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NUR 332 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Congenital

Urethral opening or meatus is along underside shaft of penis, scrotum, or perineum

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2
Q

What causes hypospadias?

A

Abnormal fusion of urethral tissue

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3
Q

What is epispadias?

A

Congenital

Opening of urethra is on dorsal or upper surface of penis

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4
Q

What is phimosis?

A

Tightening of prepuce or penile foreskin that prevents retraction over the glans

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5
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Constriction of foreskin that it cannot cover the glans

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6
Q

What is balanitis?

A

Acquired

Chronic or acute inflammation of glans penis

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7
Q

What is balanoposthitis?

A

Acquired

Inflammation of glans penis and prepuce

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8
Q

What are manifestations of balanoposthitis?

A

Erythema of glans and prepuce, itching, soreness, blisters, ulcers, painful urination, and foul-smelling discharge

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9
Q

What is erectile dysfunction?

A

Persistent inability to achieve and maintain an erection

Failure of neural, vascular, and/or chemical pathways that produce an erection

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10
Q

What are neurologic causes of ED?

A

Parkinson disease, MS, heavy metal poisoning, stroke, cerebral trauma, spinal cord injuries

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of ED?

A

Arteriosclerosis

Obesity, physical inactivity, high cholesterol, high BP, smoking

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12
Q

What is the prevalence of penis cancer?

A

Uncircumcised males in developing countries, age, poor hygiene, smoking, HPV 16 & 18, UV radiation, immunosuppression

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13
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Congenital disorder in which 1 or both testicles fail to move down into scrotal sac

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14
Q

What is primary cryptorchidism?

A

Testis fail to complete migration from parental embryologic origin to scrotum

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15
Q

What is secondary cryptorchidism?

A

Testis pulled into suprascrotal position as result of scarring
Usually after inguinal hernia

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16
Q

What is hydrocele?

A

Collection of fluid in scrotum without obvious inguinal hernia

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17
Q

What is hematocele?

A

Accumulation of blood in the space between parietal and visceral tunica vaginalis

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18
Q

What is spermatocele?

A

Painless, sperm containing cyst that forms at end of epididymis

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19
Q

What is varicocele?

A

Varicosities of the pampiniform plexus

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20
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord and loss of blood supply to the ipsilateral testicle
Most common acute scrotal disorder

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21
Q

What is intravaginal torsion?

A

Attachment of tunica vaginalis too high so spermatic cord rotates
More common than extravaginal torsion

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22
Q

What are symptoms of intravaginal torsion?

A

Severe distress, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, large & tender testis

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23
Q

What is extravaginal torsion?

A

Almost exclusively in neonates, testicle not yet descended into scrotum, therefore more prone to torsion

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24
Q

What is epididymitis?

A

Acute or chronic inflammation of the epididymis

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25
Q

What are symptoms of acute epididymitis?

A

Pain, swelling, and inflammation of epididymis that lasts less than 6 weeks

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26
Q

What are symptoms of chronic epididymitis?

A

Pain, swelling, inflammation, discharge, dysuria, erythema that lasts more than 6 weeks

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27
Q

What causes epididymitis?

A

Infectious, noninfectious, and postinfectious microbial sources
Bacterial agents, trauma, STI’s

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28
Q

What is orchitis?

A

Acute inflammation of testis secondary to infection

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29
Q

What causes orchitis?

A

Viral mumps infection, other viruses & bacteria

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30
Q

What are symptoms of orchitis?

A

Enlarged testis, tenderness, scrotal skin erythema, scrotal edema, induration of testes

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31
Q

Testicular cancer

A

Most common cancer in males ages 15-35

5 year survival rate exceeds 95%

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32
Q

What are risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

Cryptorchidism, genetic factors, disorders of testicular development (Klinefelter syndrome)

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33
Q

What are manifestations of testicular cancer?

A

Slight enlargement of testicle, discomfort in abdomen or groin
If metastasized-swelling of LE, back pain, neck mass, cough, hemoptysis, dizziness

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34
Q

What is acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

Acute infection of prostate gland that results in pelvic pain and urinary tract symptoms

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35
Q

What are the symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Rapid onset of dysuria, urinary frequency & urgency, hesitance, incomplete voiding, straining to urinate, weak stream

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36
Q

What is chronic bacterial prostatitis caused by?

A

E. coli or other gram-negative enterobacteriaceae

5% acute bacterial prostatitis progress to chronic

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37
Q

What is inflammatory prostatitis?

