Exam 2 (Chapters 29, 38-40, 42, 43, 45, 46, 49, 50, 55, & 57) Flashcards by Christina Asbury

What is the primary mission of the Department of Defense (DoD)?
A. Maintain public health
B. Deter war and protect U.S. security
C. Conduct scientific research
D. Enforce domestic laws

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why do military personnel often face separation from family members?
A. Family vacations
B. Training and preparation for war
C. Administrative duties
D. Personal preferences

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What factors contribute to mental health problems in the military lifestyle?
A. Academic challenges
B. Relationship conflict, parenting difficulties, work stress
C. Financial success
D. Lack of physical exercise

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a factor associated with a higher risk of mental health stressors?
A. Younger age
B. Deployment to a combat zone
C. Extensive military training
D. Reservist and National Guard membership

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the focus of this chapter regarding mental health problems?
A. Physical health
B. Psychological well-being
C. Social interactions
D. Cognitive abilities

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are commonly reported mental health problems mentioned in the chapter?
A. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
B. PTSD, MDD, and GAD
C. Anxiety and stress
D. Insomnia and sleep disorders

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why are severe psychiatric problems less common among military personnel?
A. Strict military diet
B. Regular mental health check-ups
C. Screenings completed before entering military service
D. Limited exposure to combat zones

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to chapter 38, what might deployment to a combat zone add to the stress of service members?
A. Decreased workload
B. Increased financial benefits
C. Additional stressors
D. Improved mental health

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the reported rate of predeployment PTSD in the sample of post-9/11 service members mentioned in chapter 38?
A. 5.7%
B. 9.4%
C. 15.5%
D. 16.6%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why might there be underreporting of mental health problems in the predeployment phase?
A. Fear of deployment
B. Fear of job loss
C. Lack of awareness
D. Lack of mental health services

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does the chapter describe the mental health status of military personnel immediately post-deployment?
A. Improved compared to predeployment
B. Similar to the general population
C. More likely to report mental health problems
D. Stable with no changes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What do the rates of mental health problems highlight about reserve component members?
A. Lower rates compared to active duty
B. Higher rates of seeking treatment
C. Challenges in accessing mental health services
D. Similar rates to the general population

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a concern related to untreated mental health problems among military personnel?
A. Increased job performance
B. Substance abuse and homelessness
C. Improved relationships with family
D. Decreased likelihood of unethical behavior

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is mentioned as a potential impact of untreated PTSD on military personnel?
A. Increased likelihood of homelessness
B. Improved social relationships
C. Higher job satisfaction
D. Decreased risk of suicide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the chapter, what percentage of service members made a medical visit within 6 months after a mental health referral in the reserve component?
A. 17.8%
B. 43.8%
C. 96%
D. 1.1%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why might service members avoid reporting mental health symptoms, according to the chapter?
A. Fear of job loss
B. Lack of mental health awareness
C. Financial compensation
D. Inability to access mental health services

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does chapter 38 say about the rates of mental health problems in military families compared to the general population?
A. Lower rates
B. Similar rates
C. Higher rates
D. No information provided

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why is divorce considered a concern among military families?
A. Positive impact on mental health
B. Strongly related to improved family functioning
C. Can negatively influence service member readiness and mission accomplishment
D. Linked to increased job satisfaction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to chapter 38, what is a potential impact of distress and conflict among military parents on military children?
A. Improved academic engagement
B. Decreased behavioral problems
C. Lower rates of mental health problems
D. Predictive of child depression and externalizing symptoms

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the significance of undiagnosed and untreated mental health problems among military personnel?
A. Improved family relationships
B. Increased job satisfaction
C. Impact on both service members and their families
D. Reduced need for mental health services

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What do military personnel require to access time away from work for mental health appointments?
A. Financial compensation
B. Personal preference
C. Approval from commanding officer
D. Completion of additional training

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the role of a commander in ordering a mental health evaluation for a service member?
A. Protect the privacy of service members
B. Provide financial compensation
C. Articulate reasons for the evaluation
D. Encourage service members to avoid treatment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why might service members avoid seeking treatment for mental health problems, according to the chapter?
A. Fear of job loss and negative job impact
B. Lack of mental health services
C. Inability to make medical visits
D. Lack of mental health awareness

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is malingering in the context of mental health problems among military personnel?
A. Underreporting symptoms for personal gain
B. Exaggerating symptoms for secondary motives
C. Reporting symptoms honestly
D. Seeking treatment for financial compensation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why do rates of reported mental health problems vary within military samples, according to the chapter? A. Lack of mental health awareness B. Fear of job loss C. Fear of lost privacy or privileges D. Inability to access mental health services

According to chapter 38, what does research suggest about anonymous reporting of mental health problems among military personnel? A. Increases honesty in reporting symptoms B. Decreases the likelihood of seeking treatment C. Has no impact on reporting rates D. Leads to inaccurate reporting of symptoms

How does the chapter describe the impact of untreated mental health problems on military personnel and their families? A. Improved family functioning B. Increased job satisfaction C. Predictive of positive outcomes D. Potential for engagement in unethical behavior, substance abuse, and family stressors

According to DoD Instruction 5200, what criteria must military personnel meet to maintain a security clearance? A. Demonstrate mental illness B. Show financial responsibility C. Avoid physical exercise D. Lack knowledge about information security

What is the primary focus of DoD Directive 6490.4 and DoD Instruction 6490.1? A. Military training programs B. Mental health assessments C. Physical fitness standards D. Food and nutrition guidelines

Why is confidentiality a concern for service members seeking mental health treatment? A. Fear of job loss and negative job impact B. Desire for financial compensation C. Lack of mental health awareness D. Limited access to mental health services

What is a significant challenge faced by psychologists on wartime deployments? a) Extended family separation b) Exposure to harsh elements c) Chronic sleep deprivation d) All of the above

What is the main priority for military medicine leaders regarding combat operating forces? a) Physical training b) Deployment preparedness c) Mental health treatment d) Leadership development

According to Lieutenant Colonel David Grossman, what is the central theme of war? a) Diplomacy b) Survival c) Killing d) Strategy

