility, inconsistency, inventory

A

Volume , Variety , Velocity, Veracity

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13
Q

Includes all of the computing resources that collect, store, and analyze data.

a) cannibalization
b) information technology
c) data mining

A

Information Technology

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14
Q

Graphic Representation of Data

a) data visualization
b) synergy
c) perceptual map

A

data visualization

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15
Q

Examining large databases to find statistical relationships that enables predictive modeling for probability analysis

a) market-product grid
b) probability samples
c) data mining

A

data mining

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16
Q

The selection of a subset of individuals from within a statistical population to estimate characteristics of the whole population.

a) market segmentation
b) sampling
c) repositioning

A

sampling

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17
Q

Refers to the total sales of a product that a firm expects to sell during a specified time period under specified environmental conditions and its own marketing efforts

a) durable goods
b) sales forecast
c) tangibility

A

Sales Forecast

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18
Q

Simple Random Sample, Cluster Sample, and Stratified Random Sample are what type of samples:

a) probability samples
b) fixed samples
c) non-probability samples

A

Probability Samples

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19
Q

Convenience Sample, Quota Sample, and Judgment Sample are what type of samples?

a) probability samples
b) fixed samples
c) non-probability samples

A

non-probability samples

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20
Q

Aggregating prospective buyers into groups that have common needs and will respond similarly to a marketing action.

a) demographic segmentation
b) market segmentation
c) behavioral segmentation

A

market segmentation

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21
Q

A strategy that involves a firm using different marketing mix actions to help consumers perceive a product as being different and better than competing products.

a) product differentiation
b) demographic segmentation
c) market segmentation

A

product differentiation

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22
Q

Substantial, Identifiable, Measurable, Accessible, and Responsive the 5 Criteria for __________:

a) Successful Market Segmentation
b) Brand Extension
c) product differentiation

A

The 5 Criteria for Successful Market Segmentation

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23
Q

Name the Multiple Market Segments:

a) single product, multiple product, mass customization
b) data product, experimental product, single product
c) multiple product, sales product, data product

A

Single Product Multiple Product Mass Customization

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24
Q

The increased customer value achieved through performing organizational functions such as marketing and manufacturing more efficiently.

a) product positioning
b) synergy
c) cannibalization

A

synergy

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25
Q

The reduction in sales volume, sales revenue, or market share of one product as a result of the introduction of a new product by the same producer.

a) cannibalization
b) research development
c) repositioning

A

cannibalization

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26
Q

Which market segment includes: Localizing products, advertising, promotion, and sales efforts to fit individual regions and even cities.

a) geographic segmentation
b) behavioral segmentation
c) demographic segmentation

A

geographic segmentation

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27
Q

Which market segment describes a population according to selected characteristics such as age, gender, ethnicity, income, and occupation.

a) geographic segmentation
b) behavioral segmentation
c) demographic segmentation

A

demographic segmentation

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28
Q

Which market segment is based on a segment’s preferences, interests, values, and lifestyles.

a) geographic segmentation
b) psychographic segmentation
c) demographic segmentation

A

Psychographic segmentation

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29
Q

Which market segment is based on Benefits Sought (the kinds of people who look for a certain benefit and the main benefit they seek) and Usage (the quantity consumed or patronage during a specific period of time).

a) geographic segmentation
b) behavioral segmentation
c) demographic segmentation

A

Behavioral Segmentation

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30
Q

A concept that suggests 80% of a firm’s sales are obtained from 20% of its customers.

a) repositioning
c) synergy
c) 80/20 rule

A

80/20 rule

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31
Q

Product class - entire category or industry
Product form - variations within the class
Product item - a specific product
Product line - related items

These are types of:

a) product considerations
b) product segmentations

A

Product considerations

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32
Q

A framework to relate the segments of a market to products offered or potential marketing actions by the firm.

a) feature fatigue
b) feature bloat
c) market-product grid

A

Market-Product Grid

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33
Q

Refers to the place an offering occupies in consumers’ minds on important attributes relative to competitive offerings.

