Exam 2- Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

Proposed benefit of Acepromazine use for treating equine laminitis

A

Increases blood flow to the laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Proposed benefit of Nitroglycerin for treating equine laminitis

A

Limited evidence on the benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Proposed benefit of Isoxsuprine for equine laminitis

A

Limited evidence, peripheral vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Proposed benefit of IV DMSO in treating equine laminitis

A

Limited evidence, anti-inflammatory & mild platelet inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Proposed benefit of Pentoxifylline in treating equine laminitis

A

Limited evidence, hemorheologic, increases RBC membrane flexibility to increase blood flow through narrow vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Three hemostatics that act systemically & the evidence supporting their use

A

A. Aminocaproic acid- decreased fibrinolysis & post-op healing
B. Yunnan baiyao- Chinese herbs, variable evidence but suggested to increase clot strength
C. IV formalin- 81.25% cured in 4d, while <50% of untreated cows cured in 7-8d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This hemostatic can be used to treat hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Diluted formalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are two topical hemostatic agents & how do they work?

A

a. Silver nitrate- caustic

b. Styptic powder- anhydrous aluminum sulfate, acts as vasoconstrictor decreasing blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is “reperfusion injury” as it relates to tPA use?

A

a. When toxic substances that have built up in an area are released all at once
b. tPA used against clots w/ bad results= reperfusion shock & death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What ophthalmic indication is tPA used for?

A

a. Management of hyphema

- Injected into anterior chamber to decrease risk for glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is Warfarin not used therapeutically as an anticoagulant in animals?

A

Has a small therapeutic index, prone to drug interactions, & has an impact on the diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is LMW heparin often preferred over regular unfractionated heparin? What clotting factors are affected?

A

a. Less likely to cause accidental hemorrhage/iatrogenic bleeding
b. Inactivates factor Xa activity, but not thrombin activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do aspirin & clopidogrel produce anticoagulant effects?

A

Aspirin- inhibits platelet function by its effects on thromboxane; interferes with cyclooxygenase, inactivating the platelet
Clopidogrel- causes anticoagulant effects through the ADP pathway; inhibits platelet function by inhibiting ADP receptors on the platelet membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Preference of Amlodipine vs. Enalapril in hypertension management for the dog vs. cat

A

Dog- Enalapril first, Amlodipine if necessary

Cat- Amlodipine first, Enalapril used in refractory cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Epinephrine injected by different routes- why?

A

a. Cardiac asystole- IV or intratracheally
i. Stimulates heart & vasoconstricts, do not give intracardiac unless visualizing left ventricles
b. Anaphylaxis- IM
i. Provides a more rapid increase in plasma & tissue concentrations
c. Acute bronchoconstriction w/o hypotension- SQ
i. Rapid uptake into the system
d. Rate of absorption differs with each route of administration
i. More side effects can occur when epinephrine is absorbed too fast inappropriately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why are vasopressors used only after more conservative measures have failed to adequately raise blood pressure?

A

May decrease perfusion to some tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This vasopressor works to raise the BP by increasing the CO, no vasoconstriction

A

Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This vasopressor works by stimulating the heart & causing vasoconstriction

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This vasopressor works by stimulating alpha1 & beta1 receptors to create vasoconstriction & cardiac stimulation

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dopamine, when given at different doses, produces different effects, what are those?

A

Low dose- D1 dopamine receptors, vasodilation of renal & splanchnic vessels
Mid dose- beta1 receptor; increases heart inotropy
High dose- alpha1 receptors; vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This vasopressor causes vasoconstriction w/o cardiac stimulation

A

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This vasopressor has an indirect effect by the release of NorEpi at the postsynaptic alpha & beta receptors

A

Ephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What breed of dog may be more prone to digoxin toxicity?

A

Dobermans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is considered the vasodilator of choice in pulmonary hypertension management?

