exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

(ON_SLIDES)
refers to the differences among people, especially those related to values, attitudes, beliefs, norms, behaviors, customs and ways of living, what is this called?

A

Cultural diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(ON-SLIDES)
a formal area of study and practice focused on a comparative analysis of different cultures and
subcultures in the world with respect to cultural care, health and illness beliefs, values, and practices with the goal of using this knowledge to provide culture-specific and culture-universal nursing care to people, coined by Leininger is what type of nursing?

a. culture-specific care
b. transcultural nursing
c. culture-universal care
d. cultural diversity

A

b. transcultural nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(ON SLIDES)
particularistic values, beliefs and patterning of behaviors, that tend to be special, local, or unique to a designated culture and which do not tend to be shared with members of other cultures is what type of care?

A

culture-specific care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(ON-SLIDES)
commonalities of values, norms of behaviors, and life patterns that are similarly held among cultures about human behavior and lifestyles and form the bases for formulating theories for developing cross-cultural laws of human behavior is what type of care?

A

Culture-universal care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(ON-SLIDES)

culture is?

A

a set of knowledge, beliefs, morals, law, art, customs and tradition
-refers to a complex whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

(ON-SLIDES)
A group of teens develops their own method of texting in a language that they feel is all their own. The change is subtle, but the meanings and the feelings associated with the text are known only to a select few. This behavior is an example of:

A)Culture
B)Cultural competence
C)Cultural safety
D)Ethnocentrism

A

A (Culture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who refuses the food as served. He states that the food is foreign to him and will make him ill. All food must be blessed. The personal care attendant is upset by this behavior and states that the client should eat the food anyway. The client’s behavior is most likely a result of:

A)Psychosocial deficit
B)Cultural belief
C)Allergies
D)Hygiene

A

B (cultural belief)
rationale:
Culture is how people approach the world. Culture includes language, religion, occupation, economics, art, politics, and philosophy, along with diet. The fact that the client says that the food must be “blessed” indicates a religious belief that is part of his culture. There is no evidence of a psychosocial deficit in this client, or of allergies or hygiene concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The nurse is present when a mother begins cupping her child. She states that it will help to heal the child’s respiratory tract infection. The nurse understands that the cultural belief that cupping will aid in the healing process is a:

A)Shared instinct
B)Learned behavior
C)Private idiosyncrasy
D)Genetically programmed idea

A

B (learned behavior)
rationale:
Usually culture is first “learned” from parents and siblings and then from peers, teachers, neighbors, books, television, and other media. Thus, it is not innate instinct, a private idiosyncrasy, or a genetically programmed idea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A Mexican-American client arrives at the emergency department. He reports abdominal pain and has been vomiting for 5 days. The nurse notes that he is exhibiting symptoms of dehydration, and his vital signs and labs confirm this. The nurse asks the client why he waited so long to seek medical care. He states that he is being treated by the Curandero and wishes to continue while in the hospital. The nurse recognizes the different cultural assumptions regarding care. This situation is an example of:

A)Cross-cultural nursing
B)Ethnocentrism
C)Cultural safety
D)Transcultural bias

A

A (cross-cultural nursing)
rationale:
Cross-cultural nursing is any nursing work in which the nurse and the client have different cultures. Ethnocentrism is the assumption that others believe and behave as the dominant culture does, or the belief that the dominant culture is superior to others. Cultural safety is the practice of providing culturally appropriate health services to disadvantaged groups while stressing dignity and avoiding institutional racism, assimilation (forcing people to adopt a dominant culture), and repressive practices. There is no evidence of bias in this scenario

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The nurse conducts a well-child clinic in your community. The client population is culturally diverse, and, although the clinic is busy, it runs smoothly because it has an interpreter. In addition to the interpreter, it is important that the nurses treat each client that reflects his or her individual cultural needs. This is cultural:

A)Bias
B)Artwork
C)Competence
D)Beliefs

A

C (competence)
rationale:
In nursing, cultural competence means considering cultural aspects of health, illness, and treatment for each client or community, as well as doing so at each stage of the nursing process. The nurse should not display cultural bias or favoritism to any specific culture. The nurse does not need to display the beliefs of other cultures, just respect, and understanding of them. The nurse does not need to display cultural artwork.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A nurse, new to the community health agency, works in a culturally diverse area of the community. The nurse is responsible for providing holistic care to clients and to be culturally competent. The health agency requires the nurse to demonstrate which competency to exhibit cultural competence? (Select all that apply.)

A)Value diversity
B)Adopt the client's cultural values
C)Acquire cultural knowledge
D)Adapt to diversity
E)Speak the language of the client
A

A,C,D (value diversity, acquire cultural knowledge, adapt to diversity)
rationale:
For community and public health agencies to be culturally competent, they must do the following: have a defined set of values and principles and demonstrate behaviors, attitudes, policies, and structures that enable them to work effectively cross-culturally; have the capacity to (1) value diversity, (2) conduct self-assessment, (3) manage the dynamics of difference, (4) acquire and institutionalize cultural knowledge, and (5) adapt to diversity and the cultural contexts of the communities they serve; and incorporate this capacity in all aspects of policy making, administration, practice, and service delivery, as well as systematically involve consumers, key stakeholders, and communities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The nurse is called to make an unscheduled visit to a new client in her home. The purpose of the visit is to admit the client and treat an abdominal wound. The nurse discovers that the client is from a culture unfamiliar to her. In this situation, the nurse should demonstrate cultural competence and awareness by: (Select all that apply.)

A)Being open to the client’s ideas and way of life
B)Obtaining objective data when caring for the client
C)Exhibiting respect and patience
D)Being aware of your own culture
E)Assuming that you have enough knowledge to get by

A

A,C,D ( being open to the client’s ideas and way of life, exhibiting respect and patience, being aware of your own culture)
rationale:
Although the nurse will not be fluent in all cultures at all times, certain principles will make him or her a more culturally competent nurse: openness to others’ ideas and ways of life, respect, curiosity, patience, and self-awareness of one’s own culture and culturally mediated ideas, as well as the humility to know that one can always learn more about a certain client’s culture and that person as an individual. Obtaining objective data about the client will not help the nurse demonstrate cultural competence and awareness. The nurse should not assume that he or she has enough knowledge but should be willing to learn more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(LEARNED IN CLASS)

During a conference after rounds, a nurse states, “They are in the United States now; you would think that they would act like us.” This nurse is exhibiting:

A)Cultural humility
B)Ethnocentrism
C)Cultural competence
D)Cross-cultural nursing

A

B (ethnocentrism)
rationale:
Ethnocentrism refers to the tendency of people to view their way of doing things and their culture as superior to the cultures and ways of others. Cultural humility requires community health nurses to continually self-evaluate and critique their own cultural assumptions and advocate for their clients in a non paternalistic way. In nursing, cultural competence means considering cultural aspects of health, illness, and treatment for each client or community, as well as doing so at each stage of the nursing process. Cross-cultural nursing is any nursing work in which the nurse and client have different cultures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During an ice storm, people in one neighborhood banded together and shared the home of a neighbor who still had power and heat. Other neighbors provided food, water, and bedding. In another neighborhood, the neighbors did not know one another and weathered the storm alone. Both neighborhoods are part of the same community. What characteristic did the people in the first neighborhood share that made them a subculture that those in the second neighborhood lacked?

A)Belief in the value of the cooperation
B)Religion
C)Socioeconomic status
D)Geography

A

A (belief in the value of the cooperation)
rationale:
A subculture may be large or small, clustered together or scattered, but its members share some cultural facets such as experience, belief, language (or lingo), practices, and values. The only common characteristic that the neighbors in the first neighborhood had with each other that the neighbors in the second neighborhood lacked was a belief in the value of cooperating with one another during the storm. There is no indication that they were of the same religion or socioeconomic status. People in both neighborhoods have geography as a common characteristic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The nurse enters a client’s home to provide care to a wound and teach the client’s wife how to care for the wound. The nurse is comfortable with the client’s culture and the fact that it is matriarchal in nature. As teaching begins, the husband interrupts and states that the woman does not change bandages according to his culture. He asks if the nurse is familiar with his culture and then says that all members of his neighborhood follow its principles. The nurse should suspect that the client is a member of:

A)A cult
B)An orthodox religious group
C)A subculture
D)An occupation

A

C (subculture)
rationale:
Just as any group of people from a certain place may share a culture, any group of people who share a certain characteristic can share a smaller culture, or subculture. In this situation, although the nurse is familiar with the culture of the client and her husband, it is apparent that they also belong to a subculture that the nurse is unfamiliar with. There is no indication that the client and her husband are members of a cult, orthodox religious group, or certain occupations, all of which are types of subcultures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

To demonstrate true cultural sensitivity and awareness, the nurse must:

A)Travel to other countries on the occasion
B)Become bilingual
C)Be competent in his or her own cultural heritage
D)Know the practices of all major cultures in one’s region of the country

A

C ( being competent in his or her own cultural heritage)
rationale:
The first imperative of cultural competence is to be competent in one’s own cultural heritage. International travel, being bilingual and knowing practices of major cultures are all helpful, but not as important as being competent in one’s own cultural heritage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A client, diagnosed with hypertension, is prescribed a no-added-salt, low-fat diet. He agrees and repeats the teaching principles. At the next visit, the nurse notices salted meat on the counter and the client shows the nurse his food diary. The diet in the past week does not reflect the physician’s orders. What cultural component may have contributed to the noncompliance with the diet order?

A)Diet may be too lean
B)The wife cooks according to the husband’s preferences
C)Diet may not meet the cultural criteria for food choices
D)Food tastes bland and unappetizing

A

C (diet may not meet the cultural criteria for food choices)
rationale: What and how people eat varies tremendously among cultures, the understanding of which is crucial to good nursing care. A nurse educating a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes or hyperlipidemia about dietary restrictions will be much more effective if he or she chooses examples that resonate with that particular client. Although the diet could be too lean or bland and unappetizing or the wife might cook according to the husband’s preferences, these are not cultural components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the universal features of all cultures, what they believe is called?

A

values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the rules by which human behavior is governed and result from the cultural values held by the group?

A

norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Every culture that has what is shared by the majority?

A

dominant value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are groups in a culture that share different values than the majority called?

A

sub-culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the organizational elements (components) of culture?

A
  • child-rearing practices
  • family-basic social unit in a culture
  • religious practices
  • space
  • communication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does culture influence?

A

How a person perceives and evaluates the world, and behaves in that world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Culture is influenced by what?

A

Education, income, and other shared socioeconomic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(on-slide)
The ability of nurses to recognize their own cultural abilities and perspectives and how this influences your interaction with the client is for a nurse to have?

A

cultural competence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the foundations to competent care?

A

Self-awareness (any healthcare worker must have this)

Humility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Culturally competent nursing requires that the nurse understands…

A
  • Their own cultural perspective (self-awareness)
  • The culture of institutions that influence the health and well-being of communities
  • Lifestyle, value systems, and health/illness behaviors of diverse people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the four principles to culturally competent care?

A

Care is:

  • Specific to the client
  • Unique to their norms/values
  • Includes self-empowerment strategies to facilitate client decision making in health behaviors
  • Provided with sensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(ON-SLIDES)

What are the BARRIERS of developing cultural competence?

A
Stereotyping
Prejudice
Racism
Ethnocentrism
Cultural Blindness
Cultural Imposition
Cultural Conflict
Cultural Shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Leininger’s Theory of Cultural Care (Sunrise model)

A

Helps us think about cultures in a respectful way and shows us how to use knowledge to provide to provide culturally competent care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(ON SLIDES)

Race relates to a persons?

A

physical characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(ON SLIDES)

race, religion, and national origin are part of?

A

ethnicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(ON SLIDES))

the nurse can support the use of cultural practices in health care when the practice does not have a harmful effect is called what type of accommodation?