a) product positioning
b) degree of learning
c) perceptual map

A

product positioning

34
Q

A means of displaying or graphing in two dimensions the location of products or brands in the minds of consumers to enable a manager to see how consumers perceive competing products or brands and then take marketing actions.

a) product positioning
b) degree of learning
c) perceptual map

A

perceptual map

35
Q

Changing the place an offering occupies in consumers’ minds

a) repositioning
b) product life cycle
c) perceptual map

A

repositioning

36
Q

A good, service, or idea consisting of a bundle of tangible and intangible attributes that satisfies customers’ needs and is received in exchange for money or something else of value.

a) brand
b) product
c) line extension

37
Q

Capable of being perceived especially by the sense of touch

a) competition
b) tangibility
c) line extension

A

tangibility

38
Q

goods that can be used several times

a) durable goods
b) brand personality
c) non-durable goods

A

durable goods

39
Q

goods that are typically meant for single use only.

a) durable goods
b) brand personality
c) non-durable goods

A

non-durable goods

40
Q

Name the 4 I’s of service:

a) intangibility, inconsistency, inseparability, inventory
b) inventory, installation, introduction, ideas

A

a) Intangibility Inconsistency Inseparability Inventory (Idle Capacity)

41
Q

What are the 2 types of business products

a) support and production
b) customer and equity
c) support and extension

A

support (installation, accessories, suppliles, services) and production (labor, materials)

42
Q

4 types of consumer goods include:

a) Convenience - Shopping - Specialty - Unsought
b) Profit/non-profit – Government – People – Equipment
c) Equity - Personality - Profit- Convenience

A

a) Convenience - Shopping - Specialty - Unsought

43
Q

4 delivery classification include:

a) Convenience - Shopping - Specialty - Unsought
b) Profit/non-profit - Government - People - Equipment
c) Equity - Personality - Profit- Convenience

A

b) Profit/non-profit – Government – People – Equipment

44
Q

What are the 3 new product perspectives:

a) company, government, consumers
b) consumer, support, perception
c) perception, company, segment

A

company, government, consumers

45
Q

Degree of Learning includes:

a) Continuous innovations–Dynamically continuous innovations–Discontinuous learning innovations
b) Company, Learning, Consumers
c) Static innovation, product innovation, market innovation

A

a) Continuous innovations–Dynamically continuous innovations–Discontinuous learning innovations

46
Q

The result of packing too many features and functionalities into a product.

a) feature bloat
b) feature fatigue
c) brand equity

A

feature bloat

47
Q

A tendency for consumers to shy away from products that appear to be feature-rich.

a) feature bloat
b) feature fatigue
c) brand equity

A

feature fatigue

48
Q

Organizational problems and new product failure includes

a) Not listening
b) Marketing too quickly
c) Groupthink
d) Not learning
e) NIH problem
f) all of the above

A

f) all of the above

49
Q

Insignificant point of difference, Bad timing, Too little market attractiveness , Poor marketing mix execution , Poor product quality or insensitivity to needs, No economical access to buyers, Incomplete market product definition

a) product considerations
b) reasons new products fail
c) branding strategies

A

Reasons new products fail

50
Q

The stages a new product goes through in the marketplace.

a) product considerations
b) brand extension
c) product life cycle

A

product life cycle

51
Q

Any word, “device” (design, sound, shape, or color) or combination of these to distinguish a seller’s goods or services

a) competition
b) brand
c) market segment

52
Q

The added value a brand name gives to a product beyond the functional benefits provided.

a) brand equity
b) revenue
c) breakeven

A

brand equity

53
Q

A set of human characteristics associated with a brand name.

a) brand equity
b) brand personality
c) demand

A

brand personality

54
Q

The practice of using a current brand name to enter a new market segment in its product class.

a) price elasticity of demand
b) market research
c) line extension

A

line extension

55
Q

The practice of using a current brand name to enter a completely different product class.