Which term is used to describe the phenomenon where clinicians absorb the memories of their patients? a) Compassion fatigue b) Vicarious trauma c) Secondary trauma d) Shared trauma

What is the effect of treating trauma on the healer, as mentioned in the text? a) Increased effectiveness b) Personal satisfaction c) Compassion fatigue d) Enhanced empathy

What is the advice given for combat psychologists to navigate ethical challenges? a) Solve every puzzle alone b) Seek the council of a supervisor or mentor c) Ignore ethical dilemmas d) Follow standard ethical procedures

What is emphasized as a vital start to navigating ethical challenges for combat psychologists? a) Solid background in ethics b) Extensive combat experience c) Strong leadership skills d) Advanced trauma training

What is recommended to decrease the possibility of short-term or long-term dysfunction for psychologists on combat deployments? a) Complete isolation from combat situations b) Ignoring potential risks c) Following available evidence and training protocols d) Relying solely on personal anecdotes

According to the text, what is essential for psychologists in combat environments to prioritize? a) Patient care b) Combat operations c) Personal safety d) Military regulations

What is the primary advice for psychologists deployed with combat forces? a) Trust and follow combat troops b) Stay in isolation c) Avoid taking risks d) Focus on individual tasks

What is suggested to reduce the personal effect of exposure to combat casualties? a) Minimize exposure b) Seek meaning in roles within the hospital c) Avoid engaging with patients d) Focus on personal well-being

Why is seeking supervision or consultation important for psychologists on combat deployments? a) To increase workload b) To maintain isolation c) To foster open and honest discussions d) To undermine professional relationships

What is the role of a trusted colleague in combat environments? a) Ensure self-care practices are in place b) Share confidential patient information c) Oversee military operations d) Provide medical treatment

What is essential for medical providers in combat environments regarding self-care? a) Prioritize patient care over personal well-being b) Ignore the need for sleep and exercise c) Seek supervision only during critical situations d) Make time for sleep, exercise, and rejuvenating moments

What is the potential consequence of not having safeguards in place for psychologists on deployment? a) Increased effectiveness b) Personal suffering c) Rapid promotion d) Enhanced resilience

What concept emerged in recent years, potentially more critical in understanding the effect of treating trauma on the healer? a) Compassion fatigue b) Shared trauma c) Vicarious trauma d) Secondary trauma

What does Lieutenant Colonel David Grossman state is the nature of war in his acclaimed work? a) Fog and chaos b) Insanity and confusion c) Killing and guilt d) Peace and diplomacy

What is one of the unique experiences faced by mental health, medical, and religious personnel serving alongside combat troops on the battlefield? a) Extended family separation b) Exposure to harsh elements c) Chronic sleep deprivation d) All of the above

What is the potential risk facing combat psychologists categorized as "threat to physical safety and well-being"? a) Extended family separation b) Exposure to harsh elements c) Vicarious trauma d) Chronic sleep deprivation

What is described as one of the unusual, dynamic, and thought-provoking ethical challenges that might face a combat psychologist? a) Mixed agency and/or mission predicaments b) Avoiding all personal relationships c) Ignoring ethical dilemmas d) Focusing solely on combat operations

What does the chronic, exhausting nature of providing mental health treatment on deployment lead to? a) Increased effectiveness b) Decreased effectiveness c) Personal satisfaction d) Enhanced empathy

What is important for the psychologist to know when facing ethical challenges? a) Solve every puzzle alone b) Seek the council of a supervisor, trusted mentor, or peer c) Ignore ethical dilemmas d) Rely on personal anecdotes

What term is used to describe the idea that clinicians absorb the memories of their patients through empathy and care? a) Compassion fatigue b) Shared trauma c) Secondary trauma d) Vicarious trauma

What is the potential effect of blurred capacity to differentiate between the psychologist's and patients' experiences? a) Increased effectiveness b) Compassion fatigue c) Enhanced empathy d) Personal satisfaction

What is described as a significant need for military psychologists in combat roles? a) Decreasing exposure to combat situations b) Writing and sharing experiences c) Ignoring ethical dilemmas d) Avoiding supervision and consultation

What is the central theme of the text regarding the challenges faced by psychologists in combat? a) Avoiding risks b) Overcoming isolation c) Navigating ethical challenges d) Ensuring personal well-being

What is emphasized as paramount for psychologists deployed with combat forces? a) Trust and follow combat troops b) Complete isolation c) Ignoring potential risks d) Focusing on personal well-being

What does the text recommend to decrease the possibility of dysfunction for psychologists on combat deployments? a) Complete isolation b) Ignoring potential risks c) Following available evidence and training protocols d) Relying solely on personal anecdotes

What is recommended for psychologists in combat environments to ensure well-being? a) Prioritize combat operations b) Focus on patient care only c) Make time for sleep, exercise, and rejuvenating moments d) Ignore personal safety

What does the chronic, exhausting nature of providing mental health treatment on deployment lead to? a) Increased effectiveness b) Decreased effectiveness c) Personal satisfaction d) Enhanced empathy

What are some of the unique challenges faced by military personnel returning from combat deployment? a) Simple transition without significant adjustments b) Minimal change in the service member's worldview c) Challenges in reintegrating with family, friends, and community d) Lack of emotional, cognitive, and behavioral responses

According to Chaplain (LTC) John Morris, what are the existential challenges for service members transitioning from wartime deployment to home? a) Overcoming technical difficulties b) Embracing a sense of alienation c) Adjusting to a lack of complexity d) Finding new physical challenges

What does the transition from combat to garrison or civilian life involve, according to the text? a) No significant adjustments are needed b) Learning that combat skills are universally applicable c) Recognizing that behaviors effective in combat may not be suitable at home d) Maintaining the same level of emotional intensity

Why might service members seek to replicate the intense experiences of combat after returning home? a) They miss the simplicity of home life b) They are seeking a new form of entertainment c) To avoid the challenges of reintegration d) Trying to recreate the intense sense of purpose and arousal

