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y SCO Anatomy > EXAM 2 anatomy > Flashcards

EXAM 2 anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the biogenic amines?

A

the 3 catecholamines, serotonin, and histamine

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2
Q

What are the 3 catecholamines?

A

DA, NE, and Epi

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3
Q

On the venn diagram, serotonin is what?

A

Trophatrophic, controls impulse

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4
Q

On the venn diagram, serotonin and NE is what?

A

It causes anxiety and irritability

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5
Q

On the venn diagram, serotonin and DA is what?

A

appetite, sex, and aggression

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6
Q

On the venn diagram, NE is what?

A

Ergotrophic, vigilance

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7
Q

On the venn diagram, DA and NE is what?

A

motivation

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8
Q

what makes ACh?

A

Acetyl CoA + choline + choline acetyltransferase

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9
Q

What blocks nicotinic ACh receptors?

A

curare, hexamethonium

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10
Q

how many subtypes of muscarinic Ach receptors are there? What blocks it?

A

M1-M5, atropine blocks it

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11
Q

What NT is made from tyrosine?

A

DA, NE, and Epi

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12
Q

What NT is made from Tryptophan?

A

Serotonin

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13
Q

What does monoamine oxidase do?

A

MOA degrades catecholamines, serotonin, and histamine

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14
Q

What is the synthesis of the catecholamines?

A

Tyrosine (tyrosine dehydroxylase) > L-Dopa (Dopa decarboxylase)> Dopamine (Dopamine beta-hydroxylase)> NE (Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase) > Epi

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15
Q

Which adrenergic receptor is found in mainly the PNS?

A

Epi

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16
Q

Which adrenergic receptor is found in both the CNS and PNS rather equally?

A

NE

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17
Q

Where is serotonin found in the body?

A

Raphe nuclei in the brain.

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18
Q

What is the function of serotonin (page 6) . 5 items

A

regulates sleep, emotions, vomiting, cell growth, vascular smooth muscle cell contraction

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19
Q

What are the highest concentration NTs?

A

Glutamate, second most common is aspartate

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20
Q

What are the ionotropic receptors for glutamate? name a disease

A

AMPA and NMDA. ALS is an excitotoxic disease

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21
Q

What are some characteristics of NMDA receptors?

A

it needs to be excited to remove Mg2+ block. it conducts Na+ and Ca++. involved in excitotoxicity and requires glycine binding to work. LTP

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22
Q

What are the characteristics of non-NMDA receptors?

A

fast epsp, conducts Na+ and K+

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23
Q

What are the characteristics of GABAa receptors?

A

IPSP, increases Cl- conductance. benzo, barbiturates. Penicillin and bicucullin inhibit

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24
Q

What are the characteristics of GABAb receptors?

A

presynaptic inhibition, increase K and decrease Ca++.

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25
Q

What are the characteristics of glycine receptors?

A

it’s inhibitory by increasing Cl-. Blocked by Strychnine

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26
Q

What does Nitric Oxide do? (page 10)

A

it activates cGMP: vasodilation, LTP. iNOS can cause oxidative stress

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27
Q

What are the ways to affect NTs? list 8

A

vesicle leakage to break it down, increase NT release into cleft, block NT release, block NT synthesis, block NT reuptake, block enzymes that metabolize NT, block post-synaptic receptor or stimulate, second messengers

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28
Q

What is the pericardium? What’s outer to it? what can it be divided into?

A

it’s the fibrous sac that surrounds the heart. The fibrous pericardium is outer. Serous pericardium divided into visceral layer (touches heart) and parietal layer. Remember that the two layers are the same thing, it just wraps around.

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29
Q

What is the visceral layer of serous pericardium? What’s it also called?

A

it’s the inner part of the serous pericardium that surrounds the heart. It’s also called epicardium.

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30
Q

what is the parietal layer of serous pericardium? what’s outer to it?

A

its the outer part of the serous pericardium. outer is the fibrous pericardium.

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31
Q

What’s in between the visceral and parietal layers?

A

serous fluid that allows the heart to have room to move.

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32
Q

what is fibrous pericardium?

A

it’s the tough external, protective portion of the fibrous sac. It fuses with the outer wall of the great vessels and teh central tendon of the diaphragm.

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33
Q

what provides sensory and blood supplies to the pericardium?

A

the phrenic nerves and the pericardiophrenic vessels.