a) price elasticity of demand
b) brand extension
c) line extension

A

brand extension

56
Q

What are the 4 stages/details of the product life cycle

a) Introduction, growth, maturity, decline
b) Volume , Variety , Velocity, Veracity
c) Intangibility, Inconsistency, Inseparability, Inventory (Idle Capacity)

A

Introduction, growth, maturity, decline

57
Q

3 Methods of Managing the Product Life Cycle include:

a) Volume , Variety , Velocity
b) Modify the product, Modify the market, Reposition
c) company, government, consumers

A

b) Modify the product, Modify the market, Reposition

58
Q

Multi product branding, Multi branding, Private branding, and Mixed branding are types of

a) brand equity
b) brand personality
c) branding strategies

A

branding strategies

59
Q

Competence - Ruggedness - Excitement - Sincerity - Sophistication are:

a) 5 brand personalities
b) 5 market segments
c) 5 line extensions

A

5 Brand Personalities

60
Q

True/False - creating customer value involves communication, functional and perceptual benefits

61
Q

True/False - challenges and responses of packaging/labeling include customer connection, environmental concerns, health, cost reduction

62
Q

The money or other considerations, including other goods and services, exchanged for the ownership or use of a product.

a) price
b) fixed cost
c) principle of exchange

63
Q

Products must be priced right so that customers are willing to pay for it and so that it generates enough sales dollars to pay for the cost of offering it while earning a profit for the company.

a) discounts and allowances
b) principle of exchange
c) variable cost

A

principle of exchange

64
Q

Graph relating quantity sold and price. Shows how many units will be sold at a given price.

a) supply curve
b) demand curve
c) break-even curve

A

demand curve

65
Q

Measures the responsiveness of a change in quantity demanded (Qd) for a good or service to a change in price. – % Change Qd / % Change P

a) revenue
b) variable cost
c) price elasticity of demand

A

price elasticity of demand

66
Q

The total money received from the sale of a product; equals the unit price (P) times the quantity sold (Q) TR = P x Q

a) revenue
b) total cost
c) variable cost

67
Q

The total expense incurred by a firm in producing and marketing a product; equals the sum of fixed cost (FC) and variable cost (VC) - TC = TFC + (UVC * Q)

a) revenue
b) total cost
c) variable cost

A

total cost

68
Q

The sum of the expenses of the firm that are stable and do not change with the quantity of the product that is produced and sold.

a) fixed cost
b) break-even
c) variable cost

A

fixed cost

69
Q

The sum of the expenses of the firm that vary directly with the quantity of the product that is produced and sold.

a) fixed cost
b) break-even
c) variable cost

A

variable cost

70
Q

The quantity at which Total Revenue and Total Cost are equal.

a) break even
b) demand
c) profit

A

break even

71
Q

Reductions from the list price that a seller gives a buyer.

a) variable cost
b) discounts and allowances
c) break even

A

discounts and allowances

72
Q

The buyer or seller that is responsible for freight costs

a) principle of exchange
b) government
c) Free on Board (FOB)

A

Free on Board (FOB)

73
Q

An itemized financial statement of the income and expenses of a company’s operation.

a) principles of exchange
b) income statement
c) receipt

A

income statement (profit/loss statement)

74
Q

______ = Total Revenue – Total Cost

a) profit
b) fixed cost
c) variable cost

75
Q

Penetration pricing, Skim pricing, Odd even pricing, Prestige pricing, Bundle pricing, Target pricing, Yield management pricing

A

7 Demand Oriented Approaches to pricing

76
Q

Pricing approach that is dictated by the market

a) competition
b) repositioning
c) inseparability

A

competitition

77
Q

pricing approach that looks at consumers taste and preferences

a) competition
b) demand
c) repositioning

78
Q

pricing approach that looks at production/marketing plus markup

a) competition
b) cost
c) price

79
Q

pricing approach that looks at a firms required margin

a) competition
b) cost
c) price

80
Q

True/False - demaind curve movement is caused by consumer tastes, consumer income and price availability of similar products