What is the "new high" that some service members may seek upon returning from combat? a) Elevated emotional and physical arousal b) Sense of boredom and routine c) Minimal engagement with activities d) Focus on complex problem-solving

What are some of the challenges faced by service members when attempting to find meaning in day-to-day activities after combat deployment? a) Difficulty in recognizing the importance of activities b) Enhanced sense of fulfillment c) Struggling with loss of purpose d) Decreased focus on mission

What is one potential consequence of service members perceiving everyday situations as risky upon returning from deployment? a) Increased trust in others b) Enhanced emotional expression c) Aversion to routine activities d) Improved decision-making

How does the text describe the impact of combat stress reactions on service members returning from deployment? a) They are typically permanent b) They do not affect reintegration c) They are transient but can complicate reintegration d) They only manifest as physical injuries

What is a common consequence of combat stress reactions that may affect a service member's participation in social and recreational activities? a) Enhanced enjoyment of activities b) Decreased interest or pleasure in activities c) Improved family relationships d) Increased social interactions

Why might sleep difficulties and nightmares persist after returning from deployment? a) They are indicative of normal adjustment b) They are unrelated to combat experiences c) Service members enjoy vivid dreams d) They can be associated with other reintegration issues

How does the text describe the service members' focus on mission during combat deployments? a) Distracting from achieving assigned goals b) A reinforcement of simplicity and straightforwardness c) Leading to a preference for complex problem-solving d) Causing minimal impact on decision-making

What challenges might service members face when returning to family life due to their mission-focused mindset? a) Frustration with competing goals b) Increased cooperative approaches c) Decreased conflicts with family members d) Lack of decision-making problems

How does the need for control manifest in service members returning from deployment? a) Desire for less control in daily activities b) Avoidance of information disclosure c) Comfort with limited emotional expression d) Demands for control over situations and discomfort in uncontrollable environments

What potential issues can arise from service members' attempts to maintain emotional control after returning home? a) Enhanced emotional expression b) Improved communication with family c) Perceived as cold or disconnected d) Decreased problems in familial relationships

What term is used to categorize physical, behavioral, and emotional changes in service members due to the stress of combat deployment? a) Existential challenges b) Garrison transition c) Reintegration complexities d) Combat and operational stress

What is emphasized about combat stress reactions in the text? a) They are always severe and persistent b) They constitute diagnosable disorders c) They are expected to remit relatively quickly d) They only affect service members during deployment

How might heightened vigilance and startle reactions impact service members after returning home? a) Enhanced enjoyment of social events b) Increased participation in recreational activities c) Difficulty in certain activities and potential avoidance d) Improved trust and intimacy

What potential problems can arise from difficulties in concentration and memory persisting through the return home? a) Enhanced problem-solving abilities b) Exacerbation of adjustment difficulties c) Decreased challenges in reintegration d) Improved familial relationships

Why might combat stress injuries warrant additional assessment upon the service member's return from deployment? a) They are always less severe than combat stress reactions b) They are expected to remit without intervention c) They may indicate more significant problems like PTSD or depression d) They only manifest as physical injuries

What is emphasized about counselors and therapists in the reintegration process according to the text? a) Conflict and difficulties are unexpected, warranting no role for therapists b) Their role is limited, and difficulties are considered pathological c) They play a potentially important role in supporting families d) They have no relevance in managing the transition home

When was posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) officially recognized as a mental health concern by the medical community? a. 1970 b. 1980 c. 1990 d. 2000

According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM-IV-TR), what is a necessary criterion for a diagnosis of PTSD? a. Witnessing a traumatic event b. Exposure to a traumatic event c. Developing intense fear d. Experiencing physical harm

Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of a traumatic event in the text? a. Combat exposure b. Natural disaster c. Academic failure d. Physical assault

In the DSM, what is the additional requirement (Criterion A2) for a diagnosis of PTSD related to the individual's response to a traumatic event? a. Development of intense fear b. Inability to recall traumatic events c. Emotional distress in response to trauma reminders d. Experience of flashbacks

How long must the symptoms persist to meet the diagnostic criteria for PTSD (Criterion E)? a. Less than 1 week b. More than 3 months c. At least 6 months d. Exactly 1 year

What is proposed in DSM-5 regarding the reaction to trauma criterion in PTSD diagnosis? a. It will be emphasized even more. b. It will be removed. c. It will be required for a shorter duration. d. It will be mandatory for chronic cases only.

What diagnostic category may replace anxiety disorders for PTSD in DSM-5? a. Trauma and Stressor-Related Disorders b. Chronic Anxiety Disorders c. Fear-Induced Disorders d. Stress-Responsive Anxiety

What percentage of the general population is estimated to be exposed to at least one potentially traumatic event in their lifetime? a. 30-40% b. 50-60% c. 70-80% d. 90-100%

Veterans who served in Vietnam have an increased risk of lifetime trauma exposure compared to civilians, with up to what percentage meeting criteria for lifetime PTSD? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 30%

How do gender differences in PTSD prevalence among military personnel compare to the general population? a. More pronounced b. Less pronounced c. No difference d. Only evident in combat trauma

What is Military Sexual Trauma (MST) defined as in the text? a. Trauma from combat exposure b. Trauma during military training c. Trauma related to natural disasters d. Sexual assault or severe sexual harassment during Active Duty service or training

Which self-report measure is mentioned as a 17-item questionnaire with excellent psychometric properties for military and veteran samples? a. Mississippi Scale for Combat-Related PTSD b. Primary Care PTSD screen (PC-PTSD) c. PTSD Checklist (PCL) d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2

What is considered the gold standard for assessing PTSD, particularly in military and veteran populations? a. Primary Care PTSD screen (PC-PTSD) b. Structured Clinical Interview for the DSM-IV (SCID) c. PTSD Checklist (PCL) d. Clinician-Administered PTSD Scale (CAPS)

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a condition commonly comorbid with PTSD in military service members? a. Traumatic brain injury b. Chronic pain c. Bipolar disorder d. Substance use disorders

What is considered a first-line pharmacological treatment option for PTSD, according to current practice guidelines? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) c. Benzodiazepines d. Atypical antipsychotics