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34
Q

what are the great vessels within the pericardial sac? 5

A

the ascending aorta, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, 4 pulmonary veins, and pulmonary trunk

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35
Q

what sinuses does the pericardium create?

A

the transverse and oblique sinuses

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36
Q

What are the surfaces of the heart and what are they made by?

A

sternocostal (right ventricle), diaphragmatic (right and left ventricles), left pulmonary surface (left ventricle), right pulmonary surface (right atrium), and base of the heart (left atrium).

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37
Q

what is the coronary sulcus?

A

its between the atria and ventricles

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38
Q

what are the anterior and posterior interventricular sulci?

A

they mark the pathway of the internal interventricular septum (runs vertically)

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39
Q

What is the heart wall? What are it’s three layers?

A

it’s mostly made of cardiac muscle. its layers are epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

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40
Q

what is epicardium?

A

the mesothelial visceral serous pericardium that lines the outside of the heart

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41
Q

what is myocardium?

A

cardiac muscle

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42
Q

what is endocardium?

A

epithelial tissue that lines the internal surface of the heart

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43
Q

what does the right atrium do? how is it divided?

A

it collects deoxygenated blood from the vena cavas and coronary sinus. the anteior part is the auricle and the posterior part is the main part that receives blood

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44
Q

what is the ridge that divides the atrium into 2 parts?

A

the crista terminalis

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45
Q

what is the auricle?

A

the rough, anterior part of the atriums

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46
Q

what is the sinus venarum?

A

It’s the posterior part of the right atrium and has a smooth inner wall, and receives deoxygenated venous blood

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47
Q

what is the interatrial septum?

A

The interatrial septum is the muscular wall that divides the right and left atria from one another. You can see the fossa ovale (which used to be the foramen ovale when fetus)

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48
Q

what does constriction of the right atrium do?

A

Constriction of the right atrium sends blood through the right AV orifice past the tricuspid valve

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49
Q

what parts make up the tricuspid valve?

A

It consists of posterior, septal and anterior cusps

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50
Q

what are papillary muscles?

A

The three papillary muscles (anterior, posterior, septal) serve as anchors for the tendinous cords in the ventricle.

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51
Q

what are tendinous cords?

A

the tendinous cords attach to the three cusps of the tricuspid valve to prevent them from protruding excessively into right atrium.

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52
Q

what is the Septomarginal trabecula (moderator band)?

A

part of the conducting system, it is a bundle of cardiac muscle that runs between the interventricular septum and the base of a papillary muscle in the right atrium.

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53
Q

what is the supraventricular crest?

A

supraventricular crest divides the right ventricle into an inflow part near the tricuspid valve, and a smooth outflow part or conus arteriosus.

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54
Q

What is the outflow part of the right ventricle called?

A

conus arteriosus

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55
Q

what valve is after the right ventricle?

A

the pulmonary (right semilunar) valve. it has three semilunar cusps. after this it goes into the pulmonary trunk then through pulmonary circulation

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56
Q

what is the smooth and rough part of the left atrium?

A

the smooth part has the 4 pulmonary veins (oxygenated). The rough part is the left auricle and its pectinate muscles.

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57
Q

what is the overall flow of blood through the heart?

A

superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus > right atrium past the right AV orifice (tricuspid valve)> right ventricle past the conus arteriosus (pulmonary (right semilunar) valve)> pulmonary trunk > lungs > Left atrium (mitral or bicuspid valve)> Left ventricle (aortic valve)> aorta

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58
Q

what binds the left AV opening?

A

the mitral or bicuspid valve. it has anterior and posterior cups.

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59
Q

what is common in marfan syndrome and most common valve to fail in the heart?

A

prolapse of the the mitral valve of the left AV opening

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60
Q

what prevents prolapse of the mitral valve?

A

the two chordae tendineae and two papillary muscles anchor the cusps

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61
Q

What is the interventricular septum?

A

it separates the ventricles. it has a thin, membranous part superiorly near the aortic valve

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62
Q

What is the aortic valve?

A

it prevents backflow back into the heart. It has 3 semilunar cusps that have nodules on their ends to make sure they close.

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63
Q

What are the aortic sinuses?

A

Just after the aortic valve are two coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart when the valve is closed.

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64
Q

What is the fibrous cardiac skeleton? what is its function? what is it made of?