A

Inflamed prostate with no bacteria in urinary system but present with pain in penis, testicles, and scrotum, painful ejaculation, low back pain, rectal pain, urinary symptoms, ED
Often have inflammation of prostate with elevated leukocyte count

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38
Q

What is noninflammatory prostatitis?

A

No prostatic inflammation but similar symptoms to inflammatory prostatitis
Can be caused by obstruction of bladder neck near external sphincter

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39
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A

Prostate gland is enlarged but not cancerous

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40
Q

What are risk factors for BPH?

A

Age over 40, family history, obesity, cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, lack of physical exercise, and ED

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41
Q

What are manifestations of BPH?

A

Weak urinary stream, dribbling, increased urinary frequency, urinary urgency, nocturia, painful ejaculation/urination

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42
Q

How is BPH diagnosed?

A

Urinalysis, PSA blood test, biopsy, urodynamic tests

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43
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Generation of spermatozoa or sperm beginning at age 13

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44
Q

What is a spermatozoon?

A

A mature sperm cell with a head and tail

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45
Q

What are actions of estrogens?

A

Growth and development, reproductive processes, general metabolic effects

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46
Q

At what age does menopause begin?

A

48 to 55 years

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47
Q

What is perimenopause?

A

Menstrual irregularity beginning 4 years before cessation of menstruation

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48
Q

What are manifestations of menopause?

A

Decreased levels of estrogen, decrease size in breasts, ovaries and uterus, vaginal pH decreases, pale and friable cervix and vagina, hot flashes, osteoporosis

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49
Q

Cervical cancer

A

Most easily cured of all female reproductive system cancers

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50
Q

What are risk factors for cervical cancer?

A

Early age first intercourse, multiple sexual partners, smoking, STI history, HPV

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51
Q

What are manifestations of cervical cancer?

A

Abnormal vaginal bleeding, spotting, and discharge, pelvic/back pain that may radiate down leg, hematuria

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52
Q

What is endometritis?

A

Inflammation of the endometrium

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53
Q

What are causes of endometritis?

A

Acute-abortion or delivery of newborn

Chronic-PID, IUD placement

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54
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Functional endometrial tissue is found in ectopic sites outside the uterus

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55
Q

What are manifestations of endometriosis?

A

Pelvic pain, back pain, dyspareunia, infertility

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56
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Endometrial glands and stroma found within myometrium

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57
Q

What causes ovarian cysts?

A

Occlusion of the duct of the follicle, enlargement of corpus luteum

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58
Q

What is PCOS?

A

Endocrine disorder that is a frequent source of chronic anovulation

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59
Q

What are manifestations of PCOS?

A

Oligomenorrhea (irregular infrequent periods), hyperandrogenism (acne and excess body hair), elevated testosterone, polycystic-appearing ovaries

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60
Q

What tissue types produce ovarian tumors?

A

Serosal epithelium, germ cell, and/or gonadal stroma

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61
Q

What is vaginitis?

A

Inflammation of the vagina characterized by discharge and burning, itching, redness, and swelling of vaginal tissues

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62
Q

What causes vaginitis?

A

Candida albicans, Trichomonas vaginalis, and cabertial vaginosis

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63
Q

What is candidiasis?

A

Yeast infection, thrush, moniliasis

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64
Q

What are manifestations of candidiasis?

A

vulvovaginal pruritus, irritation, erythema, swelling, dysuria, dyspareunia, thick & white discharge

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65
Q

What are manifestations of chlamydia?

A

Women-mucopurulent cervical discharge

Men-urethritis, meatal erythema and tenderness, purulent discharge, urethral itching

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66
Q

What are manifestations of gonorrhea in men?

A

Urethral pain, creamy yellow/bloody discharge, rectal infection, may affect prostate, epididymis, and periurethral gland

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67
Q

What are manifestations of gonorrhea in women?

A

Endometritis, salpingitis, PID, pharyngitis, genital discharge, dysuria, dyspareunia, pelvic pain, unusual vaginal bleeding

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68
Q

What are the characteristics of primary syphilis?

A

Appearance of chancre at site of exposure and appear within 3 weeks but may incubate up to 3 months
Infection is highly contagious at this stage

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69
Q

What are the characteristics of secondary syphilis?

A

Lasts from 1 week to 6 months, rash on palms/mucous membranes/meninges/stomach/soles, elevated red/brown lesions

70
Q

What are the characteristics of tertiary syphilis?