Which psychotherapy is similar to other exposure-based treatments developed for combat-related PTSD and includes in vivo exposure and imaginal exposure? a. Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) b. Prolonged Exposure (PE) c. Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) d. Stress Inoculation Training

What individual psychotherapy involves cognitive restructuring and exposure elements and includes challenging maladaptive thinking patterns related to trauma? a. Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) b. Stress Inoculation Training c. Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) d. Anxiety management

What is the primary component of Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) that involves recalling the trauma memory while making alternating eye movements? a. Cognitive restructuring b. Desensitization and reprocessing c. Exposure therapy d. Psychoeducation

What is considered an adjunctive treatment for targeted treatment of nightmares and sleep disturbance in PTSD? a. Benzodiazepines b. Prazosin c. Tricyclic antidepressants d. Atypical antipsychotics

What does the text highlight as an important topic of future research in the treatment of PTSD? a. The efficacy of benzodiazepines b. Large controlled trials comparing psychotherapy with medication c. Elimination of group therapy d. Gender differences in PTSD prevalence

According to the text, what specifier is added if PTSD symptoms develop at least 6 months after the traumatic event? a. Acute onset b. Delayed onset c. Chronic onset d. Immediate onset

In the proposed changes for DSM-5, what emotion might replace fear, helplessness, or horror as a reaction to trauma in the diagnostic criteria for PTSD? a. Happiness b. Sadness c. Guilt d. Any intense emotion

What percentage of military service members serving in Operation Enduring Freedom and Operation Iraqi Freedom is estimated to have PTSD, according to the text? a. 5-10% b. 10-15% c. 15-20% d. 20-25%

What is Stress Inoculation Training mentioned as in the text? a. A pharmacological treatment for PTSD b. A group therapy approach for PTSD c. An anxiety management protocol d. An individual psychotherapy for PTSD

What is the primary focus of anxiety management therapy mentioned in the text? a. Exposure to trauma memories b. Cognitive restructuring c. Relaxation training and breathing retraining d. Psychoeducation about the relaxation response

What does EMDR stand for in the context of PTSD treatment? a. Efficient Memory Desensitization and Recall b. Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing c. Emotional Management and Distress Reduction d. Enhanced Mindfulness for Disturbing Recollections

Which medication is recommended as an adjunctive treatment for nightmares and sleep disturbance in PTSD? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Mirtazapine c. Benzodiazepines d. Prazosin

According to current guidelines, what is NOT recommended for the treatment of PTSD due to potential addiction and lack of efficacy? a. Benzodiazepines b. SSRIs c. Tricyclic antidepressants d. Atypical antipsychotics

What is the purpose of the Structured Clinical Interview for the DSM-IV (SCID) in PTSD assessment? a. To assess PTSD symptom severity b. To establish whether or not a PTSD diagnosis is present c. To evaluate response biases in self-report measures d. To diagnose comorbid psychiatric conditions

In group psychotherapy for PTSD, what does the text mention about its efficacy compared to nonspecific treatment approaches? a. Group therapy tends to outperform nonspecific treatment approaches. b. Group therapy is less effective than nonspecific treatment approaches. c. Both approaches have similar efficacy. d. Group therapy has limited research evidence.

According to the National Comorbidity Survey-Replication study, what is the 12-month prevalence rate for any anxiety disorder in the US general population? a. 8.7% b. 6.8% c. 18.1% d. 3.1%

Which disorder has the highest 12-month prevalence rate among anxiety disorders in the US general population? a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) b. Specific Phobia c. Social Anxiety Disorder d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

What is the second most common class of mental health disorders in the US general population? a. Anxiety disorders b. Mood disorders c. PTSD d. Psychotic disorders

Why is estimating the prevalence of anxiety disorders and depression challenging among military personnel? a. Lack of trained psychologists b. Deployment-related experiences c. Limited funding for research d. Low response rates in surveys

What do Sareen et al. (2007) report regarding the 12-month prevalence of major depression among Canadian military personnel? a. Higher than the general US population b. Lower than the general US population c. Similar to the rates reported for the general US population d. Not mentioned in the text

Which structured diagnostic interview is recommended for assessing anxiety disorders, depression, and other relevant Axis I conditions? a. Anxiety Disorders Interview Schedule for DSM-IV (ADIS-IV) b. Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV (SCID-IV) c. Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II) d. Psychiatric Diagnostic Screening Questionnaire (PDSQ)

What is a unique advantage of using the Psychiatric Diagnostic Screening Questionnaire (PDSQ)? a. It provides symptom severity scores only b. It assesses only social anxiety disorder and panic disorder c. It facilitates diagnostic efficiency and provides clinical cutoffs d. It is designed specifically for military personnel

What is the most common and one of the most treatable anxiety disorders? a. Social Anxiety Disorder b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) d. Specific Phobia

What is the recommended treatment for specific phobia, and what is considered necessary and sufficient for treating the majority of individuals with specific phobias? a. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT); exposure b. Psychodynamic therapy; introspection c. Medication; relaxation techniques d. Support groups; counseling

What is the most well-supported intervention for treating Social Anxiety Disorder? a. Medication b. Psychoanalysis c. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) d. Group therapy

What are the common components of Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for Social Anxiety Disorder? a. Medication, psychoeducation, and relaxation b. Cognitive restructuring, exposure, and group therapy c. Imaginal exposure, role plays, and construction of a fear hierarchy d. Mindfulness, acceptance, and commitment

Which disorder is associated with unsuccessful attempts to reduce distress and interference with present-moment focus, emotional processing, and interpersonal relationships? a. Panic Disorder b. Specific Phobia c. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

What is a key component of treatments emphasizing awareness and acceptance of present-moment experience, such as Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)? a. Cognitive restructuring b. Exposure therapy c. Mindfulness d. Group therapy

What is a highly effective and well-established treatment for Panic Disorder and Agoraphobia? a. Medication only b. Psychoanalysis c. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) d. Mindfulness-based interventions

What is the most well-supported psychosocial intervention for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)? a. Medication b. Exposure with Response Prevention (EX/RP) c. Psychodynamic therapy d. Mindfulness-based interventions