A

Oxygen therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do the pulmonary vessels differ in their response to hypoxia vs. other vessels in the body?

A

Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction of the pulmonary vessels to shunt blood towards healthy tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What drugs would be used for Left atrial enlargement w/ mild clinical signs?

A

Enalapril or Pimobendan

27
Q

What drugs would be used for left ventricular enlargement w/ systolic impairment?

A

Pimobendan or Digoxin

28
Q

What drugs would be used for atrial fibrillation w/ a high HR?

A

Digoxin or Diltiazem

29
Q

What drugs would be used to treat early pulmonary edema?

A

Furosemide or Torsemide

30
Q

What drugs would be used to treat refractory pulmonary edema?

A

Furosemide w/ Thiazide or Spironolactone

31
Q

What drugs would be used for treating premature ventricular contractions?

A

Procainamide or Sotalol

32
Q

Why are opioids often beneficial in pulmonary edema other than for sedation?

A

a. Decreased air hunger
b. Morphine- decrease preload by splanchnic vasodilation
c. Desensitizes CO2 receptors

33
Q

Compare and contrast dobutamine versus dopamine as to receptors stimulated, clinical indications, existence of a “holiday”, and whether a “therapeutic window” exists.

A

a. Dobutamine
i. Selectively stimulates subset of β1 receptors→ increase in strength of contraction
1. Some β2 activity may also reduce afterload
ii. Normally it has minimal effects on the HR but can cause tachyarrhythmias→ monitor w/ ECG
iii. Constant IV infusion due to short plasma half-life
iv. Target to raise systolic BP 100-120mmHg
v. Accumulates in cardiac muscle→ Dobutamine holiday
b. Dopamine
i. Less selective than dobutamine
ii. Low doses stimulate β1 & dopamine receptors
1. Beta1 stimulation→ positive inotropic effects
2. Dopamine stimulation→ vasodilation of renal (dogs, not cats) & splanchnic vessels
iii. Therapeutic window relative to use in heart failure
1. Higher doses stimulate alpha receptors→ increase in peripheral vascular resistance
iv. Constant IV infusion→ short half-life

34
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality predisposes to digoxin toxicity?

A

Hypokalemia

35
Q

What benefit besides inotropy does digoxin provide for treating CHF?

A

Sensitizes baroreceptors → slows HR

36
Q

How does renal function & body weight impact dosing digoxin?

A

Dose made on lean body weight; renal function affects drug elimination

37
Q

When might Benazepril be preferred over Enalapril as an ACE inhibitor?

A

When the patient is in renal failure

38
Q

How might NSAIDs interfere w/ ACE inhibitors?

A

Inhibit vasodilatory PG → decreases GFR → inhibits release of natriuretic PGs

39
Q

Explain how an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, by virtue of inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2, has a beneficial effect on CHF.

A

Less conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II= less vasoconstriction

40
Q

Why are hydrochlorothiazide or spironolactone seldom used as a sole diuretic in congestive heart failure (CHF), yet are commonly used as adjunct diuretics with furosemide, especially when pulmonary edema occurs despite furosemide therapy?

A

Weak diuretics

41
Q

For what group of cardiac drugs does tachyphylaxis limit the duration of their usefulness?

A

Nitrates

42
Q

Furosemide decreases preload. What additional benefit does it provide when pulmonary edema is present?

A

Produces vasodilatory prostaglandins

43
Q

Sodium restriction has historically been a method used in heart failure to reduce preload. What disadvantages might it however pose?

A

Palatability problems

May activate Renin-Angiotensin system too early

44
Q

What cardiovascular drugs alter preload?

A

Nitroglycerine, Furosemide, Torsemide, Thiazides/hydrochlorothiazide, Spironolactone

45
Q

What cardiovascular drugs alter afterload?

A

Amlodipine, Hydralazine, Dobutamine

46
Q

What cardiovascular drugs alter preload & afterload?