A

cultural accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

is a form of prejudice where individuals feel they have power over a group based on skin color or other physical characteristics?

A

racism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

is an emotional reaction of beliefs about a group. An individual is pre-judged to have negative traits?

A

prejudice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is assigning particular beliefs about an individual or group without recognizing individual differences called what?

A

stereotyping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is a belief that ones own culture determines the standards by which everyone should be judged?

A

Ethnocentrism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is it called when a person does not see differences between their culture and others?

A

Cultural blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

a person imposes their cultural beliefs on a person of another culture is called?

A

Cultural imposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

(IMPORTANT)

What is the role of the nurse in a comprehensive cultural assessment of the culture include?

A
  • Values, beliefs and attitudes regarding health, illness, birth, death and health care providers
  • Nutritional assessment
  • Socioeconomic assessment
  • Developmental considerations-child-bearing and child-rearing practices, care of older adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are resources (FEDERAL) for minority health?

A
  1. US Department of Health and Human Services
    - Office of Minority Health-coordinates federal efforts to improve the health status of racial and ethnic minorities
  2. -Indian Health Services provides health services to Native Americans and Alaska Natives. Works with this population to establish goals. Tribes actively involved with health care services
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the four characteristics of a culture?

A
  1. they are learned from birth
  2. shared by all members of the cultural group
  3. adapted to specific conditions related to the environment, technical factors and available resources
  4. Culture is dynamic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who is considered the first epidemiologist?

A)Hippocrates of Cos
B)Aretaeus the Cappadocian
C)Claudius Galen
D)Susruta

A

A (hippocrates of Cos)
rationale:
Hippocrates of Cos was the first to record the relationship of the external environment to the health of individuals and is considered the first epidemiologist. Aretaeus the Cappadocian described pulmonary tuberculosis in detail. Claudius Galen described the four humors, introduced many drugs derived from plants, and was the first to describe smallpox. Susruta was a Brahmin physician who associated malaria with the mosquito.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which occurs in the epidemiologic process that is similar to the diagnosis phase of the nursing process?

A)Data are gathered from reliable sources
B)Healthcare needs and assets are identified
C)Goals and objectives for care are established
D)A tentative hypothesis is formulated

A

D (a tentative hypothesis is formulated)
rationale:
During the diagnosis phase of the epidemiologic process, a tentative hypothesis is formulated. During the assessment phase of the epidemiologic process, data are gathered from reliable sources. During the diagnosis phase of the nursing process, healthcare needs and assets are identified and goals and objectives for care are established.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which most accurately describes how disease patterns have changed from 1900 to the present?

A)Morbidity and mortality from infectious diseases have increased.
B)Morbidity and mortality from unintentional injuries have decreased.
C)Morbidity and mortality from chronic degenerative conditions have decreased.
D)Morbidity and mortality from noninfectious diseases have increased.

A

D (morbidity and mortality from noninfectious diseases have increased)
rationale:
Primarily as a result of improved public health practices in the early 20th century, life expectancy in the United States, the United Kingdom, and European countries, as well as in other developed countries, rose. With it, a change in the patterns of disease occurred. No longer are infectious diseases the leading causes of death; the morbidity and mortality from noninfectious diseases and chronic degenerative conditions have increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The community health nurse knows that early attempts to understand illness and disease-focused on the study of the experiences of individual people. Using this knowledge, how would the nurse define epidemiology to a group of nursing students?

A)An outbreak that occurs when there is an increased incidence of a disease beyond that which is normally found in the population
B)Model based on the belief that health status is determined by the interaction of the characteristics of the host, agent, and environment
C)Study of the distribution and determinants of states of health and illness in human populations
D)Epidemiologic model that strongly emphasizes the concept of multiple causations while de-emphasizing the role of agents in explaining illness

A

C (Study of the distribution and determinants of states of health and illness in human populations)
rationale:
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of states of health and illness in human populations. An epidemic is an outbreak that occurs when there is an increased incidence of a disease beyond that which is normally found in the population. The epidemiologic triad is a model based on the belief that health status is determined by the interaction of the characteristics of the host, agent, and environment. The web of causation is an epidemiologic model that strongly emphasizes the concept of multiple causations while de-emphasizing the role of agents in explaining illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which most accurately defines “rate”?

A)Course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution
B)Primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness
C)Probability or likelihood that a disease or illness will occur in a group of people who presently do not have the problem
D)Characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop

A

B (Primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness)
Rate is the primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness. Natural history is the course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution. Risk is the probability or likelihood that a disease or illness will occur in a group of people who presently do not have the problem. A risk factor is a characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In researching cases of West Nile virus in the community, the nurse explores how the interactions among people infected with this virus, mosquitoes, and the environment they share contribute to outbreaks of this disease. Which epidemiologic model is used in this case?

A)Epidemiologic triad
B)Wheel of causation
C)Web of causation
D)Natural history

A

A (Epidemiologic triad)
rationale:
The epidemiologic triad is the classic model based on the belief that health status is determined by the interaction of the characteristics of the host, agent, and environment, not by any single factor. The wheel of causation de-emphasizes the agent as the sole cause of disease while emphasizing the interplay of physical, biological, and social environments. The web of causation is an epidemiologic model that strongly emphasizes the concept of multiple causation while de-emphasizing the role of agents in explaining illness. Natural history is the course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The nurse explores all of the possible factors that contribute to coronary artery disease in the community as links in multiple interrelated chains. Which epidemiologic models is the nurse using?

A)Epidemiologic triad
B)Wheel of causation
C)Web of causation
D)Natural history

A

C (Web of causation)
rationale:
The web of causation is an epidemiologic model that strongly emphasizes the concept of multiple causation while de-emphasizing the role of agents in explaining illness. The epidemiologic triad is the classic model based on the belief that health status is determined by the interaction of the characteristics of the host, agent, and environment, not by any single factor. The wheel of causation de-emphasizes the agent as the sole cause of disease while emphasizing the interplay of physical, biological, and social environments. Natural history is the course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which occurs in the epidemiologic process that is similar to the implementation phase of the nursing process?

A)Data are gathered from reliable sources
B)Actions are initiated to carry out the plan
C)Actions are evaluated and report prepared
D)Further research is conducted if necessary

A

B (Actions are initiated to carry out the plan)
rationale:
During the implementation phase of the epidemiologic process, actions are initiated to implement the plan. During the assessment phase of the epidemiologic process, data are gathered from reliable sources. During the evaluation phase of the epidemiologic process, actions are evaluated, a report is prepared, and further research is conducted if necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which best describes a risk factor?

A)Course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution
B)Primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness
C)Probability or likelihood that a disease or illness will occur in a group of people who presently do not have the problem
D)Characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop

A

D (Characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop)
rationale:
A risk factor is a characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop. An outbreak is a course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution. Rate is a primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness. Risk is the probability or likelihood that a disease or illness will occur in a group of people who presently do not have the problem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In researching an outbreak of malaria in the developing nation where the nurse currently works, the nurse decides to not focus on the role of mosquitoes in transmitting the disease but on how the physical environment of the community, biological aspects of the community, and social customs interact to affect the prevalence of this disease. Which epidemiological model is the nurse using?

A)Epidemiologic triad
B)Wheel of causation
C)Web of causation
D)Natural history

A

B ( wheel of causation)
rationale:
The wheel of causation de-emphasizes the agent as the sole cause of disease while emphasizing the interplay of physical, biological, and social environments. The epidemiologic triad is the classic model based on the belief that health status is determined by the interaction of the characteristics of the host, agent, and environment, not by any single factor. The web of causation is an epidemiologic model that strongly emphasizes the concept of multiple causation while de-emphasizing the role of agents in explaining illness. Natural history is the course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

epidemiology covers?

A
  • Infectious and chronic disease
  • Mental health
  • Accidents and injuries
  • Occupational and environmental exposures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The study of the distribution and determination of health and disease in human populations. The principle science of public health. Used to promote health and reduce risks?

A

Epidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Person-Place-Time Model

A
  • Person: “Who” factors such as demographic characteristics and health and disease statistics
  • Place: “Where” factors such as geographic location, climate and environmental conditions, and political and social environment
  • Time: “When” factors such as time of day, week, or month and secular trends over months and years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Epidemiological triad (triangle) consists of?

A

Host, environment, and agent

  • not for chronic diseases
  • alterations in any of these disrupts the communicable disease process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Host factors of the epidemiological triad are? Intrinsic Factors (Susceptibility, or Response to Agent)

A

Influence exposure, susceptibility, or response to agent

include: Genetics
- Age
- Gender- male or female
- Ethnic group- certain conditions are more prevalent in specific ethnic groups
- Physiological state- rest, exercise
- Prior immunological experience- have you been vaccinated and it relates to your immune system (active or passive)
- Preexisting disease- having other chronic diseases that put them at risk further
- Human behavior- drinking, drugs, unsafe sex, poor diet, poor exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Agent of Disease (Etiologic Factors)?

A
  • Nutritive elements (excesses, deficiencies)
  • Chemical agents (Poisons, allergens)
  • Physical agents (Ionizing radiation, mechanical)
  • Infectious agents (metazoa, protozoa, bacteria, fungi, rickettsia, viruses)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
Environmental Factors (Influence Existence of the Agent, Exposure, or Susceptibility to Agent) in the triad? 
(Extrinsic factors)
A

influence existence of the agent, exposure, or susceptibility to agent. This includes…1. Physical environment-climate, noise, radiation

  1. Biological environment-population density, food, water, flora, fauna
  2. Socioeconomic environment-occupations, exposure to chemicals , economic environment, urbanization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Descriptive epidemiology

A
  • Study of the amount and distribution of disease
  • Used by public health professionals
  • Identified patterns frequently indicate possible causes of disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Analytic Epidemiology

A
  • Examine complex relationships among the many determinants of disease
  • Investigation of the causes of disease, or etiology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Wheel Model of Human-Environment Interaction

A

In the middle: Host (human); this is the genetic core

-Surrounding that in the wheel is Biological environment, social environment, and physical environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Web of Causation

A

many different things lead up to the final outcome

  • ex:illustrates the complexity of relationships among causal variables for heart disease
  • these factors can be modified which will alter the final outcome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are rates?

A

arithmetic expressions that help practitioners consider a count of an event relative to the size of the population from which it is extracted
-calculating rates–> measures the frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Epidemiologic Process

A
  1. Define a case-who, where and when
  2. Calculate rates-measures frequency
  3. Establish causality-why and how
  4. Screening-reliability of methods-must have referrals & follow-up. Yield of screening= number of true positive relative to all positive results.
  5. The surveillance-continuous process to identify trends in disease and risks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are 2 types of Observational Methods-No interventions or treatment is used?

A
  1. Descriptive Epidemiology
    Information is collected to characterize a health problem. Provides the foundation for the development of hypotheses testing.
  2. Analytic Epidemiology
    Investigates the causes of disease by determining why a disease rate is lower in one population group than in another. Comparisons between groups are made to determine the role of risk factors causing a disease or health problem. Examine causality.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of studies are these?
1. Cross-Sectional Studies-Prevalence Studies-collect data by questionnaire or interview of a cross section of the population with a disease or risk factor. Behavior Risk Factor Survey (just to collect the data)
2. Retrospective/Case Control Study-goes back in time. One group has disease, other group does not have the disease. Groups compared for risk factors. (medical records could be lost, subject recall may be a problem)
3. Prospective Studies-Longitudinal Studies-follows disease free people over long period-examines causality.
(cause and effect) -this is the best techniques going forward in time

A

Observational studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What type of studies are these?

  1. True experiments have an experimental and control group.
  2. Subjects are randomly assigned to the experimental group or control group.
  3. The experimental group receives a treatment and the control group does not receive a treatment.
  4. Mainly used to test medications or other treatments.
A

Interventional-Experimental studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The public health nurse is preparing to participate in a descriptive epidemiology study. Which statement best describes descriptive epidemiology?

a. The study seeks to answer questions about the cure for a disease
b. The study seeks to answer questions about the distribution of disease in a population
c. The study seeks to answer questions about the cause of a disease

A

b

The study seeks to answer questions about the distribution of disease in a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What do incidence rates describe?