What is the structured therapeutic approach that emphasizes negative information processing biases in depression? a. Psychodynamic therapy b. Interpersonal therapy (IPT) c. Cognitive therapy d. Behavioral therapy

What is the primary goal of behavior therapy for depression? a. Identifying automatic thoughts b. Increasing the frequency of pleasant activities c. Resolving interpersonal problems d. Evaluating dysfunctional beliefs

Which therapy for depression is based on interpersonal and attachment theories? a. Cognitive therapy b. Behavioral therapy c. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) d. Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)

According to Creamer et al. (2006), what is associated with greater risk of early separation from military service? a. High rank b. Mood and anxiety disorders c. Combat experience d. Lack of social support

What is a common challenge faced by military personnel in relation to sleep? a. Oversleeping b. Sleep disorders c. Lack of time for sleep d. Sleep quality issues

In which environments do military personnel often face sleep challenges? a. Garrison or training environments b. Home environments c. Vacation destinations d. Urban environments

According to the text, what is a misperception among military personnel and leadership regarding sleep? a. Sleep is essential for combat effectiveness. b. Needing sleep is a sign of laziness or weakness. c. Lack of sleep is irrelevant to military capabilities. d. Soldiers can function effectively on minimal sleep.

How can sleep deprivation affect alertness and vigilance during the first day of continuous wakefulness? a. It remains stable b. It severely degrades c. It improves temporarily d. It fluctuates unpredictably

What is a characteristic effect of sleep deprivation on reaction time performance, especially during the early morning hours of the second night? a. Improved accuracy b. Enhanced responsiveness c. Increased propensity toward lapses d. Decreased motivation to stay awake

According to the text, how much can general alertness and vigilance performance be expected to degrade for each 24-hour period of sustained wakefulness? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%

How do the effects of partial sleep restriction impact mental focus and alertness? a. They remain unaffected b. They improve c. They degrade d. They become unpredictable

What did the study presented in Figure 49.1 reveal about the relationship between nightly sleep duration and mental focus? a. Longer sleep duration led to faster decline b. Shorter sleep duration had no impact c. Longer sleep duration resulted in improved performance d. Shorter sleep duration led to a faster decline in mental focus

How long did the recovery sleep period in the study affect alertness and vigilance performance? a. Improved it significantly b. Returned it to baseline levels c. Showed no impact d. Permanently degraded it

According to the text, what is the consequence of cutting the amount of nightly sleep by just 1 hour, as reported by combat soldiers in Iraq? a. Increased mission success b. Greater difficulty handling job stresses c. Enhanced decision-making skills d. Improved overall health

How does sleep loss affect emotional intelligence and coping capacities, as mentioned in the text? a. Enhances them b. Shows no impact c. Causes significant declines d. Temporarily improves them

What was reported in a mental health survey of combat soldiers regarding the relationship between mental health problems and chronically reduced sleep? a. A decrease in mental health problems b. A doubling of mental health problems for every 2 hours of reduced sleep c. No correlation between sleep and mental health d. Improved mental health with less sleep

What is one consequence of sleep deprivation on team performance in military settings? a. Enhanced teamwork b. Improved communication c. Reduction in team performance d. Increased cooperation

In terms of moral judgments, what change is observed in sleep-deprived soldiers compared to their rested performances? a. They become more empathic b. They compromise less on moral positions c. They become faster in making moral judgments d. They are slower and more likely to violate their typical moral beliefs

How does sleep loss affect the ability to encode and retain new information, especially in tactical situations? a. Improves encoding abilities b. Shows no impact on information retention c. Modestly impairs the ability to encode new information d. Enhances recall of positive stimuli

What aspect of memory is particularly impaired by sleep deprivation, according to the text? a. Semantic memory b. Emotional memory c. Short-term memory d. Motor memory

What potential consequence of sleep deprivation during combat settings is mentioned in the text? a. Improved posttraumatic stress response b. Enhanced adjustment to traumatic experiences c. Biasing recall toward negative and traumatic experiences d. Reduced risk of posttraumatic stress

What cognitive capacities are included in executive functions, as mentioned in the text? a. Only logical reasoning b. Attention and cognitive resources c. Emotional intelligence d. Reading comprehension

According to the text, how does sleep deprivation impact risk-taking behavior? a. It reduces risk-taking b. It increases risk-taking, but individuals are aware of it c. It increases risk-taking, and individuals deny the riskiness d. It has no impact on risk-taking behavior

What is emphasized as vital for military leaders and decision-makers to avoid mission failure? a. Regular physical exercise b. Adequate nutrition c. Obtaining adequate sleep d. Frequent caffeine intake

What is the chief complaint associated with insomnia? A) Excessive daytime somnolence B) Difficulty staying awake C) Difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep D) Sleepwalking tendencies

How is insomnia often categorized based on duration? A) Short-term and long-term B) Chronic and transient C) Acute and persistent D) Rapid onset and gradual onset

What is the first step in treating insomnia according to the text? A) Prescribing hypnotic medications B) Identifying underlying causes C) Administering cognitive-behavioral therapy D) Referring to a sleep specialist

Which of the following is NOT a recommended measure for improving sleep hygiene? A) Regular sleep-wake schedule B) Drinking caffeine before bedtime C) Avoiding alcoholic beverages near bedtime D) Using technology with lighted screens before sleep

What is the primary treatment for chronic insomnia mentioned in the text? A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy B) Sleep-restriction therapy C) Antidepressant medications D) Nonpharmacological measures

What condition is commonly associated with excessive daytime somnolence due to airway obstruction? A) Narcolepsy B) Altitude insomnia C) Obstructive Sleep Apnea D) Restless Leg Syndrome

Which acronym is used to predict the likelihood of Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA)? A) SLEEP B) SNOOZE C) STOP-BANG D) REST

What is the primary treatment for Obstructive Sleep Apnea mentioned in the text? A) Benzodiazepine hypnotics B) Sleep-restriction therapy C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy D) Constant Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) machine

What is a characteristic symptom of narcolepsy? A) Sleepwalking tendencies B) Nightmares C) Excessive daytime somnolence with sleep attacks D) Periodic limb movements