A

Nitroprusside, ACE inhibitors, Pimobendan

47
Q

In early congestive heart failure (systolic heart failure) physiologic changes occur that allow “compensated” heart failure to exist. Explain those physiologic changes and how eventually over-exaggerated responses lead to decompensated heart failure.

A

a. Early CHF leads to a reduced cardiac output & reduced BP.
i. Causes the activation of both the RAAS & the sympathetic NS
ii. RAAS- salt & water retention leading to excessive preload
iii. SNS- systemic arteriolar vasoconstriction leading to increased total peripheral resistance causing excessive afterload

48
Q

Name the therapeutic goals in the management of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) and what drugs we commonly use to accomplish these. Contrast the merits of diltiazem versus atenolol use in HCM.

A

a. Treat the underlying cause
b. Decrease the left atrial pressure
i. Oxygen
ii. Furosemide
c. Relax cardiac muscle (positive lusitropy)
i. Diltiazem
ii. Beta 1 blocker- Atenolol
iii. Nonselective beta blockers
d. Aspirin
i. Decreases risk of thromboembolism
e. Merits for treating HCM
i. Diltiazem & Atenolol→ positive lusitropy, relax the heart muscle
1. Diltiazem – calcium-channel block, q8hr dosing
2. Atenolol – beta1 block, q12hr dosing, decreases effects of catecholamines in hyperthyroidism

49
Q

What cardiac drugs are useful to treat ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Lidocaine, Procainamide/Mexiletine, Magnesium sulphate

50
Q

What cardiac drugs are useful to treat supraventricular arrhythmias?

A

Digoxin, Quinidine

51
Q

What drugs are useful to treat both supraventricular & ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Amiodarone, Sotalol

52
Q

What is an “escape beat” on an ECG & how does its presence impact the use of antiarrhythmics?

A

Escape beat= 3rd degree heart block
i- P waves not coordinated w/ QRS complex
ii- bradycardia
iii- ventricular antiarrhythmics that can cause cardiac arrest

53
Q

What is the initial drug of choice in treating nearly all PVCs during hospitalization?

A

Lidocaine

54
Q

What drug is most used to convert idiopathic a-fib to a normal sinus rhythm, & what are its main toxicities?

A

Amiodarone

  • hepatotoxic in dogs
  • causes diarrhea
55
Q

What drug is most used to manage a-fib when there is underlying myocardial disease?

A

Digoxin

-will not convert normal rhythm, but does slow conduction at the AV node

56
Q

Why do excessively high heart rates have a deleterious impact on cardiac output?

A

They do not allow for adequate ventricular filling to occur

57
Q

What is the basic mechanism for the class I antiarrhythmics?

A

Sodium-channel blockade- reduce phase 0 slope & peak of action potential

58
Q

Basic mechanism for class Ia antiarrhythmic

A

Moderate Na-channel blockade- moderate reduction of phase 0 slope, increase APD & ERP

59
Q

Basic mechanism for class Ib antiarrhythmic

A

Weak Na-channel blockade- small reduction in phase 0 slope, reduce APD & decreases ERP

60
Q

Basic mechanism for class Ic antiarrhythmic

A

Strong Na-channel blockade- pronounced reduction in phase 0 slope, no effect on APD or ERP

61
Q

Basic mechanism for class II antiarrhythmics

A

Beta-blockade- blocks sympathetic activity, reduces rate & conduction

62
Q

Basic mechanism for class III antiarrhythmics

A

Potassium-channel blockade- delay repolarization (phase 3) & thereby increase action potential duration & effective refractory period

63
Q

Basic mechanism for class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium-channel blockade- block L-type calcium-channels; most effective at SA & AV nodes; reduce rate & conduction

64
Q

What treatment options exist to manage a bradyarrhythmia such as “Sick Sinus Syndrome”?

A

Administer a test dose of atropine & then administer propantheline
Usually requires a pacemaker sx, medical management unrewarding