A

the occurrence of new cases of a disease or condition in a community over a period of time relative to the size of the population at risk for that disease or condition during that same time period.describe the occurrence of new cases of a disease or condition in a community over a period of time relative to the size of the population at risk for that disease or condition during that same period of time. Only new cases that occur in the designated time
are counted. Researcher needs to determine the time of onset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What do attack rates document?

A

the number of new cases of a disease in those exposed to the disease (ex. food poisoning; denominator is the number of people exposed to a suspect food, and the numerator is the number of people who were exposed and became ill.
-Usually specific to an exposure, e.g. food poisoning or a communicable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Prevalence

A

the number of all cases of a specific disease or condition in a population at a given point in time. Cases include old and new cases that develops within the same time period. Prevalence rates are higher with chronic diseases because cases remain in populations for long
periods of time
* new or old cases the population ( all cases) regards to chronic disease, COPD, HTN, heart disease–> only time you come out of it is when you die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Mortality rate

A

-measure of death rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Establishing Causality includes: (select all that apply)

a. Strength of association-rates of morbidity and mortality must be higher in the exposed group than in the non-exposed group.
b. Dose-response relationship-an increased exposure to the risk factor causes a concomitant increase in disease rate.
c. Temporally correct relationship-exposure to the causal factor must occur before the disease
d. Biological plausibility-data must explain the relationship e.g.cigarette smoking increases the risk of lung cancer
e. Consistency with other studies-various studies in other populations must show similar results.

A

a, b, c, d, e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Classification of infectious diseases include which of the following (select all that apply):

a. endemic-occurrence of an infectious disease at a consistent, expected level in a geographic area, e.g. influenza
b. outbreak-unexpected occurrence of an infectious disease in a limited geographic area, during a limited period of time
c. pandemic-a steady occurrence of disease over a large geographic area e.g. worldwide
d. epidemic-unexpected increase of an infectious disease in a geographic area over an extended period of time

A

a, b, c, d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

unexpected increase of an infectious disease in a geographic area over an extended period of time is called?

A

epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

a steady occurrence of disease over a large geographic area e.g. worldwide is called?

A

pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

occurrence of an infectious disease at a consistent, expected level in a geographic area, e.g. influenza is called?

A

endemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Those who survive a chronic disease without cure remain in the:

A

prevalence pot which is The relationship between incidence and prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

risk refers to the?

A

the probability of an adverse event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Primary prevention:

A

when interventions occur before disease development

-Includes health promotion and specific prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

secondary prevention

A

occurs after pathogenesis; screening and physical examinations that are aimed at early diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

tertiary prevention

A

focuses on limitation of disability and the rehabilitation of those with irreversible diseases such as diabetes and spinal cord injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Why is it important to identify causality of disease?

A

to encourage the most effective prevention activities and develop treatment modalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are cross-sectional studies also called?

A

Prevalence or correlational studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Why are observational studies used?

A
  • Descriptive purposes
  • Etiology of disease
  • No manipulation by investigator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Why is it impossible for a cross-sectional study to make causal inferences?

A

because the study cannot establish the temporal sequence of events (i.e., the cause preceded the effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The nurse works with a female client who recently developed an infection of Staphylococcus aureus while in the hospital. In this case, S. aureus is which component in the chain of infection?

A)Host
B)Environmental reservoir
C)Agent
D)Portal

A

C (agent)
rationale:
The agent, or the microbe that causes the disease, is the “what” of the epidemiologic triangle. The host, or the organism that is harboring the infectious agent, is the “who” of the triangle. The environment, which includes those external factors that cause or allow disease transmission, is the “where” of the triangle. Other necessary elements include a portal of exit from the host, environmental reservoirs, transmission, and a portal of entry to a new host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A student nurse asks if an infectious disease is the same thing as a communicable disease. The nurse explains that an infectious disease is not necessarily a communicable disease. Which must a communicable disease have that an infectious disease does not have to have? (Select all that apply.)

A)Pathogenic microorganism
B)Portal of exit from the infected person
C)Means of transmission
D)Portal of entry to a susceptible host
E)Organism that harbors the infectious agent

A

B,c,d
rationale:
An infectious disease in a human host is one caused by the growth of pathogenic microorganisms in the body. For a disease to be communicable, or contagious, there must be a portal of exit from the infected person (or animal), a means of transmission, and a portal of entry to a susceptible host. Thus, an infectious disease need not be contagious, or communicable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Infectious agents are biological agents capable of producing an infection or infectious disease. Which are considered biological agents? (Select all that apply.)

A)Fungi
B)Fomites
C)Bacteria
D)Viruses
E)Helminths
A

A,C,D,E
rationale:
Infectious agents are biological agents capable of producing an infection or infectious disease and include bacteria, viruses, rickettsiae, fungi, protozoa, and helminths. Fomites are any substance that adheres to and transmits infectious materials. An infectious disease need not be contagious or communicable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

In infectious disease epidemiology, just the presence of an infectious agent is not sufficient to produce an infectious disease. Which host factors determine whether a person is at risk for an infection or an infectious disease? (Select all that apply.)

A)Age
B)Sex
C)Occupation
D)Physical and emotional health
E)Immune status
A

A,B,D,E
rationale:
There are several host factors that determine whether a person is at risk for an infection or an infectious disease. These include age, sex, race, physical and emotional health, and immune status. Occupation is not a host factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When an infectious agent enters the host and begins to multiply, an infection occurs. The time between exposure to an infectious agent and the manifestation of symptoms in the host is known as:

A)Carrier time
B)Colonization
C)Incubation period
D)Latent period

A

C (incubation period)
rationale:
The time between exposure to an infectious agent and the manifestation of symptoms in the host is called the incubation period. Asymptomatic people are carriers of a virus and can transmit the virus to others through percutaneous inoculation, exposure to mucous membranes, and sexual contact. When an infectious agent is present and there are no clinical signs of disease, colonization with the infectious agent is said to have occurred, and the infected person is capable of transmitting the agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The latent period is the stage of a disease during which symptoms are?

A

hidden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

A client with tuberculosis sneezes in the waiting room and infects several other clients who are sitting on the other side of the room. Which mechanism of transmission is involved in this case?

A)Airborne
B)Droplet
C)Direct contact
D)Indirect contact

A

A (airborne)
rationale:
Airborne transmission occurs when microorganisms are carried in the air in small particles, called droplet nuclei, at distances that exceed a few feet. Droplet transmission theoretically is a form of contact transmission; the mechanism of transfer of the pathogen to the host is quite distinct from either direct or indirect transmission. Therefore, droplet transmission is considered a separate route of transmission. Droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Direct contact occurs through?

A

direct body surface–to–body surface contact and physical transfer of microorganisms between a susceptible host and an infected or colonized person (or animal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what type of contact involves contact of a susceptible host with a contaminated intermediate inanimate object, called a vehicle, such as a contaminated surgical instrument, needle, toy, soiled clothing, or bed linen?

A

indirect contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

are generated from the source person primarily during coughing, sneezing, or talking and are propelled a short distance (<3 feet) through the air and deposited on the conjunctivae, nasal mucosa, or mouth of another person. ?

A

droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The student-nurse discusses transmission that involves contact of a susceptible host with a vehicle. Based on the chain of infection links, which exemplifies a vehicle?

A)Animals
B)Insects
C)Reptiles
D)Water

A

D (water)
rationale:
Indirect contact involves contact of a susceptible host with a contaminated intermediate inanimate object, called a vehicle, such as a contaminated surgical instrument, needle, toy, soiled clothing, or bed linen. Vehicles also include food, water, and contaminated hands that are not washed. Indirect contact also includes vector transmission. Vectors are animal or insect carriers of infectious agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Chloroquine-resistant malaria occurs in most of Africa, the Middle East, and Asia and all of the South Pacific islands. This type of disease occurrence is known as:

A)Endemic
B)Epidemic
C)Pandemic
D)Outbreak

A

A (endemic) ( a normal occurence)
rationale:
An endemic disease, infection, or infectious agent occurs when it becomes prevalent within a population or geographic area. The use of “outbreak” in this text is synonymous with epidemic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

is an epidemic that generally spreads worldwide?

A

pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

refers to a significant increase in an infection or infectious disease beyond the expected (endemic) level in a certain population and/or geographic area?

A

epidemic or outbreak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Person, place, and time characterize the description of an epidemiologic problem. Using knowledge of outbreak investigations, which occurs with propagated outbreaks?

A)Same person or vehicle as the reservoir or means of transmission
B)Infection transmitted from person to person over a short period of time
C)Generating secondary infections with intervals between peaks that approximate the usual incubation period for the infection
D)Generating tertiary infections following exposure to a primary case

A

C (generating secondary infections)
rationale:
A propagated outbreak is one where the infection is transmitted from person to person over a longer period of time than with a common source outbreak, and it can generate secondary infections with intervals between peaks that approximate the usual incubation period for the infection. A common source outbreak is one that has the same origin. Secondary infections are those that occur within the accepted incubation period following exposure to a primary case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Several levels of public health surveillance are necessary to protect the nation’s health. At what level are healthcare providers and health facilities required to report certain infectious diseases?

A)Local
B)State
C)Federal
D)International

A

B (state)
rationale:
Local reporting mechanisms are community specific. At the state level, healthcare providers and health facilities are required to report certain infectious diseases to state health departments. At the federal level, the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) is the US public health infrastructure that develops policies to protect the nation’s health. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) also is a partner with the World Health Organization (WHO) through the Global Outbreak Alert and Response Network and the WHO Surveillance and Response system, which provide international epidemic alerts and responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which agency has an electronic surveillance system for the early notification of community-based epidemics?

A)Department of Health and Human Services
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C)World Health Organization
D)Department of Defense

A

D (department of defense)
rationale: The Department of Defense (DoD) has an electronic surveillance system for the early notification of community-based epidemics (ESSENCE), which has been in operation since 2001 to detect infectious disease outbreaks. At the federal level, the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) is the U.S. public health infrastructure that develops policies to protect the nation’s health. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is a major DHHS agency that protects the nation’s health by developing guidelines that promote health and quality of life by preventing and controlling disease, injury, and disability. The CDC is also a partner with the World Health Organization (WHO) through the Global Outbreak Alert and Response Network and the WHO Surveillance and Response system, which provide international epidemic alerts and responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

refer to the pathophysiological responses of the host to the infectious agent, manifesting as an illness . Infection is the entry & multiplication of an agent in the host is?

A

infectious disease and comunicable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

emphasizes that an infectious agent alone is not sufficient to cause disease—the agent must be transmitted in the environment to a susceptible host is called?

A

multicausation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the stages/periods of infection (LCIA)?

A

latent, communicable, incubation, active illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which stage/period of infection is when replication before shedding occurs?

A

Latent period (infectious period, your invaded) , fatigue and weakness

109
Q

What stage or period is when the illness begins with the shedding of the virus?

A

Communicable period (coughing sneezing agent)

110
Q

What is the name of the stage/period that is the time between invasions and symptoms and may overlap with the communicable period?

A

incubation period (times change)

111
Q

carriers of illness are referred to as?

A

the person that has the infectious agent and can transfer to others without the symptoms
ex: typhoid and COVID(they never get sick and they are considered the super spreaders)

112
Q

an unexpected occurrence of an infectious disease in a limited area during a limited time is called?

A

an outbreak

113
Q

What are factors in the Chain of Transmission?