A

it is the dense collagenous origin of the cardiac muscle. it prevents contact between atrial and ventricular cardiac fibers (for good timing). it’s made of 4 fibrous rings that support the 4 valves of the heart. 2. the two fibrous trigones. 3. the membranous portions of the interventricular and interatrial septa.

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65
Q

what is a trigone?

A

two triangles of collagen link the 4 rings of the fibrous cardiac skeleton together

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66
Q

What is the SA node?

A

the sinoatrial node is in the wall of the right atrium near the superior vena cava opening to initiate contraction impulses in the atrium. they are made of cardiac muscle fibers using myogenic conduction

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67
Q

what is the AV node?

A

The atrioventricular node is located in the interatrial septum. it delays eletrical signals then gets to perkinje cardiac cells. they are made of cardiac muscle fibers using myogenic conduction. It guides the ventricles in their contraction

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68
Q

what is the AV bundle?

A

It is is the bridge of conduction between the atrial and ventricular muscles.

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69
Q

describe the coronary circulation

A

the right coronary artery starts in the aortic sinus and runs in the coronary sulcus getting the right side of the heart The left coronary artery starts in the aortic sinus and goes left. The veins drain into the coronary sinus that goes into the right atrium on the posterior side. The SA nodal branch comes off of the right coronary artery.

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70
Q

what does botulinum toxin do?

A

it blocks NT release at NMJ.

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71
Q

what does curare do?

A

it’s an Ach antagonist

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72
Q

what does Neostigmine do?

A

it is an antidote for curare after surgery is finished. it kills ach esterase

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73
Q

what did a mature muscle cell come from?

A

hundreds of myoblasts that fuse together in the fetus.

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74
Q

what can satellite cells do?

A

it can regenerate new cells

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75
Q

what is the functional unit of the muscle?

A

the sarcomere. from Z line to Z line.

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76
Q

what are myofibrils made of?

A

myosin and actin. troponin and tropomyosin reg proteins, and titin (a spring that connects to z disc and myosin)

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77
Q

six ___ surround one ___ in muscles

A

actin, myosin

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78
Q

what is the I band?

A

the light band that’s only actin

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79
Q

what’s the A band?

A

the dark band that has myosin in it

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80
Q

what’s the H zone?

A

the part of dark band that only has myosin

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81
Q

what are the 4 steps of contraction cycle?

A
  1. atp hydrolysis 2. crossbridge forms 3. power stroke 4. detachment (when ATP binds). Need ATP and high Ca++ levels
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82
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: myosin-atpase activity

A

low, high, high

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83
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: speed of contraction

A

slow, fast, fast

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84
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: resistance to fatigue

A

high, intermediate, low

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85
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: oxidative phosphorylation capacity

A

high, high, low

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86
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: enzymes for anaerobic glycolysis

A

low, intermediate, high

87
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: mitochondria

A

many, many, few

88
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: capillaries

A

many, many, few

89
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: myoglobin content

A

high, high, low

90
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: color of fiber

A

red, red, white

91
Q

muscle characteristics for slow-oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers: glycogen content

A

low, intermediate, high

92
Q

what is concentric contraction?

A

muscle shortens

93
Q

what is eccentric contraction?

A

muscle lengths (like lowering heavy book)

94
Q

how is smooth muscle different than skeletal muscle, molecularly?

A

the z line is goes diagonally and is anchored to plasma membrane. no troponin or tropomyosin. It uses calmodulin.

95
Q

what causes pacemaker potentials?

A

calcium leak channels

96
Q

as hematocrit increases, blood viscosity…

A

increases

97
Q

What percent of blood is at rest in veins and venules?

A

60%

98
Q

what percent of blood is in arteries and arterioles?

A

only 15%

99
Q

what do chordae tendineae do?

A

AKA heart strings, then prevent prolapse of valves by keeping valves clossed (like the hinges of a door)

100
Q

What brings the electrical signal to the bundle of His?

A

The AV node

101
Q

when do the heart sounds happen?

A

the 1st sound happens at the end of diastole when the mitral valve closes (right AV side), the 2nd happens at the end of systole when the aortic valve closes

102
Q

Adding a little venous pressure does what to ventricular diastole?

A

it makes the ventricle fill with more blood

103
Q

that is the RMP of cardiac muscle?

A

-90mv

104
Q

what happens during the plateau phase for cardiac muscle?

A

K+ channels close, Ca++ opens slowly and binds to troponin causing a contraction

105
Q

how long of a duration is a cardiac action potential?