What is the purpose of the Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS) mentioned in the text? A) Measure the severity of nightmares B) Evaluate the degree of daytime somnolence C) Assess the risk of sleepwalking D) Diagnose restless leg syndrome

What psychiatric condition is commonly associated with nightmares? A) Anxiety disorder B) Depression C) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) D) Bipolar disorder

Which therapy is recommended for treating nightmares associated with PTSD? A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy B) Prolonged exposure therapy C) Motivational interviewing D) Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

What is a potential side effect of medications used to treat nightmares? A) Increased pleasure-seeking B) Hypertension C) Excessive daytime somnolence D) Sleepwalking tendencies

What is the primary treatment for Periodic Limb Movements in Sleep (PLMS)? A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy B) Antidepressant medications C) Referral to a sleep specialist D) Dopaminergic medications

What is Restless Leg Syndrome (RLS) typically treated with? A) Antipsychotic medications B) Benzodiazepine hypnotics C) Dopaminergic medications D) Nonpharmacological measures

What is a normal finding related to muscle jerks just prior to falling asleep? A) Indication of Restless Leg Syndrome B) Myoclonic jerks or twitches C) Sleepwalking tendencies D) Narcolepsy symptoms

What is somnambulism? A) Excessive daytime somnolence B) Sleepwalking C) Nightmares D) Periodic Limb Movements in Sleep

What may be incompatible with continued military service, depending on the severity? A) Narcolepsy B) Nightmares C) Sleepwalking D) Restless Leg Syndrome

What is the potential risk associated with the use of trazodone in male patients? A) Excessive daytime somnolence B) Priapism (painful and sustained erection) C) Sleepwalking tendencies D) Increased pleasure-seeking

When is the use of hypnotic medications for nightmares recommended? A) As a first-line treatment B) On a time-limited basis C) In combination with CPAP therapy D) For severe sleepwalking tendencies

What is the second leading cause of death in the US military over the last several years? A) Combat-related losses B) PTSD C) Substance abuse D) Suicide

In which year did active-duty military suicide rates surpass those of comparable-age civilians for the first time? A) 2003 B) 2008 C) 2010 D) 2005

Which branch of the Department of Defense has experienced the greatest increases in suicide rates during the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan? A) Navy B) Air Force C) Army D) Marine Corps

What is the preferred method of suicide in the military, similar to the general US population? A) Hanging/suffocation B) Poisoning C) Firearms D) Drowning

According to available data, what percentage of those who died by suicide in the military had a diagnosable mental illness at the time of death? A) Less than 50% B) Approximately 75% C) Over 90% D) About 60%

What is mentioned as a protective factor for suicide risk in military service prior to the Global War on Terror? A) Economic stability B) Unit cohesion and social support C) Political support D) Psychological resilience

What has been linked to the emergence, persistence, and severity of suicidal thinking among military personnel? A) Combat exposure B) Legal problems C) Relationship stress D) Work-related issues

What has been suggested as a unique characteristic of combat exposure related to suicide risk? A) Unit cohesion B) Moral injuries C) Economic stability D) Political affiliations

What stressor is NOT among the most frequently cited stressors associated with military suicides? A) Work-related problems B) Financial problems C) Legal problems D) Academic challenges

What percentage of military suicides involve the use of firearms? A) 30% B) 50.6% C) 70% D) 20%

According to the text, what is a profound challenge in a military environment regarding suicide prevention and treatment? A) Access to firearms B) Lack of economic support C) Cultural issues and stigma D) Inadequate medical facilities

What is identified as the primary method used in military suicides, contributing to increased rates and difficulty in effective prevention? A) Poisoning B) Hanging/suffocation C) Firearms D) Jumping from heights

What percentage of military suicides did not communicate their intent, in contrast to the general population? A) 44% B) 60% C) 75% D) 67%

What has been a significant challenge for USAR and ARNG service members during the Global War on Terror? A) Political pressure B) Economic downturn C) Lack of deployment D) Limited military responsibilities

According to the Department of Veterans Affairs, what percentage of all suicides are veterans? A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%

What is the estimated number of veteran suicides per day, according to the Department of Veterans Affairs? A) 10 B) 15 C) 18 D) 20

Among OIF/OEF veterans receiving VA care, what is the suicide rate compared to Active Duty service members? A) Lower B) Similar C) Higher D) Unchanged

What is referred to as the signature wound among OIF/OEF veterans, posing diagnostic challenges due to high rates of comorbidity? A) PTSD B) Depression C) Traumatic brain injury (TBI) D) Substance abuse

What has emerged as one of the most promising early warning signs for psychological injuries among OIF/OEF veterans? A) Mood changes B) Sleep disturbance C) Substance abuse D) Social withdrawal

What initiative has provided historic levels of funding for intervention and treatment research, including projects targeting PTSD and suicidal behavior? A) Veteran Support Program B) Strong Star Initiative C) Warrior Wellness Project D) Military Suicide Research Consortium

What are the main concerns regarding substance use in the military? a. Impact on physical fitness b. Association with disease c. Lack of discipline d. Preference for illicit drugs

How has the Department of Defense (DoD) addressed substance abuse in the military? a. Ignoring the issue b. Developing programs and policies c. Encouraging excessive alcohol use d. Promoting tobacco use

What method does the DoD use to understand and monitor substance use in the active duty military? a. Social media monitoring b. Health Behavior Surveys (HRB) c. Anonymous tip lines d. Military intelligence reports

How often are DoD Surveys of Health Related Behaviors (HRB) conducted among Active Duty Military Personnel? a. Every year b. Every 2 years c. Every 3 to 4 years d. Irregular intervals

What is the purpose of the HRB surveys? a. Assessing military discipline b. Monitoring trends in substance abuse c. Evaluating physical fitness d. Testing combat readiness

What is the predominant sociodemographic characteristic of the military population, according to Table 45.1? a. Female b. Hispanic c. College-educated d. Male

How has the proportion of women in the military population changed from 1980 to 2008? a. Decreased significantly b. Remained constant c. Increased significantly d. Fluctuated randomly