A
  1. Infectious agents
  2. Reservoirs (humans, animals, vectors, water, soil, insects) –> where is it lets eliminate it
  3. Portals of exit and entry (mucous membranes, skin, cuts)–> you want to cover the areas
  4. Modes of transmission (direct or indirect)
    Direct, indirect, fecal-oral, airborne
  5. Host susceptibility –immune system, immunization status, personal behaviors
114
Q

Breaking the chain of transmission

A
Controlling the agent 
Eradicating the nonhuman reservoir 
Controlling the human reservoir 
Controlling the portals of exit and entry 
Improving host resistance and immunity
115
Q

Public Health Control of Infectious Diseases

A
  1. Control –>The reduction of incidence or prevalence of a given disease to a locally acceptable level as a result of deliberate efforts
    2.Elimination–>Controlling a disease within a specified geographical area and reducing the prevalence and incidence to near zero
    *The result of deliberate efforts, but continued intervention measures are required
  2. Eradication–> Reducing the worldwide incidence of a disease to zero as a function of deliberate efforts
    No need for further control measures
    Only possible under certain conditions
    *Smallpox was eradicated in 1977, and the virus now exists only in storage in laboratories.
116
Q

Live or attenuated vaccines

A

small amount of antigen to stimulate the immune system e.g. MMR-active immunity

117
Q

Inactivated vaccine examples

A

flu, hep A, typhoid (get every year)

118
Q

passive immunity

A

immunoglobulins, natural immunity (provides antibodies and help get you through the period you get sick)
-protects you and is inactive

119
Q

Herd immunity

A

if a certain percentage of the population is vaccinated then there will be herd immunity to others that are not vaccinated due to the majority of the population that are vaccinated

120
Q

vaccine failure types?

A
  1. Primary-vaccine does not stimulate immune system and to produce antibodies–> vaccine not stored under proper condition
  2. Secondary-decreasing strength of immunity after initial response (you would get titer done to see if you are immune)
121
Q

Key things to remember with immunizations?

A
  1. Cold chain
  2. Vaccine spacing- how far apart
  3. Routes of administration- IM is preferred
  4. Hypersensitivity and contraindications- give vaccine statement prior and includes the preservatives in them
    - Flu vaccine– people with an egg sensitivity contraindicated
    - Pregnant women- do not get MMR
    - people on chemo- do not get live vaccine
  5. Documentation- will include who gave it, Lot #, how it is given, manufacturer
  6. Vaccine safety and reporting-Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System, National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (report to the FDA and CDC, but 1st report it to the place that gave it) and if it is severe it will be investigated
  7. V-SAFE-App to report adverse reaction to COVID-19 vaccine. Installed on smart phone after 1st dose
  8. Vaccine needs for special groups –> most at risk and with chronic diseases
122
Q

Healthy People 2020 major objectives are:

A
  • Immunization & Infectious Disease
  • Sexually Transmitted Diseases
  • HIV
123
Q

What level of prevention does these:

  • Control the agent
  • Eradicate the nonhuman reservoir
  • Control the human reservoir
  • Control the portals of exit and entry (masks, PPE, handwashing)
  • Improve host resistance and immunity
  • education on medication that needs to be taken
A

primary prevention–>Activities targeted at intervening before the agent enters the host and causes pathological changes

124
Q

What level of prevention covers:

  • Report infectious diseases ( every state has this)
  • Investigate contacts
  • Notify partners
  • Find new cases
  • Isolate cases
A

secondary prevention –>Targeted at detecting disease at the earliest possible time to begin treatment, stop progression, and initiate primary prevention activities to protect others in the community.

125
Q

What level of prevention includes:

  • Ensure person takes antibiotics and antivirals effectively
  • Ensure that caregivers know how to protect themselves and the environment
A

tertiary prevention –>Limits the progression of disability.

126
Q

Acquired Immunity

A

Previous exposure or illness from agent or vaccination;

vaccination= artificial immunity

127
Q

Active humoral immunity

A

B-Lymphocyte response resulting in immunity that lasts for several years with diseases such as tetanus or a lifetime with diseases such as measles or mumps.

128
Q

Passive Immunity

A

transplacental transfer of mother’s immunity to unborn child or immunity passed on from someone else

129
Q

Types of Food-Borne Diseases

A

Campylobacteriosis
Listeriosis
Salmonellosis
Ecoli

130
Q

Vector-Borne disease types

A

-some form of living organism, usually an animal or an arthropod.
-“animal, particularly an insect, that transmits a disease-producing organism from a host to a non-infected animal”
Examples:
lymes disease
malaria
west nile virus

131
Q

Types of zoonosis disease (animal disease that is transmitted to humans)

A

Hantavirus
Avian Flu
Rabies

132
Q

Types of parasitic diseases

A

Helminths (pinworm, roundworm, tapworm)

protozoans (giardiasis, crypto)

133
Q

3 Key factors in the control of communicable disease

A
  1. The removal, elimination, or containment of the cause or source of infection.
  2. The disruption and blockage of the chain of disease transmission.
  3. The protection of the susceptible population from infection and disease.
134
Q

Healthcare-Associated Infections

A

Also known as nosocomial infections, are acquired by patients while being treated for other conditions in a healthcare setting.

135
Q

Bioterrorism 3 categories

A

Category A: Highest risk easily spread or transmitted from person to person and result in high death rates.
Category B: Moderately east to spread, result in moderate illness and low death rates.
Category C: Easily available, easily produced and spread, and have the potential for high morbidity and mortality rates and major public impact.

136
Q

Goals of Health Education. Health education enables the client to:

A
  • Attain optimal health
  • Prevent health problems
  • Identify and treat health problems early
  • Minimize disability
  • Outcome of health education-behavioral changes in the client
137
Q

What type of theory does all of this:

  • Helps an individual develop his/her potential in a self-directed and holistic manner.
  • Describes the influence that feelings, emotions and personal relationships have on behavior. Encourages self-expression.
  • Person needs to be aware of their values.
  • Educator would help learners develop the program.
A

humanistic theory

Utilizes influential effects of feelings, emotions, relationships on behavior

138
Q

What is the theory that is the:

  • Belief is that by changing thought patterns and providing information, the learner’s behavior will change.
  • Increases a person’s knowledge by increasing the person’s ability to think, learn and solve problems
A

Cognitive theory
(Rudimentary cognition is required
Changes behavior by providing information & changing thought patterns)

139
Q

Social learning theory

A

Learning is enhanced through the concepts of efficacy, outcome expectations and incentives.
Educator can use this theory to change behaviors by enabling person to change either their expectations about a value or their ability to achieve the desired outcome.
* Learning is based on behavior. Combines cognitive theory with behaviorism e.g. stimulus-response conditioning.
-“monkey see monkey do”

Behavior is a function of expectations and beliefs:

Considers self-efficacy

  • Confidence
  • Knowledge and skill
140
Q

WHAT IS THE THEORY THAT INCLUDES:

  • Learning occurs with the developmental stages from infancy to old age.
  • Readiness to learn depends on each person’s developmental stage. Learning occurs differently in each developmental period.
A

developmental theory

141
Q

What 3 levels of learning ?

A

Cognitive, affective, psychomotor

142
Q

Cognitive Domain

A
Levels of cognition:
-Knowledge-recall information
-Comprehension-understand information
-Application-use information
-Analysis-break information into separate parts
-Synthesis-put parts back together to understand the total message
-Need to assess the cognitive ability of the learner
EXAMPLES: 
Recall/Memory
Comprehension 
Application 
Analysis
Synthesis
Evaluation
143
Q

Affective domain

A
  • Learning focused on changing person’s attitudes, beliefs and values.
  • Learner adapts behaviors of a new value system.
  • People need support to make changes and reinforce new behaviors. Individual support or support groups.
144
Q

psychomotor domain

A
  • Includes performance of skills-requires neuromuscular coordination
  • Need to allow time for practice of a new skill
  • Nurse needs to assess client’s intellectual and physical ability to perform a skill
145
Q

Characteristics that impact learning

A

Adults must know why they need to learn
Adults want to be self-directed
Readiness to learn
Orientation to learning
Life experience-connect previous experience to present learning
Motivation-assess for barriers to motivation

146
Q

Concepts of Community Organization and Education

A

Empowerment/problem solving skills
Community competence/achieve goals through collaboration
Issue selection/problems meaningful & attainable to the community. Let community members define learning needs
Encourage active participation of group

147
Q

Nurse’s Role in Health Education

A

Establish therapeutic relationship with group-begins with establishing trust
Enhance communication-establish a positive learning environment
Become culturally competent-using experts in a culture is highly effective

148
Q

Framework for Developing Health Communications

A

Planning and Strategy Development-identify goals, design program to meet groups needs and plan method of evaluation. Priority for effective programs
Developing and Pre-Testing Concepts, Messages and Materials
Implementing the Program
Assessing Effectiveness & Making RevisionsWork with *target group when planning-get group involved in development of program.

149
Q

Characteristics of An Effective Educator

A

Send a clear message
Select the appropriate learning format
Create the best learning environment-present information from simple to complex
Inform the learner of the objectives
Stimulate recall of previous learning-connect to new knowledge
Elicit and assess performance
Assist in the transfer of knowledge

150
Q

BARRIERS TO LEARNING

A

Literacy=ability to read and write at a fifth grade level in any language
Assess patient’s age, language and resources e.g. use of technology
Ask questions to verify understanding
Use plain language at the 6th grade level
Use visual aids as appropriate
Organize teaching into smaller units

Motivation-Educators Role
-Explain how instruction relates to learner’s goals
Build confidence
-Create positive expectations for success

151
Q

Identify the learning theory in the following:

Members of a senior citizen group want to develop a health promotion program. The public health nurse agrees to facilitate the group discussion and guide the group as they develop their program

A

humanistic

-helps an individual develop his or her potential in a self-directing and holistic manner.

152
Q

IDENTIFY THE LEARNING THEORY USED
The public health nurse is teaching a group of women to perform monthly breast self-exams. She provides verbal instruction and uses a video and model to demonstrate the technique. Each women is given a handout to take home that visually demonstrates the correct procedure.

A

cognitive
-recognizes the brain’s ability to think, feel, learn, and solve problems; theorists in this area train the brain to maximize these functions.

153
Q

IDENTIFY THE LEARNING THEORY USED
The nurse is helping a group of obese women lose weight. She instructs the group on selection of healthy foods and exercise. Scientific data regarding balanced nutrition and the positive effects of exercise are presented to help the group develop the expectation that decreased food intake and exercise will result in weight loss.

A

social learning
- is based on behavior explaining and enhancing learning through the concepts of efficacy, outcome expectation, and incentives.

154
Q

IDENTIFY THE LEARNING THEORY USED
The nurse is instructing a group of parents with toddlers about home safety. They are provided with methods that can be used to teach the child according to their stage of development and readiness to learn

A

developmental

155
Q

How can nurses best help expand availability of health education programs?

a. Being entrepreneurs and asking patients to pay what they think the educational program was worth
b. Suggesting to their friends and neighbors that they lobby local health organizations to provide such health education programs
c. Teaching health education programs as unpaid volunteers in the community
d. Working politically to influence public policy regarding funding health education programs

A

D
Although nurses can volunteer, join other people in requesting health education programs, or teach such programs as nurse entrepreneurs, the best way to expand the availability of such programs is to influence public policy regarding development and funding of health education programs. Although it is not clearly stated in Chapter 20 (all the answers are recommended in the text), the book as a whole emphasizes the importance of political action for more extensive influence.

156
Q

What strategies will a nurse include when planning an educational program for adults that ensures student learning?

a. Individual one-on-one tutorials to ensure maximum understanding
b. Large group lectures with handouts of main points along with culturally appropriate pictures
c. Small peer group discussions on how to apply the new knowledge with prompt feedback
d. Use of multimedia technologies such as videotapes and PowerPoint presentations

A

C
Small group discussions help adults become actively involved, often with repetition of the information as they discuss how to apply the knowledge. Individual one-on-one tutorials are extremely expensive. Large group lectures, even with handouts and pictures, still are only effective for low-level cognitive learning, not application. Table 20-1 emphasizes that adults want application of the facts and real-life context.