A

about 300 msec, which is really long compared to neuronal APs

106
Q

what is responsible for the plateau of cardiac aption poentials?

A

the reduced K+ fighting with increased Ca++

107
Q

during what part of the cardiac AP is the heart tension highest?

A

during the plateau/ repolarization

108
Q

what regulates parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation of heart?

A

CN 9 glossopharyngeal transmits information from baroreceptors in carotis sinus. Sympathetic innevartion and parasympathetic (Vagas (X) ) infulence the SA node and AV node.

109
Q

What is a brury?

A

a cholesterol clot that can be heard with a stethoscope. This is from the turbidity of excessive cholesterol

110
Q

what does sympathetic innervation do to the heart to increase output? what happens molecularly?

A

venous pressure lowers to increase cardiac output. The pacemaker increases frequency. Beta Ach activates adenylyl cyclase, cAMP, etc

111
Q

what is a P wave for ECG?

A

it’s atrial depolarization

112
Q

what is a P-Q interval?

A

it’s duration between atrial to ventricular excitation

113
Q

what is a QRS complex

A

it’s ventricular depolarization

114
Q

what is a T wave for ECG?

A

it’s ventricular repolarization

115
Q

what is missing in atrial fibrillation?

A

P waves.

116
Q

what are foam cells?

A

macrophages that eat all lipids in the plaques that build up on the artery during atherosclerosis. They get stuck.

117
Q

what did Frank-Starling prove with frogs?

A

as stroke volume increases, the contraction also gets stronger.

118
Q

what are the 4 different types of tissue?

A

epithelium, connective tissue, nervous tissue, muscle tissue

119
Q

which tissue type is almost 100% cellular?

A

epithelium

120
Q

what is the basal lamina?

A

the extracellular matrix produced by the epithelium

121
Q

what is endocrine?

A

an epithelial cell that secretes into the bloodstream (no duct)

122
Q

what is exocrine?

A

they secrete to a surface through lumen or a duct. can be Merocrine, apocrine, and holocrine.

123
Q

what is merocrine?

A

glandular epithelium secrete via exocytosis of secretory granules

124
Q

what is apocrine?

A

glandular epithelium secrete by losing part of its apical membrane upon secretion. it’s later replenished

125
Q

what is holocrine?

A

The whole cell is the secretant and dies.

126
Q

meibomian gland is what type?

A

holocrine. it’s like sebaceous gland

127
Q

why is the goblet cell special?

A

it’s apocrine epithelial gland then becomes holocrine when it dies

128
Q

simple glands have…

A

one duct. it can have one or more secreting units, but only one duct.

129
Q

what is the parenchyma

A

all the ducts and secreting cells of a gland

130
Q

what is acinar shaped?

A

the secreting units have a flask shape.

131
Q

lacrimal gland type?

A

exocrine (specifically merocrine). compound tubuloacinar gland (some that are tube, some that are acinar)

132
Q

compound vs. simple ducts?

A

branching duct vs one duct.

133
Q

what is serious vs. mucous?

A

serous is water and has proteins (maybe antibodies) . mucous (protective and lubricating, glycoproteins)

134
Q

what do myoepithelial cells do?

A

SPECIALISED. they surround glands and squeeze secretion out to the surface

135
Q

what is a serous demilune?

A

a serous acinus that partially surrounds a duct in a mucous secreting unit

136
Q

sebaceous glands are what?

A

holocrine that release sebum.

137
Q

what tissue are sweat glands?

A

merocrine, but puberty areas are apocrine glands

138
Q

glands of moll are what tissue?

A

apocrine glands (epithelium)

139
Q

what is neuroepithelium? what are some examples?

A

SPECIALISED. they detect sensations. olfactory epithelium and taste buds are examples

140
Q

what is the only example of a unicellular epithelial gland?

A

goblet cells–apocrine then holocrine

141
Q

what does the basal lamina (propria) separate?

A

epithelium grows on it, connective tissue is on other side.

142
Q

what are the 3 layers of the basal lamina?

A

Lamina densa (visible on electron microscope), lamina rara (not as visible on electron microscope), anchoring fibrils

143
Q

what’s the difference between basement membrane and basal lamina?

A

basal lamina: only made from epithelium. ECM. basement membrane: includes epithelium ECM and reticular fibers of connective tissue.