According to Figure 45.1, what happened to the percentage of military personnel smoking cigarettes from 1998 to 2002? a. Increased significantly b. Decreased significantly c. Remained constant d. Fluctuated randomly

What is the heavy drinking rate for 2008, according to Figure 45.1? a. 15% b. 20% c. 35% d. 47%

What factor is associated with increases in binge and heavy drinking, according to the text? a. Physical fitness programs b. Exposure to combat c. Educational initiatives d. Reduced deployment rates

What trend does Figure 45.1 show for illicit drug use (including prescription drug misuse) from 1980 to 2008? a. Steady decline b. Significant increase c. Random fluctuation d. Consistent rise

What contributed to the higher prevalence of illicit drug use in 2005 and 2008, according to the text? a. Decreased misuse of prescription pain medications b. Improved question wording c. Reduced accessibility to drugs d. Changes in military regulations

What type of drugs showed large increases in misuse across the years, according to Figure 45.2? a. Hallucinogens b. Pain relievers c. Cocaine d. Inhalants

What is the most commonly misused drug in the past 30 days, according to Figure 45.2 for the year 2008? a. Cocaine b. Tranquilizers c. Marijuana d. Pain relievers

What is the term used for synthetic cannabinoids, such as "Spice"? a. Synthetic marijuana b. Herbal supplements c. Non-addictive drugs d. Opioids

What is the potential risk associated with bath salts, according to the text? a. Improved mental focus b. Enhanced physical performance c. Intense cravings and overdose d. Reduced stress levels

What do multivariate analyses of HRB data help understand? a. Environmental factors b. Sociodemographic characteristics of substance users c. Military regulations d. Combat readiness

According to the analyses, who is more likely to be a heavy alcohol user? a. Senior officers b. Navy personnel c. Single individuals d. College-educated personnel

What is identified as a social factor contributing to substance use in the military? a. Strict regulations b. Peer pressure c. Health promotion programs d. Cultural traditions

What environmental factor encourages substance use in the military? a. Strict enforcement of policies b. Reduced availability of substances c. Advertising that promotes use d. Smoke-free military zones

According to the text, what defines heavy alcohol use in men and women, respectively? a) 7 drinks per week for men, 4 for women b) 14 drinks per week for men, 7 for women c) 5 drinks per day for men, 4 for women d) 10 drinks per week for men, 5 for women

How has the prevalence of cigarette smoking in the military changed since 1980? a) Increased b) Remained the same c) Sharply declined d) Fluctuated

What substance use has been stable since 2002 among military personnel? a) Illicit drug abuse b) Prescription drug abuse c) Alcohol abuse d) Cocaine abuse

Which military branch has the highest prevalence of heavy drinking? a) Air Force b) Navy c) Marines d) Army

How has prescription drug abuse changed from 2002 to 2008 among military personnel? a) Decreased b) Remained the same c) Doubled d) Tripled

What is the association between deployment to a combat zone and heavy alcohol use? a) No association b) Decreased heavy alcohol use c) Increased heavy alcohol use d) Only affects prescription drug abuse

How do substances of abuse affect behavior, emotions, and cognition? a) By interacting with neurotransmitters b) By affecting physical health only c) By altering genetic makeup d) By influencing hormonal levels

According to the text, what is recommended as a standard part of most SUD assessments? a) Psychological testing b) Collateral sources of information c) Self-report measures only d) Lab tests for drug presence

What interview tool is mentioned as useful for SUD diagnosis? a) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) b) Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV (SCID-IV) c) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder 7 (GAD-7)

What is a primary goal when working with precontemplators in the stages of change model? a) Facilitate movement into the action stage b) Increase awareness of the problem c) Encourage immediate abstinence d) Provide medication for withdrawal

In the action stage, what might be required for severe alcohol-sedative or opiate withdrawal? a) Motivational interviewing b) Residential recovery program c) Stimulus control d) Hospitalization

What is the primary goal for patients in the maintenance stage? a) Achieve complete abstinence b) Address comorbid psychiatric disorders c) Reestablish work, residence, and social network while remaining abstinent d) Rely more on clinicians for guidance

Why is heavy drinking among military personnel highly relevant to the military, according to the text? a) Enhances combat performance b) Poses special liabilities c) Improves judgment and coordination d) Boosts morale

How can even "light" drinking impact military readiness? a) Improves cognitive functions b) Positively influences decision-making c) Results in illegal blood alcohol levels for certain activities d) Reduces anxiety in high-risk situations

What does cannabis (marijuana) specifically impede, according to the text? a) Perception and interpretation b) Judgment and coordination c) Rapid problem-solving d) Physical endurance

How does the text describe the potential consequences of SUDs on military readiness? a) No impact on readiness b) Direct consequences only c) Positive impact on combat performance d) High potential for negative impact

What should military psychologists be vigilant about, according to the text? a) Signs and symptoms of SUDs b) Legal issues related to substance use c) Physical fitness of military personnel d) Combat strategies

What is emphasized as a key therapist responsibility in treating SUDs? a) Strict adherence to a particular treatment model b) Help the client find an effective treatment approach c) Disregard patient preferences for treatment d) Focus solely on the biological aspects of addiction**

What stage involves patients planning to take action in the next 30 days but not yet reaching abstinence? a) Contemplation b) Preparation c) Action d) Maintenance

What percentage of the global opioid supply is consumed by Americans? A) 50% B) 80% C) 99% D) 20%

Between 2005 and 2008, what was the primary reason for the almost tripling of prescription drug abuse among US military personnel? A) Cocaine use B) Nonmedical use of prescription medications C) Marijuana consumption D) Illicit "street" drugs

According to the 2008 Pentagon health survey, what percentage of troops admitted to abusing pain medications in the previous year? A) 13% B) 22% C) 30% D) 10%

What is the fastest-growing drug problem in the United States? A) Cocaine abuse B) Illicit drug use C) Prescription pain medication abuse D) Marijuana consumption

In 2008, what percentage of overdose deaths in the United States involved a prescription drug? A) 40% B) 55% C) 25% D) 80%