157
Q

In what way is the Predisposing, Reinforcing, Enabling, Causes in Educational Diagnosis, and Evaluation (PRECEDE) model helpful when health education programs are implemented?

a. It addresses the learning needs of ill individuals.
b. It begins with examining an aggregate’s general concerns and quality of life.
c. It emphasizes the learning needs of families who have an ill member.
d. It focuses primarily on environmental resources

A

B
The PRECEDE model begins with the presence or absence of health problems that are linked to quality-of-life issues, with the question “What are the general concerns of the population?” Such assessment helps ensure that the intervention is based on diagnosis of the community’s need.

158
Q

Which of the following factors most influences a client’s ability to learn from a health education program?

a. Client’s belief that the information will be useful or enjoyable
b. Handouts given to the client
c. Nurse’s ability to teach
d. Setting in which the educational program is given

A

A
Learning depends primarily on emotional readiness, which is reinforced primarily by internal motivation. The learner must be willing to put forth the effort needed to learn. Internal motivation is self-directive and long lasting and is based on the belief that the client’s action will be useful or enjoyable.

159
Q

A nurse is teaching a client how to perform her own insulin injections. Which of the following should the nurse assess first to determine the client’s experiential readiness to learn?

a. Culture and ethnic background
b. Educational ability
c. Family structure
d. Home environment

A

B
The client’s ability to learn can most easily be assessed by determining the client’s educational level. Direct questioning related to years of formal education is useful but does not always provide complete and accurate information. Reading ability and learning disabilities should also be considered.

160
Q

Behavioral objectives should be

a. Comprehensive and complete.
b. Observable, measurable, and clearly communicated.
c. Specific and detailed.
d. Written on the teaching plan.

A

B
Although all of the responses are consistent with careful planning, the plan will not be workable unless the objectives are measurable and the nurse is able to observe changes in learning, attitudes, or behavior. Because the objectives convey intent to other people, such as external evaluators, they must also be communicable. If clearly stated, the objectives can also be used for evaluation purposes.

161
Q

The nurse distributed written materials with culturally appropriate pictures to the small groups in the audience and began to lecture on the important content before the planned discussion period. However, no one was listening. What should the nurse have done differently?

a. Created a more interesting and entertaining lecture
b. Withheld the written materials until after the lecture
c. Let the audience discuss the material as a whole, not in small groups
d. Skipped the lecture and went directly to the discussion period

A

B
Wait to make group assignments and to give handouts for group activity until after you have given the final instructions; otherwise, people will be reading instead of listening to you.

162
Q

A community/public health nurse is planning an educational program about healthy choices to prevent heart disease. Which of the following variables will be the primary influence as the nurse selects content for the program?

a. Employing agency’s preferences
b. Needs of the high-risk target group
c. Third-party payers’ probable coverage of the educational program
d. What the nurse feels most comfortable and skilled in teaching

A

B
The nurse certainly must function within the constraints of the health care system, including policies of the employing agency and third-party payers; in a specific planned program, however, the actual content depends on the learning needs of the target group, as determined by a needs assessment.

163
Q

When teaching an educational program to an adult audience, which of the following actions should a nurse take to best meet their educational needs?

a. Providing a specific, detailed explanation of each component of the program
b. Using various methods of instruction, including lecture, discussion, and visual aids
c. Providing an opportunity for participants to express their feelings about the program
d. Using a PowerPoint presentation so that the audience can visualize the material

A

B
To best meet the needs of the audience, it is important to use different teaching methods so that each member of the audience can learn by his or her preferred method, whether that is hearing, reading, discussing, or another activity. Thus, the use of only a PowerPoint presentation may not meet the needs of all the members of the audience. In addition, it is helpful to include all three domains of learning, which is usually necessary to incorporate a new health behavior into the learner’s life. The best choices include opportunities for learning the material by preferred learning style, expressing feelings, and applying material, which represent the cognitive, affective, and psychomotor aspects.

164
Q

Which comment to the nurse best demonstrates a successful health education program?

a. “I’m going to take a 30-minute walk each day.”
b. “I certainly enjoyed the program, and thank you for the freebies.”
c. “You gave me so much new information; thank you so much.”
d. “Wow! I learned many things that I can use in my daily activities.”

A

A
The overall goal is to teach a health-promoting activity that can be incorporated into the learner’s lifestyle. Assessment of learner outcomes has traditionally been based on achievement of the behavioral objectives. If the objectives are properly written, each objective is measurable. Planning to take a daily walk demonstrates intention to incorporate the program content into personal lifestyle.

165
Q

Which of the following activities would be important for the nurse to complete when planning an educational program?

a. Avoid rehearsing the content or it will sound too practiced.
b. Come early to set up the audiovisual materials.
c. Remind all possible participants that early registration is required.
d. Try to get as many free handouts and freebies as possible.

A

B
The nurse should visit the site to ensure the cleanliness, temperature, and lighting of the area; arrive early to set up the audiovisual materials; and bring extra supplies such as projector bulb and extension cord. Last-minute attendees should be welcomed. In addition, the nurse should practice the material until it is known forwards and backwards.

166
Q

Characteristics of Adult Learner (6)

A

1) Need to know
2) Concept of self
3) Readiness to learn
4) Orientation to learning
5) Experience
6) Motivation

167
Q

A client meeting with a community health nurse inquires about diabetes education classes. The client’s health records reveal the diagnosis of diabetes was made a little over 1 year ago. The client reports partial compliance with diet, gradual improvement in her exercise program, and a 15-pound weight loss. The client reports that she takes her medication as prescribed but rarely monitors her blood glucose level. Which statement best reflects the impact of initial diabetes education on this client?

A. Learning occurred, but additional support and education are needed.
B. It is apparent that the diabetic education was totally inadequate.
C. It is not possible to draw any conclusions about the education.
D. The education did not work because this client is noncompliant.

A

A. Learning occurred, but additional support and education are needed.

The client exhibits learning by striving over the past year to comply with the prescribed diet, improve her exercise program, lose weight, and take the prescribed medications. Learning is described as enduring change that involves modification of insights, behaviors, perceptions, or motivations. The client perceives that additional support and health education will improve her diabetes

168
Q

The community health nurse is working with a client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The physician has prescribed a diet and recommended adding an exercise regimen. Assessment reveals the client has been smoking two packs of cigarettes per day for approximately 30 years. Which statement most accurately reflects the appropriate approach for establishing health education priorities for this client?

A. The nurse must assist the client to recognize that smoking cessation should be the highest priority.
B. The nurse and client must partner in establishing health education priorities for the client.
C. The client does not have his priorities in order and must be informed by the nurse as to the most important priority.
D. The nurse should not discuss smoking cessation because this is not the client’s most important health issue.

A

B. The nurse and client must partner in establishing health education priorities for the client.

Lasting health behavior change depends on learner participation in determining health education needs and priorities. The nurse and patient should partner together to establish health education needs and priorities. The other options do not give the client the opportunity to establish his health education

169
Q

The nurse is meeting with a client who has been referred for assistance with smoking cessation. During their first meeting, the client states he is very doubtful about his ability to stop smoking. In the health belief model, the client’s belief that actions can be performed to achieve the desired outcome is referred to by which of the following terms?

A. Self-efficacy
B. Perceived susceptibility
C. Perceived benefits
D. Cues to action

A

A (self- efficacy)

One component of the health belief model is self-efficacy. Self-efficacy refers to the degree to which the client believes in his or her ability to be successful in taking the necessary actions to accomplish the desired outcome. Other components of the health belief model include perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, perceived barriers, demographics, and cues to action

170
Q

Learner assessment is an important aspect of health education. The assessment performed by the community health nurse includes questions about the client’s age, family roles, social roles, and various responsibilities. Which of the following is the most important reason for obtaining this information?

A. The nurse will need this information to plan the meetings with the client.
B. The information will help the nurse to understand the client’s desired outcomes.
C. The client’s developmental stage and roles have an impact on readiness to learn.
D. The information is necessary to understand how much time the client will have.

A

C. The client’s developmental stage and roles have an impact on readiness to learn.

The client’s social roles and the tasks associated with the client’s developmental stage must be considered because they will have an important influence on the client’s learning experience. Gathering information to plan and time the meetings and understand the desired outcomes is necessary, but the most important reason to obtain the information is to understand the client’s readiness to learn

171
Q

A community health nurse is asked to review a draft of a brochure developed for distribution to clients. The nurse finds the brochure generally well designed but suggests replacing several words with simpler words that have fewer syllables and are more commonly used. What is the best explanation for the nurse’s recommendation?

A. The nurse assumes the clients are uneducated because they have low income.
B. The nurse knows that English may not be the primary language of many clients.
C. The nurse is assuming that most of the client’s will read at a third-grade level.
D. The nurse knows that more difficult words will pose a barrier to some clients.

A

D. The nurse knows that more difficult words will pose a barrier to some clients.

Materials written at a simpler level can be effective learning tools for clients who read at different levels. The nurse should not make assumptions about the client’s education. Simplifying the words would not necessarily assist non-English-speaking clients

172
Q

Knowledge of various learning theories is important for community health nurses involved in health education. Enhancing self-confidence and self-efficacy are important aspects of which learning theory?

A. Cognitive learning theory
B. Humanistic learning theory
C. Behavioral learning theory
D. Social learning theory

A

D. Social learning theory

Social learning theory’s premise is based on behavior explaining and enhancing learning through the concepts of efficacy, outcome expectation, and incentives. Humanistic theories help individuals develop their potential in self-directing and holistic manners. Although social learning theory is largely a cognitive theory, it also includes elements of behaviorism

173
Q

is gaining knowledge & skills that results in measurable change that occurs over time is called?

A

Learning

174
Q

Primary prevention teaching topics are:

A

Safety, nutrition, dental hygiene, basic first aid, vaccine preventable illnesses, personal hygiene, sleep hygiene

175
Q

secondary prevention teaching topics are:

A

performing SBE (simulation-based education) , cancer screenings

176
Q

tertiary prevention teaching topics are:

A

use the word managing in the title insert a chronic illness and make topic specific to your population

177
Q

the educational process (5):

A
  1. Identify educational needs
  2. Establish educational goals and objectives
  3. Select appropriate educational methods
  4. Implement the educational plan
  5. Evaluate the educational process
178
Q

steps in the teacher-learner process:

A
  1. Assessment of learner’s characteristics and needs
  2. Develop expected learning outcomes
  3. Develop teaching plan (Content/strategies)
  4. Implement teaching plan
  5. Evaluate (Achievement of learning outcome and Teaching process)
179
Q

Nurses assessment of learner:

A
Age, developmental stage, level of education
Health beliefs
Motivation, readiness to learn
Health risks
Current knowledge and skills
Barriers and facilitators to learning
180
Q

3 educational issues:

A
  1. Population considerations
    - Populations based on age
    - Populations based on culture
  2. Barriers to Learning
    - Educator-related barriers
    - Learner-related barriers
  3. Technological Issues
    - Computer games and programs
    - Internet and the World Wide Web
181
Q

Examples of cognitive educational theories:

A

Seat belts save lives
Cigarettes cause cancer
Walking is beneficial to overall health
New USDA’s My Plate

182
Q

Behavioral theory

A
  • Changes behavior using feedback and reinforcement

- educator has control over rewards and consequences

183
Q

Examples of behavioral educational theories:

A

Walking- pedometers, most steps wins
Quit smoking, use money saved/year for vacation.
Click it or ticket

184
Q

Examples of educational developmental theories:

A

walking
In elderly: focus is on falls prevention and walking Safety
In toddlers: focus on stair and climbing/ poison safety

Dental hygiene
kids- how to brush, when and why
old- importance of still brushing w/ w/o teeth

smoking:
kids- prevention
old-stop smoking

185
Q

Examples of educational humanistic theories:

A

Walking: “mrs. smith have you tried walking with your husband?”

seat belts: pt uses seat belt bc her 4 year old grand kid always reminds her

smoking: “mrs. brown have you considered the effects of second hand smoke on your baby?”