144
Q

what are anchoring fibers?

A

type VII collagen come off of hemidesmosomes to fasten the basal lamina to the reticular connective tissue.

145
Q

what is the purpose of the basal lamina?

A

attachment, barrier (alveoli and capillary example), fiter

146
Q

What are basal infoldings?

A

they allow high surface area to allow for more ion pumps and housing mitochondria

147
Q

is the microvilli (brush bordre) on the base or apex? what does it do?

A

apex, has high surface area to absorb nutrients

148
Q

where are flagella in the human?

A

sperm

149
Q

what do Retina Pigment Epithelium have microvilli?

A

phagocytic to photo receptors and have been used up.

150
Q

what’s the difference between zonula adherens and desmosomes?

A

they both hold cell neighbors together, but ZA is a 360 band of cadherins and desmosomes are spots (made with intermediate filaments).

151
Q

What are the different intercellular junction types?

A

Interdigitations (brief), zonula occludens (aka tight junction), Zonula adherens, desmosome, gapjuctions, hemidesmosomes (cell to basal lamina propria)

152
Q

what is lamina propria?

A

the connective tissue neighboring epithelium.

153
Q

starting from apical to less apical, what makes up a terminal bar (junction complex)?

A

Zonula occludens, Zonula adherens, desmosomes

154
Q

For hemidesmosomes, what is on what side?

A

on the cytoplasmic side is a plaques, on the basal lamina side is type VII collagen anchoring fibrils

155
Q

what are focal adhesions?

A

when there is a wound, transient adhesions of actin-driven adhesions from epithelial basal lamina to basement membrane.

156
Q

What determines the classification of covering epithelium?

A

the most apical/superficial cells of epithelium

157
Q

what kind of epithelium is in the bladder?

A

transitional epithelium because, depending on the pressure, they will be squamous or cuboidal

158
Q

what kind of epithelium is in the respiratory tract?

A

pseudostratified epithelium

159
Q

what is keratinization?

A

dry cells that produce keratin keratinize and die.

160
Q

what kind of tissue are blood vessels?

A

simple squamous epithelium (endothelium)

161
Q

what kind of tissue is the mesothelium?

A

simple squamous epithelium

162
Q

what kind of tissue is the alveoli?

A

simple squamous epithelium

163
Q

what kind of tissue is the cornea

A

simple squamous or cuboidal epithelium

164
Q

kidney collecting cells?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

165
Q

RPE cells of eye

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

166
Q

digestive tract tissue?

A

simple columnar epithelium

167
Q

goblet cells of the respiratory tract?

A

they are still considered ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

168
Q

esophagus tissue type?

A

unkeritanized stratified squamous epithelium

169
Q

what is basement membrane of the corneal epithelium and corneal endothelium?

A

bowman’s membrane is made by corneal stroma keretoblasts, descemet’s membrane is the basal lamina of the cornial endothelium. Corneal epithelium has its own basement membrane

170
Q

why is the mouth have stratified squamous epithelium but not the digestive tract?

A

stratified epithelium can be indicative of shearing forces.

171
Q

salivary gland tissue type? Conjunctiva type

A

stratified columnar epithelium. Doesn’t happen too often!

172
Q

What kind of epithelium is in the eye?

A

epithelium (stratified squamous non-keratinized) and endothelium, conjunctiva (stratified squamous non-keratinized), iris, ciliary body, retinal pigment epithelium

173
Q

what kind of tissue is in the iris?

A

iris simple cuboidal apex-apex

174
Q

what kind of tissue is the lens?

A

simple cuboidal apex inside, basal lamina outside

175
Q

how does an endocrine gland develop?

A

epithelium grows down into the lamina propria and develops. The neck breaks off and blood vessels grown through the gland where secretion gets released.

176
Q

how does an exocrine gland develop?

A

epithelium grows down into the lamina propria and develops. The neck develops into a duct

177
Q

drain into surface vs. drain into bloodstream?

A

exocrine vs endocrine

178
Q

what is mesothelium?

A

epithelium that line body cavities

179
Q

peritoneum, pericardium, pleura

A

abdominal, media, pulmonary

180
Q

what is a conjunctival cyst?

A

something causes a break in the conjunctival epithelium cells and enter into the lamina propria. a ball will grow with the apexes towards the center and basal lamina on the outside.

181
Q

How does epithelium grow?

A

the basal cells will divide to create a wing cell that is pushed upward.