What percentage of military personnel reported prescription drug misuse according to the 2008 DoD Survey of Health Related Behaviors? A) 4.4% B) 11.5% C) 22% D) 13%

Which military service had the highest prevalence of prescription drug misuse among females, according to the Executive Office? A) Air Force B) Navy C) Army D) Coast Guard

Between 2009 and 2011, what percentage of drug-related undetermined or accidental deaths involved prescription drugs? A) 50% B) 60% C) 72% D) 30%

What is a significant factor contributing to the increasing prevalence of prescription painkiller abuse among military members? A) Decreased availability of opioids B) Multiple deployments and continuing combat operations C) Strict opioid regulations D) Low rates of chronic pain among military personnel

What major concern did the Pain Management Task Force (PTF) express regarding pain management practices in the military? A) Overreliance on non-prescription pain relievers B) Consistent continuum of care C) Lack of comprehensive strategy D) Insufficient opioid availability

Which legislative acts were passed in October 2008 to address opioid abuse and pain management in the military? A) Military Pain Care Policy Act B) Veterans Pain Care Policy Act C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

What did the Opioid Renewal Clinic (ORC) model aim to achieve? A) Increased opioid availability B) Long-term opioid prescriptions C) Better prescribing practices and patient satisfaction D) Decreased opioid testing

When did the expanded drug testing for all military services, including commonly abused prescription drugs, begin? A) 2010 B) 2012 C) 2008 D) 2005

What percentage of soldiers involved in illegal drug use were abusing prescription drugs, according to an Army report for FY2011? A) 10% B) 15% C) 21% D) 30%

What is a significant challenge in managing prescription drug use in the military population? A) Lack of opioid availability B) Emphasis on seeking medical care C) Continuity in care due to the transient nature of the military population D) High research investment

What percentage of research funding over the next 5 years is allocated to pain management in the military, according to the Health Profile of 2011? A) 10% B) 2% C) 5% D) 20%

Why do military medical providers often feel pressure to provide high amounts of pain relief to those facing battle's heaviest burdens? A) Fear of legal consequences B) Fear of reprimand from families or leaders C) Lack of opioid availability D) Strict guidelines for pain management

What is a consequence of the transient nature of the military population in terms of care coordination? A) Consistent prescribing practices B) Lack of continuity in care C) Adequate monitoring of opioid use D) Increased research investment

What does the Pain Management Task Force (PTF) suggest is the primary reason for opioid issues in the military? A) Lack of opioid availability B) Overreliance on opioid medication C) Strict opioid regulations D) Consistent continuum of care

What does the lack of "ownership" for pain care in both civilian and military populations refer to? A) Absence of treatment options B) No specific discipline managing or coordinating pain care C) Strict opioid regulations D) Lack of patient awareness

How do most individuals respond after a period of readjustment following combat deployments? A) They continue to face difficulties. B) They become more resilient. C) They avoid seeking support. D) They experience emotional numbness.

What percentage of service members have children according to the Department of Defense? A) Approximately 10% B) Almost half C) About 75% D) Less than 25%

What is the primary age range of children of Active Duty personnel according to the Department of Defense? A) 0-5 years B) 6-11 years C) 12-18 years D) 19-23 years

Why is it important for school and community personnel to be aware of military children's unique stressors? A) To implement stricter rules B) To offer financial assistance C) To provide counseling services D) To support their unique needs

On average, how many times do military families move during a child's elementary through high school career? A) 2-4 times B) 4-6 times C) 6-9 times D) 9-12 times

What is a potential consequence of the transient lifestyle of military families on children? A) Enhanced social development B) Improved academic performance C) Interference with social development D) Reduced exposure to technology

What is a significant challenge for military youth regarding parental deployments to combat zones? A) Predicting the duration of deployments B) Worrying about their parents' safety C) Avoiding making new friends D) Enjoying the opportunities to travel

According to the text, what can be distressing for children and detrimental to the parent-child relationship? A) Parental emotional numbing and withdrawal B) Frequent family relocations C) Lack of exposure to traumatic events D) Parental overinvolvement

What do military children have that their civilian peers may not, according to the text? A) Higher academic achievement B) Unique stressors C) Specialized training D) Unique buffers and supports

Which program provides resiliency training for military families facing deployment challenges? A) TRICARE B) FOCUS Project C) Exceptional Family Member Program D) Military Kids Connect

What does TRICARE provide for Active Duty family members with specific mental or physical disabilities? A) Integrated services and supplies B) Basic TRICARE benefits only C) Exclusive coverage OCONUS D) Access to military installations

What is the purpose of the Exceptional Family Member Program (EFMP)? A) To provide financial support B) To coordinate services between military and civilian systems C) To offer specialized education services D) To mandate military family enrollment

Which resource offers information, training, and support for professionals working with military children and youth? A) Military One Source B) National Military Family Association C) Military Child Education Coalition (MCEC) D) Military Home Front

What is the purpose of the Families OverComing under Stress (FOCUS) Project? A) Providing financial aid to military families B) Offering resiliency training for families facing deployment challenges C) Addressing child abuse and neglect in military families D) Coordinating services between military medical systems and community services

What role does the Family Advocate Programs (FAP) play in military families? A) Providing mental health counseling B) Addressing child abuse and neglect C) Offering financial support D) Conducting military deployments

Which website serves as a comprehensive source of information for military and their families? A) Military One Source B) Military Home Front C) National Military Family Association D) Military Child Education Coalition (MCEC)

What does the National Child Traumatic Stress Network offer for military children and families? A) Financial assistance B) Comprehensive training programs C) Information, training, and products to assist with stress D) Access to military installations

Which organization sponsors Operation Purple, a network of camps exclusively for military children? A) National Child Traumatic Stress Network B) Military Child Education Coalition (MCEC) C) National Military Family Association D) Military Kids Connect

What is the recommended role of psychologists in understanding and addressing the needs of military youth and families? A) Providing generalist clinical competencies B) Avoiding specialized training in military culture C) Ignoring unique challenges faced by military families D) Offering financial assistance to military youth