186
Q

Examples of social learner educational theories:

A

combines (self-efficacy) more than belief in ability to do “Just Say No”

EX. MY co worker quit a 3 pack a day 20 year habit so I can do it too

187
Q

Cognitive domain of learning example:

A

EX. Hand washing: What supplies do I need (recall)? Explain the order of the supplies used for hand washing (Comprehension)? When should I wash my hands( application)? Why is it important for me turn the facet off with a paper towel (analysis)? What would happen if I use my clean hands (analysis)? Explain to me how to properly wash hands (synthesis.) Show me how to properly wash your hands (evaluation).

188
Q

Affective domain of learning example:

A

EX. this is your brain on drugs (fried egg).

have people samples a low salt food item/healthy snack & enjoys.

189
Q

Cognitive (knowledge) domain of learning example:

A

EX. Hand washing: What supplies do I need (recall)? Explain the order of the supplies used for hand washing (Comprehension)? When should I wash my hands( application)? Why is it important for me turn the facet off with a paper towel (analysis)? What would happen if I use my clean hands (analysis)? Explain to me how to properly wash hands (synthesis.) Show me how to properly wash your hands (evaluation).

  • memorizing
  • reasoning
  • thinking and problem solving
190
Q

The affective (attitude) domain of learning example:

A

learners attitudes and feelings that are a result of the learning process

examples:
- appreciation
- motivation
- adopting
- emotional growth
- interpersonal development

191
Q

The psychomotor (skills and doing) domain of learning example:

A

EX. allow kids to make a healthy snack during a nutrition presentation

make ants on a log, granola and yogurt (the doing)
-this requires the skills are acquired and integrated using mental and muscular activity
example:
typing
playing

192
Q

Which is the most accurate definition of an exposure pathway?

A)The total amount of a contaminant that comes in direct contact with the body
B)Factor that determines a person’s level of exposure to a contaminant
C)Method by which people are exposed to an environmental contaminant
D)Process to determine whether exposure to an environmental contaminant has occurred

A

C (method by which people are exposed to environmental contaminants)
rationale:
An exposure pathway is the method by which people are exposed to an environmental contaminant that originates from a specific source. Exposure is a measure of the total amount of a contaminant that comes in direct contact with the body. An exposure estimate is a method of determining a person’s level of exposure to a contaminant on the basis of associated factors. An exposure history is a process to help determine whether an individual has been exposed to environmental contaminants.

193
Q
The nurse visits the home of client in a low-income community and notices that paint is flaking off the walls and forming a dust in the corners of some rooms. The nurse asks the client when the house was built, and she responds that it was built in 1959. Which contaminant should the nurse expect to find in this home?
A)Lead
B)Radon
C)Asbestos
D)Pesticide
A

A (lead)
rationale:
Contaminants in the environment, such as asbestos, lead, or radon, influence human health. For example, lead was used in paint until the 1970s and is often found in houses built earlier. As the old paint breaks down, lead can be found in dust and old paint chips in homes. In communities with older, deteriorating housing, children can be exposed to lead. In many cases, such housing is found in poorer communities. There are no indications of the other contaminants being present.

194
Q

Several important pieces of legislation have helped highlight the importance of environmental health and environmental protection. Which best describes Superfund?
A)National program to control the damaging effects of air pollution
B)Program that protects and enhances the quality of the nation’s air by regulating stationary and mobile sources of air emissions
C)Environmental program established to address abandoned hazardous waste sites
D)Comprehensive framework of standards, technical tools, and financial assistance to address the many causes of pollution and poor water quality

A

C (Environmental program established to address abandoned hazardous waste sites)
rationale:
Superfund is the name given to the environmental program established to address abandoned hazardous waste sites. The Clean Water Act focuses on improving the quality of the nation’s waters. It provides a comprehensive framework of standards, technical tools, and financial assistance to address the many causes of pollution and poor water quality, including municipal and industrial wastewater discharges, polluted runoff from urban and rural areas, and habitat destruction. The Clean Air Act is a national program to control the damaging effects of air pollution. It protects and enhances the quality of the nation’s air by regulating stationary and mobile sources of air emissions.

195
Q

Which is the most accurate definition of a risk assessment?
A)Assessment of the adverse effects of chemical, physical, or biological agents on people, animals, and the environment
B)Process to help determine whether an individual has been exposed to environmental contaminants
C)Assessment of factors that determine a person’s level of exposure to an environmental contaminant
D)Determination of the likelihood of adverse effects in a group exposed to an environmental contaminant

A

D (Determination of the likelihood of adverse effects in a group exposed to an environmental contaminant)
rationale:
Risk assessment is the process to determine the likelihood or probability that adverse effects such as illness or disease will occur in a group of people because of an exposure to an environmental contaminant. Toxicology is the study of the adverse effects of chemical, physical, or biological agents on people, animals, and the environment. Exposure history is the process to help determine whether an individual has been exposed to environmental contaminants. Exposure estimate is assessment of factors that determine a person’s level of exposure to a contaminant.

196
Q

There are different methods for conducting risk assessment for environmental contaminants. Which formula determines the amount of risk?

C (A)Hazard = exposure × risk
B)Exposure = risk × hazard
C)Risk = contaminant presence × exposure
D)Risk = hazard × exposure

A

D ( risk=hazard x exposure)
rationale:
A key concept for assessing risk is that the amount of risk equals the hazard times the exposure (risk = hazard × exposure). The presence of a hazard alone does not determine the amount of risk the hazard poses.

197
Q

Which exemplify environmental media and transport mechanisms within an exposure pathway? (Select all that apply.)

A)Mercury
B)Groundwater
C)Pond
D)Air
E)Subsurface soil
A

B,C,D,E (groundwater, pond, air, subsurface soil)
rationale:
Environmental media include groundwater, surface water (lakes, ponds, and rivers), air, surface soil, subsurface soil, sediment, and biota (plants and animals). The environmental medium that the contaminant is in helps determine who is exposed and how they are exposed. Mercury is an example of a contaminant, or source of contamination.

198
Q

The nurse applies the nursing process to a case in which a client has been exposed to an environmental contaminant. The nurse considers the question, “Has the exposure pathway been interrupted?” This question would be considered during which phase of the nursing process to examine the impact of the environment on human health?

A)Assessment
B)Planning
C)Intervention
D)Evaluation

A

D (evaluation)
rationale: An evaluation, not assessment or planning, is performed for any intervention to decide whether the intervention has achieved its goals and whether improvements or changes need to be made.

199
Q

Which most accurately describes environmental epidemiology?

A)Focuses on the amount of a contaminant that is absorbed into the body
B)Involves monitoring the results of medical tests to determine whether a person has been exposed to a contaminant
C)Focuses on the incidence and prevalence of disease or illness in a population from exposures in their environments
D)Involves monitoring the number of adverse effects of chemical, physical, or biological agents on people, animals, and the environment

A

c (Focuses on the incidence and prevalence of disease or illness in a population from exposures in their environments)
rationale:
Environmental epidemiology is a field of public health science that focuses on the incidence and prevalence of disease or illness in a population from exposures in their environments. Bioavailability is the amount of a contaminant that is absorbed into the body. Biomonitoring is the process of using medical tests such as blood or urine collection to determine whether a person has been exposed to a contaminant and how much exposure he or she has received. Toxicology is the study of the adverse effects of chemical, physical, or biological agents on people, animals, and the environment.

200
Q

Children may be more vulnerable to environmental exposures than adults. There are several factors that increase children’s vulnerability. Which factors should be considered with children? (Select all that apply.)

A)Their body systems are still rapidly developing.
B)They eat less, drink less, and breathe more in proportion to their body size than do adults.
C)Their bodies may be less able to break down and excrete contaminants.
D)Their behaviors can expose them to more contaminants.
E)Their breathing zone is further from the ground.

A

A,C,D
rationale:
Children may be more vulnerable to environmental exposures than are adults. Several factors increase children’s vulnerability, including the following. Children’s body systems are still rapidly developing. Children eat more, drink more, and breathe more (not less) in proportion to their body size than adults. Children’s breathing zone is closer to (not further from) the ground than adults’. Children’s bodies may be less able to break down and excrete contaminants. Children’s behaviors can expose them to more contaminants.

201
Q

What is in the environment that can affect it? (Select all that apply)

a. the physical environment
b. the social environment
c. the cultural environment
d. the economic and political environment

A

a,b,c,d
physical environment - where we live, what is in it
social environment- resources, relationships where we live, educational
cultural environment
economic and political environment- affect resources and policies

202
Q

Healthy people 2020 and environmental health and priorities include:

A

Air quality-estimated that 50,000 deaths/year are due to poor air quality
Safe drinking water
Reduction of water-borne disease
Quality of water used for fishing
Decreased pesticide exposure–> rural areas and contribute to cancer
Decreased indoor pollution–> dust-leads to asthma, respiratory problems

203
Q

Agent-chemical mixtures
Host-various people in a community
Environment-air, water, soil, food, temperature, wind and humidity
A harmful agent needs to come in contact with a susceptible host in the right environment. Disease can be prevented by interrupting the triangle on any of the three sides.
What is this called ?

A

Epidemiological triangle

204
Q

Areas of environmental health:living patterns

A

-Relationship among people and their environment
-Reflect a person’s lifestyle choices-second hand smoke , crime, drugs
-People living near hazardous facilities-environmental racism
Lower economic status= poor housing, high crime rates, and environmental hazards

205
Q

Major contributors to air pollution

A

Cars-most significant contributor
Fossil fuels-diesel, industrial boilers and power plants, mercury released into air
Health Risks associated with poor air quality-asthma, bronchitis, lung cancer
Greenhouse effect-loss of vegetation releases stored CO2 which traps heat and increases earth’s surface heat. Causes sea levels to rise and more severe weather patterns

206
Q

water quality: sources of water pollution

A
  1. Contamination-waste, chemicals, lead, mercury
  2. Septic or sewage systems
  3. Run off from construction sites
  4. Agriculture-pesticides, fertilizers (end up in water systems)
  5. Pollution can be a well defined point source or a large non-point source e.g. air to water transfer of mercury
    * EPA has regulations for this
207
Q

HOUSING: Major environmental problems:

A

Refers to the availability, safety, structural strength location and cleanliness

  • Increased indoor allergen levels-mold, dust, carbon monoxide, pets and pests
  • Radon poisoning-radioactive decay of granite & black slate. Colorless, odorless gas seeps into home via cracks in the foundation. Major cause of lung cancer
  • Fire hazards (hoarders, exposed wiring, smokers)
  • Lack of access for the disabled
  • Overcrowding (a lot of people over dwelling in a small house)
  • Inadequate heating or cooling- too hot or too cold
208
Q

types of allergens in house

A
dust 
mold
carbon monoxide
pets (dander) 
pests (mice, roaches, bed bugs)
209
Q

Radon poisoning

A

-colorless
-odorless–> seeps into homes through cracks in the foundation
-major cause of lung cancer
-inspection needed
-fill cracks
get detectors

210
Q

EFFECTS OF POOR HOUSING

A

1) Spread of communicable disease
2) Poor air quality-dust, mold, smoke, lead, carbon monoxide, radon
3) Sick building syndrome-buildings or home causes symptoms e.g. headache, fatigue, allergies from poor ventilation. Symptoms subside when out of home or building.