182
Q

what is a papilla (papili plural)?

A

a fingerlike projecting of the lamina propria into the epithelium to stabilize the connection. also blood vessels here.

183
Q

what is the general function of connective tissue?

A

provides and maintains form throughout the body

184
Q

What is connective tissue made up of? What’s predominant?

A

cells and extracellular matrix. EM is predominant

185
Q

what makes up extracellular matrix?

A

protein fibers and ground substance (viscous mixture that fills in spaces between cells and fibers)

186
Q

What can an undifferentiated mesenchymal cell develop into?

A

Fibroblasts, osteoblast, endothelial cell, mesothelial cell, adipocyte, chondroblast

187
Q

What does a fibroblast do? What organelles are prominent? What happens after their job is done?

A

it produces components of the extracellular matrix. It has many mitochondria, rER, and awesome Golgi. They become inactive, existing in the tissue as fibrocytes but can reactive upon injury.

188
Q

protein fiber is released to make type I collagen fibrils?

A

Tropocollagen

189
Q

what is ground substance made of?

A

glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), proteoglycans, glycoproteins

190
Q

what are myofibroblasts?

A

they have actin and myosin, pulling edges of the wound together.

191
Q

what is diapedesis?

A

a process where leukocytes can squeeze through capillaries to arrive in the connective tissue.

192
Q

what happens when a monocyte goes through diapedesis?

A

it becomes a macrophage after it squeezes through blood capillaries to connective tissues

193
Q

what do macrophages do? Why do they have irregular surface?

A

they do phagocytosis of invading cells, antigen presentation, and breakdown of unneeded tissues (like primary vitreous, apoptosis and necrosis clean up) and tumors. It’s irregular from pinocytosis and phagocytosis and being in connective tissue.

194
Q

what are mast cells? What do they secrete? what do they produce? What do their phospholipids produce and release?

A

they develop from progenitor cells of the bone marrow. Mediate allergic response, especially histamine. they have secretory granules: histamine, heparin, eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF-A). Mast cell phospholips produce and release leukotrienes and slow-reacting substane of anaphylaxis (SRS-A)

195
Q

what does histamine do?

A

increases vascular permeability and constriction of smooth bronchioles. inflamitory response

196
Q

where are mast cells derived from?

A

progenitor cells of the bone marrow

197
Q

what do plasma cells do?

A

they produce and release antibodies

198
Q

what’s happening with allergic conjuctivitis?

A

the mast cells of the conjunctiva are secreting their contents degranulate. Rubbing eyes makes this worse

199
Q

what is tropocollagen?

A

it’s produced by fibroblasts (and other cells)

200
Q

what is type IV collagen?

A

it’s in the epithelial basal lamina

201
Q

what is type VII collagen?

A

it’s in the anchoring fibrils in the epithelial hemi-desmosomes

202
Q

What are reticular fibers?

A

specialized collagen made mostly of type III collagen. Smaller diameter makes it flexible to prevent organ rupture

203
Q

what are type I collagen fibers?

A

they are the most common type in the body and makes up a lot of the extracellular matrix of many connective tissues.

204
Q

what is Collagen 1, 3, 4, 7,

A

1 most common and ECM in connective tissue, 3 reticular (connective), 4 epithelial, 7 epithelial hemi-desmosomes.

205
Q

What are elastic fibers made of?

A

proelastin and fibrillin

206
Q

what is elastin?

A

its the center of the elastic fiber. it’s amorphous and springy

207
Q

what is fibrillin? what’s pure fibrillin called?

A

fibrillin surround the elastin core. pure fibrillin is called oxytalan

208
Q

what is oxytalan?

A

pure fibrillin wo/ elastin

209
Q

what fibers forms lens zonules?

A

pure fibrillin wo/ elastin

210
Q

what are the different types of connective tissue?

A

connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue.

211
Q

What is hyaluronic acid?

A

it’s the most common GAG

212
Q

what is two types of connective tissue proper?

A

Loose (areolar) connective tissue and dense connective tissue.

213
Q

what is loose (areolar) connective tissue? what does it consist of?

A

the most common connective tissue. made of collagen, reticular, and elastin fibers from fibroblasts, macrophages, etc. not very resistant to stress. functions include filling space between muscle cells. Reticular tissue is Loose connective tissue. Stuff can flow through it.

y SCO Anatomy (1 decks)

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