211
Q
Food quality (refers to availability, cost, safety and the health of animal and plant sources)
some problems are:
A
  • Chemicals/additives
  • Salmonella and e-coli contamination
  • Parasite contamination
  • Hepatitis A
  • Unsafe handling, storage & transport of foods (trucks come from other places, refrigeration could not be working, food contaminants, food expirations, food coming from other countries and they have different regulations)
212
Q

Environmental Problems Related to Waste Management

are:

A
  • Use of non-biodegradable plastics
  • Inefficient recycling programs
  • Unlicensed waste dumps
  • Inadequate sewage systems
  • Industrial dumping of toxic waste
  • Lack of enforcement of environmental protection legislation
213
Q

HEALTH RISKS ASSOCIATED WITH WASTE MANAGEMENT

A

1) Methane gas accumulation- from decomposing organic waste can cause fires and explosions. Gas moves through soil.
2) Radiation risks-can cause increased rates of cancer, immune damage, birth defects

214
Q

EPA Superfund- 1980

it was created for:

A

Build and renovate water treatment plants
Develop energy source alternatives to fossil fuels
Promote recycling
Clean up toxic waste sites
2019-1303 superfund sites in US. Number 1 NJ 114 of the most toxic sites, number 2 California 97 sites and number 3 Pennsylvania 95 sites

215
Q

EPA stands for:

A

Environmental protection agency

216
Q

EPA Process Used to Control Pollution is:

A
  1. Permitting (need from federal government)
    - places limits on industrial waste emitted into air and water.
    - Establishes a maximum contaminant level of a substance.
    - Level based on health risks
    - Emit limit is they tell you can only produce a certain amount of waste
  2. Monitoring (will happen unannounced)
    - inspections to ensure safety
    - industries need to keep good records of waste
  3. Compliance
    - ensure requirements of permit are met
    - if you don’t comply you will be shut down and the government will come in and take over (superfund site)
  4. Enforcement
  5. Clean up and remediation (the place can be financially responsible)
    * Right to know-laws give people right to know about hazards in their environment (see on site)
217
Q

THE PUBLIC HEALTH NURSE’S RESPONSIBILITIESAssessment-Quick assessment of person’s history of exposure to hazardous substances: IPREPARE (what does it stand for)?

A

I-investigate potential exposures
P-present work
R-residence
E-environmental concerns- your neighborhood
P-past work- people over around a lot and have different exposures
A-activities- hobbies, hunting, fishing, gardening, fertilizers
R-referrals and resources- look up what they were exposed too
E-educate- educate them
*contact the EPA for consult

218
Q
The nurse asks a client, “Do you wear the clothes you wear at work to home?” This is an example of which subject on the exposure history?
A)Present work
B)Past work
C)Home/residence
D)Concerns
A

A ( present work)

219
Q

SPECIFIC ASSESSMENT OF AN INDIVIDUAL’S EXPOSURE includes:

A
  1. what have they been exposed too?
  2. Access toxicology data of the specific chemical. Is chemical related to health problems?
  3. . Determine how the chemical has been released into the environment
  4. Determine how much of the chemical might have entered the body (did they eat it, inhale it, touch it)
  5. Predict the potential harm based on the estimated exposure
220
Q

VULNERABLE POPULATIONS

Children-Health Problems Associated With Environmental Factors

A

A. Autism-prevalence has increased more than any other medical condition
B. Cancer-leukemia and CNS tumors
C. Asthma in children

221
Q

Infants’ body characteristics that put them at risk?

A
  • premature immune system (not fully formed)
  • trachea is more narrow
  • blood brain barrier is not mature
  • increased rr
222
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL RISKS DURING PREGNANCY

A

Highest risks are exposure of the fetus to radiation, lead and mercury

  • Exposure to mercury during the last trimester may cause abnormal brain development in the fetus.
  • Pregnant woman should avoid shellfish, tile fish, shark, swordfish and mackerel during pregnancy.
223
Q

THE NURSE’S ROLE when dealing with environmental issues

A

A. Advocate for change-need changes in social, economic and political structures to improve the environment.

  • Use the objectives of Healthy People 2020 as a guide for change.
  • Involve community in identifying and solving environmental problems.
  • Form coalitions with existing organizations
  • Research
  • get community involved
224
Q

What is the specialty practice in nursing that focuses on the promotion, prevention, and restoration of health within the context of a safe and healthy work environment called?
it also contains all 3 levels of prevention!

A

Occupational health nursing

225
Q

Occupational health nursing is what type of practice?

A

Multidisciplinary practice

contains:
- Nursing and medical science
- toxicology–> effects of chemicals on health
- industrial hygiene–> identify hazards and use control measures to protect workers
- safety–> ergonomics to minimize work-related injuries
- business and economic theories- planning and cost-effectiveness
- social and behavioral sciences–> services for personal problems: alcohol, drugs, mental health
- environmental health
- legal and ethical issues

226
Q

Regarding Occupational health What are some of the Healthy people 2020 Goals:

A

decrease in:

  • work-related injury/death
  • assault and homicides
  • lead and other chemical exposure
  • skin diseases and eye injuries
  • stress
  • needle stick injury and hep B
  • hearing loss
227
Q

WORK-RELATED AND ENVIRONMENTAL HAZARDS

what are some of the types?

A
  1. Chemical-medications, solutions, gases
  2. Enviromechanical-poor equipment, slippery floors-major problem=back & neck injuries
  3. Physical agents-radiation, extreme temperatures, electricity, noise
  4. Psychosocial-situations that cause stress or interpersonal problems
  5. Biological-infections, blood & body fluids
228
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGIC MODEL FOR OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH

HOST–> all workers considered at risk. Factors associated with increased risk are? (Select all that apply)

a. age
b. gender/women of childbearing age
c. health status
d. the workplace

A

all are correct and considered risk factors at work

a. age (at risk at any age) but older people can have more injuries due to hearing loss, loss of vision, decreased reaction time
b. gender/pregnancy (high risk)
c. health status (do you have chronic conditions, do you have musculoskeletal problems- knee/back/muscles)
d. the workplace- things in the workplace that can affect you
Non-modifiable risk factors: age, gender, ethnicity, chronic diseases (can be minimized but never erased)
modifiable: lifestyle, work practice and to some degree health status

229
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGIC MODEL FOR OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH

AGENTS- name some

A
  1. Biological/Infectious- bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, helminths (microorganisms produce toxins), the transmission of resistant infectious agents, biologic hazards
    NURSES, Healthcare workers, cleaners, maintenance and security–> exposed to linens, trash, contaminated equipment which may result in illness
  2. Enviromechanical factors (chemical agents)- coal dust, fumes, radiation exposure, gases
  3. Physical agents- sources of energy that may lead to injury or illness
    Ex: vibration in tools leads to vasoconstriction of arteries in fingers and toes (raynauds phenomenon); radiation, temperature extremes, noise, lighting, falls, and unsafe equipment
    SOLUTION–> monitoring the exposure to agents and proper use of PPE, hearing protection, eye guard in the industry
  4. Psychosocial factors- include all organizational and interpersonal relationships in the workplace that may affect the health of the workers
    Examples: stress from overworking, unfairness in the workplace, time pressure, exposure to infectious diseases, needlestick injuries, and understaffing, workplace violence
    SOLUTION–> to identify the issues and address them head on
230
Q

OSHA stands for:

A

Occupational safety and health administration
their mission is to:
-prevent workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities by setting federal standards regulating workers’ exposures to potentially toxic substances.

231
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGIC MODEL FOR OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
HostAGENTEnvironment

ENVIRONMENTal factors in the workplace?

A

Environment influences the occurrence of host-agent interactions

  • Water (lead in the water, high chemicals/toxins)
  • Air quality/temperature/ventilation (pollution) (unintentional exposure-car fumes affecting patients that are close to the roadway)
  • Levels of stress
  • Noise
  • economic and political decisions–> factors such as adequate housing, literacy, crowding, culture, customs, and availability and accessibility of healthcare services are issues to be addressed
  • social problems–> drug and alcohol abuse, infectious disease and poverty can have an effect on the workplace productivity
232
Q

Levels of prevention in occupational health nursing?

A
  1. Primary-involves health promotion and disease/injury prevention. Education. Perform walk-throughs to identify hazards
  2. Secondary-goal is early diagnosis and treatment. Provide care for illness or injury to limit disability, screening, counseling
  3. Tertiary-goal is to return the worker to the highest level of functioning following an illness or injury. Case management
233
Q

The occupational health nurse finds several workers in a factory complaining of hearing loss and heat exhaustion. These are most likely caused by:

A. Chemical hazards
B. Physical hazards
C. Enviromechanical hazards
D. Biological hazards

A

B physical hazards

234
Q

Work-related health problems such as back problems are most likely to be caused by:

A. Biological hazards
B. Chemical hazards
C. Physical hazards
D. Enviromechanical hazards

A

D. Enviromechanical hazards

235
Q

A nurse in a large auto plant believes that lack of protective equipment violates federal standards. Management does not share the concern. The nurse should contact:

A. Civil Rights Commission
B. Environmental Protection Agency
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

A

C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

236
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Clinician role involves

A

The occupational health nurse acts as a clinician whose primary responsibilities are to prevent work and non-work related health problems and to restore as well as maintain the health of workers
includes:
1. assessments of hazards, surveillance of the workers and workplace, investigations of illness, and monitoring events that lead to an injury are fundamental to achieving this goal
A. WORKER ASSESSMENT
-Clinical-physical assessments, provide interventions for injury etc. maintain records, take an occupational health history, referrals

B. Workplace Assessment
-assessing the workplace and should be comprehensive and include employees and to identify hazards (fire prevention plans, alarms and detective devices, exits, occupancy and building diagrams, procedures/processing /shipping receiving, power tools, worker training procedures, hazardous materials, emergency action plans, PPE policies and procedures of when to use, electricity/lighting, heating/ventilation, airconditioning, fall prevention program

237
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Case-Manager role involves

A

coordination and management of services for ill or injured workers, including various aspects related to group health, workers compensation, and regulations pertaining to the FMLA (family medical leave act),
GOAL–> to do everything that can be done to prevent accidents and minimize illness

  • they track each incident that relates to employee health and safety, beginning immediately after the onset of an illness or injury and continuing through rehab and return to work.
  • Involves WORKPLACE ACCOMMODATION in order to return to work accommodation the worker based on their injuries or abilities after rehab (tertiary level)
  • Contains Root Cause Analysis (want to know what happened, why it happened, and what can be done to prevent a reoccurrence
238
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Counselor/consultant

A

acts as an advisor in selecting, developing, implementing, and evaluating occupational health and safety services within both organizations and communities

  • as a clinician and consultant, it is the role of the OHN to investigate all possible material and chemical exposures that could lead to an adverse reaction in the workers
  • MSDS (material safety data sheets) provides information to employers from the manufacturer or producer of substances
  • COUNSEL groups on psychosocial needs, wellness, health promotion concerns, substance abuse, and work-related issues.
239
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Health promotion and disease prevention specialist

A

-the objective is to create an environment for the worker that provides a sense of balance among work, family, personal health, and psychosocial concerns
assess worker’s needs/problems, plan, implement and evaluate health programs
-participates in the development and management of a multidimensional, broad-range health promotion program that supports the business objectives of the organization
-health promotion and prevention is a function the the OHN performs along the continuum of the worker population

240
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Occupational safety

A

develop and implement a training program for workers

241
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

researcher

A

identify researchable problems, collect and analyze data, identify trends

242
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Professioanlism

A

attend continuing education programs, maintain currency in practice

243
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Management

A

prepare budgets, business planning, quality assurance, manage workman’s compensation, coordinate site disaster planning

244
Q

FEDERAL LEGISLATION & OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH

Mine Safety and Health Act (1968)

A

first legislation that required prevention programs for workers

245
Q

FEDERAL LEGISLATION & OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH

Occupational Safety Health Act (1970)

A

provides for federal occupational safety and health standards. Provides for the establishment of state occupational safety administrations.

Agencies-Occupational Health and Safety Administration and National Institute For Occupational Safety and Health (under CDC-research oriented).
OSHA–> enforce that rules and regulations are being followed in a workplace, can come in and make sure at any time

246
Q

FEDERAL LEGISLATION & OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH

OSHA developed “the right to know” what is it?

A

All worksites need to have Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

-workers have the right to know what they could be exposed to

247
Q

FEDERAL LEGISLATION

Workers Compensation Act (state funded)

A

state-mandated and state-funded.

-Provides income and health care to workers who have work-related injuries, temporary or permanent disability or death.

248
Q

FEDERAL LEGISLATION

Americans With Disabilities Act(1990)

A

Prohibits discrimination on the basis of a disability. Includes employers with 15 or more employees.
-A person must meet the requirements for the position.

249
Q

ROLES OF THE OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH NURSE

Legal and Ethical

A

practice within the state’s nurse practice act, have knowledge of occupational health and safety issues, maintain confidentiality

250
Q

DISASTER PLANNING

SUPERFUND and reauthorization Act

A

requires that written disaster plans be shared with key resources in the community

Goals for disaster plans

  1. prevent or minimize injuries and deaths of workers and residents
  2. minimize property damage
  3. provide triage.

*ex: fire drills-there needs to be a fire plan and practice drills and they needed to be current

251
Q

Nurses role in disaster planning

A
  1. Coordinate and implement the plan
  2. Provide communication with key people to keep the plan current
  3. Plan drills and educate employees about the plan
  4. Assess equipment and services needed during a disaster
  5. After a disaster, identify ongoing disaster-related health needs, collect data, assess cause of disaster and plan prevention measures
252
Q

Providing appropriate care is what level of prevention?

A

secondary

- if you don’t provide the care you can get a lawsuit against you

253
Q

The occupational and environmental health nurse faces many different practice issues every day and can function comfortably in roles as a clinician, coordinator, and case manager following company procedures, using assessment checklists and clinical protocols to provide treatment. At which American Association of Occupational Health Nurses (AAOHN) competency level in occupational and environmental health nursing is this nurse functioning?

A) Advanced beginner
B)Competent
C)Proficient
D)Expert

A

B (competent)

Benner identified five stages of competency in clinical nursing practice: novice, advanced beginner, competent, proficient, and expert. Within each stage are levels of achievement that are expressed in measurable behavioral objectives. AAOHN has cross-referenced and stated behavioral objectives for the OHN in three of these stages: competent, proficient, and expert. The competent nurse is one who is confident and a master, with an ability to cope with specific situations. There is less of a need to rely on the judgment of peers and other professionals.

254
Q

The occupational and environmental health nurse provides leadership in developing occupational safety and health policy within the organization and function in an upper management role. The nurse has served as a consultant to both business and government and has designed and conducted significant research. At which American Association of Occupational Health Nurses (AAOHN) competency level in occupational and environmental health nursing is this nurse functioning?

A)Advanced beginner
B)Competent
C)Proficient
D)Expert

A

D (expert)

The expert nurse is one who has extensive experience with a broad knowledge base that enables the nurse to grasp a situation quickly and initiate action. The nurse has a sense of salience grounded in practice guiding actions and priorities.

255
Q

The occupational and environmental health nurse quickly obtains the information needed for accurate assessment and zoom in on the critical aspects of a problem in response to a client situation. The nurse uses highly developed clinical and managerial skills in the work environment. At which American Association of Occupational Health Nurses (AAOHN) competency level in occupational and environmental health nursing is this nurse functioning?

A) Advanced beginner
B) Competent
C) Proficient
D) Expert

A

C (proficient)

The proficient nurse is one with the ability to perceive client situations on the basis of past experiences, with a focus on relevant aspects of the situation. The nurse is able to predict expected events in certain situations and recognize that protocols must be altered at times to meet the needs of the client

256
Q

Which exemplifies a physical hazard?

A) Infectious agents
B) Hazardous drug and toxin exposures
C) Electric and magnetic fields
D)Sexual harassment

A

C) Electric and magnetic fields

Electric and magnetic fields are an example of a physical hazard. Infectious agents are an example of a biological hazard. Hazardous drug and toxin exposures are an example of a chemical exposure. Sexual harassment is an example of a psychosocial factor.

257
Q

Which exemplify biological hazards? (Select all that apply.)

A) Contaminated body fluids
B) Poisonous plants
C) Diesel exhaust
D) Venomous snakes
E) Aerosols
A

A,B,D (contaminated body fluids, poisonous plants, venomous snakes)

Contaminated body fluids, poisonous plants, and venomous snakes are examples of biological hazards. Diesel exhaust and aerosols are examples of chemical exposure.

258
Q

A line operator in a manufacturing facility comes in to the on-site clinic reporting numbness in his hands after excessive exposure to the toxin benzene. Applying the epidemiologic triad to this scenario, which is the host?

A)Line operator
B) Manufacturing facility
C) Benzene
D) Hands

A

A (Line operator)

The epidemiologic triad is very helpful in occupational health nursing practice as a means to understand the complex relationships among the workers, hazards in the workplace, and hazards in the environment. In the epidemiologic triad, each worker is a host within the work population. The agents in the epidemiologic triad are workplace hazards classified as biological, chemical, physical, or psychosocial agents. The workplace exists within an external environment with specific geological and atmospheric characteristics, air and water quality, and presence or absence of environmental pollution.

259
Q

Which injury has the highest incidence rate among occupational injuries and illnesses that result in days away from work?

A) Sprains
B) Broken bones
C) Cuts
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

A) Sprains

The highest incidence rate resulting in days away from work occurred from sprains, strains, and tears. Cuts were in second place, fractures in fourth place, and carpal tunnel syndrome in seventh place.

260
Q

Which industry has the highest number of fatal injuries?

A) Agriculture
B) Construction
C) Mining
D) Transportation

A

D (transportation)

261
Q
A newly hired health and safety officer works for a large manufacturing facility. One of the officer's first jobs is to conduct a complete survey of the workplace to determine what hazards are present, the location of entries and exits, the availability of emergency equipment, and potential trouble spots. Which interventions should the officer implement to accomplish this goal?
A) Ergonomics
B) Occupational health history
C) Root cause analysis
D) Workplace walk-through
A

D) Workplace walk-through

A workplace walk-through is a complete survey of the workplace, inside and outside, compiling information as to the presence of hazards, the location of entries and exits, the availability of emergency equipment, and potential trouble spots. Ergonomics is the study of the relationship between people and their working environment. Occupational health history is an assessment of the characteristics of the workers’ present jobs, a chronological record of all past work and potential exposures, an occupational exposure inventory, and a list of other exposures in the home or community. Root cause analysis is a process for understanding and solving a problem, with the goal of determining what happened, why it happened, and what can be done to prevent its reoccurrence.

262
Q

The occupational health nurse for an electronics factory compiles an occupational health history for each worker. Which should be included? (Select all that apply.)
A) Location of facility exits and entries
B) A chronological record of all past work and potential exposures
C) An occupational exposure inventory
D) List of exposures in the home or community
E) Availability of emergency equipment

A

B) Chronological record of all past work and potential exposures
C)An occupational exposure inventory
D) List of exposures in the home or community

Components of the occupational health history include characteristics of the workers’ present jobs, a chronological record of all past work and potential exposures, an occupational exposure inventory, and a list of other exposures in the home or community. The location of facility exits and entries and the availability of emergency equipment are aspects of a workplace walk-through.

263
Q

The occupational health nurse for a hydroelectric plant uses root cause analysis to investigate the recent accidental electrocution of a plant worker. The nurse currently is defining the characteristics of the case. In which step of the root cause analysis is the nurse?

A) Define the problem
B) Collect data
C) Identify possible causal factors
D) Identify the root cause

A

A) Define the problem

Defining the problem includes defining the characteristics of the case and determining the circumstances under which it occurred.

  • Collecting data includes determining whether similar illnesses or injuries occurred in the past, comparing similarities and differences, creating a time line related to the problem, and determining the impact of the problem. -Identifying possible causal factors includes convening people involved in the situation to discuss the cause, determining the sequence of events that led to the illness or injury, identifying the conditions that allowed the problem to occur, identifying related problems, creating a chart of possible causal factors, and identifying causal factors and possible interrelationships.
  • Identifying the root cause includes identifying the true causes of the illness or injury, determining why the causal factor or factors exist, and determining the real reason the problem occurred.
264
Q

The occupational health nurse for a computer manufacturer is required to conduct a physical examination of each new hire. The rationale for this action is to:

A) Screen for cardiac defects the worker may be unaware of.
B) Ensure the worker’s fitness for the job.
C) Determine possible causes of the worker’s chief complaint.
D) Provide a baseline for future comparison.
E) Determine the worker’s eligibility for the company health insurance plan.

A

B) Ensure the worker’s fitness for the job.

A health record can be kept on the employees as part of their other employment records. This process often starts with an initial physical examination appropriate to the type of work that is going to be done. The physical examination helps ensure fitness for the job and provides a baseline for future comparison. The physical examination is not performed to screen for cardiac defects, determine possible causes of a chief complaint, or determine a worker’s eligibility for the company health insurance plan.

265
Q

The occupational health nurse with a construction company is responsible for filling out a record of accidents and illnesses that occur on the company’s work sites. Which source should the nurse consult to acquire the proper record-keeping form and guidelines?

A) FMLA
B) OSHA
C) HIPAA
D) NORA

A

B (OSHA)

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) designs and distributes record-keeping forms called the OSHA log. The Occupational health nurse is usually responsible for filling out the OSHA log. This injury log is a record of accidents and illnesses that occur within a given year at every workplace facility employing 10 or more people.

A–>According to the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), in the case of serious illness affecting themselves or family members, when all conditions are met under this act, employees can leave work for up to 12 weeks and return to work without penalty.
D)–>The National Occupational Research Agenda (NORA) is a partnership program to stimulate innovative research and improved practices for safer, healthier workplaces.

266
Q

Which data are tracked under epidemiologic workplace surveillance? (Select all that apply.)

A) Injuries
B) Illness
C) Hazards
D) Exposures
E) Productivity
A

A) Injuries
B) Illness
C) Hazards
D) Exposures

267
Q

The occupational health nurse at a company has seen three different employees in one week who have all reported similar upper respiratory symptoms. Which rate should the nurse consider calculating to understand the severity of this problem and to determine whether a cluster or cohort is forming?

A) Productivity rate
B) Incidence rate
C) Prevalence rate
D) Ratio of affected to unaffected

A

B) Incidence rate

If there happens to be more than one worker from the same department with consistent symptoms and objective findings, the OHN may immediately begin to suspect that a cluster or cohort is forming and should determine the number of new cases of the condition, or the incidence rate. Clusters are aggregations of disease diagnoses collected from a specific population within a distinct period of time or space. The calculation of incidence rates is a helpful tool in understanding the severity of a workplace problem. Prevalence reflects the total burden of the injury or illness that exists in the population—in this case, the workplace. It includes both new cases and existing cases, as opposed to the incidence rate, which only includes new cases. Ratios can compare and involve groups of workers in settings. This approach adds clarity when comparing the number of affected workers in an organization that employs workers located in various geographic locations.

268
Q

Key components of the emergency plan involve

A

Key components of the emergency plan involve alarms, reporting, communication, evacuation, a system for counting the occupants, procedures for staff who do not immediately evacuate, and rescue and medical services. Phones would not be a component of the plan.

269
Q

The occupational health nurse works in a facility located in a region that is highly prone to tornadoes. Which intervention should the nurse make sure is included in the facility’s emergency plan to address this potential threat?

A) A shelter-in-place policy and procedure
B) Personal protective equipment
C) Evacuation drills
D) Decontamination procedures

A

A) A shelter-in-place policy and procedure

A shelter-in-place policy and procedure must be established for emergencies such as hurricanes, tornadoes, high winds, or chemical releases in buildings such as healthcare and correctional facilities. Personal protective equipment and decontamination procedures are needed for those who work with and around hazardous materials and chemicals but would not be needed for a tornado. During a tornado, workers should shelter in place, not evacuate the building.