A

Delayed response to untreated disease, can occur decades after initial infection
Development of gummas, cardiovascular lesions, CNS lesions

71
Q

What are the base pairs for DNA?

A

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine

72
Q

What is the structure of DNA?

A

Double helix of complementary base pairing by stable hydrogen bonds

73
Q

What is mRNA?

A

Template for protein synthesis

74
Q

What is needed for mRNA synthesis?

75
Q

What is a synonym?

A

Codons that specify the same amino acid

76
Q

How is mRNA formed?

A

Transcription

77
Q

What can Mendels laws predict?

A

Units of inheritance and pattern of single-gene transmission

78
Q

What are homozygotes?

A

2 alleles of the same pair (AA or aa)

79
Q

What are heterozygotes?

A

2 alleles of different pairs (Aa)

80
Q

What is a recessive trait?

A

Trait expressed only as homozygous aa pairing

81
Q

How are autosomal recessive disorders manifested?

A

When both members of gene pair are affected (homozygous)

82
Q

What is PKU?

A

Rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by deficiency of liver enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase

83
Q

What are manifestations of PKU if untreated?

A

Mental disability, microcephaly, delayed speech, impaired neurological development

84
Q

What is Tay-Sachs Disease?

A

Inherited autosomal recessive disorder with failure to break down GM2 gangliosides

85
Q

What are the manifestations of Tay-Sachs?

A

Progressive weakness, muscle flaccidity, decreased responsiveness at 6-10 months followed by rapid deterioration of motor and mental function & seizures
Death between 4-5 years

86
Q

What is Turner syndrome?

A

Absence of all or part of X chromosome

87
Q

What are the manifestations of Turner syndrome?

A

Short stature, lack of menstruation, small webbed neck, coarctation of aorta

88
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Testicular dysgenesis accompanied by presence of 1 or more extra X chromosome

89
Q

What are manifestations of Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Some show no phenotype

Enlarged breasts, sparse facial and body hair, small testes, inability to produce sperm

90
Q

What is a teratogenic agent?

A

Chemical, physical, or biologic agent that produces abnormalities to developing fetus

91
Q

What are manifestations from radiation exposure to fetus?

A

Microcephaly, skeletal malformation, mental disability

92
Q

What is the common manifestation from thalidomide exposure?

A

Phocomelia (flipper like appendages)

93
Q

What are the categories of drugs from least to most dangerous?

A

A, B, C, D, X

94
Q

What are the manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?

A

Growth delay, behavioral dysfunction, facial features, skull & brain malformation

95
Q

What are the facial features of FAS?

A

Small palpable fissures, thin upper lip, flattened philtrum

96
Q

When is an embryo most susceptible to teratogens?

A

15 to 60 days postconception

97
Q

What hormones are released by the hypothalamus?

A

CRH, TRH, GHRH, GnRH, Somatostatin, Dopamine

98
Q

What hormones are released by the anterior pituitary?

A

GH, ACTH, TSH, FSHLH

99
Q

What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary?

A

ADH & Oxytocin

100
Q

What is negative feedback?

A

Some feature of hormone action directly or indirectly inhibits further hormone secretion

101
Q

What is hypothalamic-pituitary target cell feedback?

A

Hypothalamus produces RH that stimulates tropic hormone of anterior pituitary which stimulates target gland to secrete its hormone to produce a physiologic response

102
Q

What is positive feedback?

A

A hormone stimulates continued secretion until appropriate levels are reached

103
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Excess GH in adulthood

104
Q

What are manifestations of acromegaly?

A

Enlargement of small bones of hands/feet, broad bulbous nose, protruding lower jaw, slanting forehead, disturbed bite, deepening voice, organ enlargement

105
Q

What are manifestations of hypothyroidism?

A

Decreased BMR, cold intolerance, weight gain, decreased sweating, bradycardia, hypoventilation, decreased appetite

106
Q

What are manifestations of hyperthyroidism?

A

Increased BMR, heat intolerance, weight loss, thinning hair, tremor, tachycardia & palpitations, dyspnea, increased appetite

107
Q

What is Graves Disease?

A

Autoimmune disorder characterized by abnormal stimulation of thyroid gland

108
Q

What is a common manifestation of Graves Disease?

A

Ophthalmopathy

109
Q

What are manifestations of a thyroid storm?

A

Very high fever, extreme cardiovascular effects, severe CNS effects

110
Q

What are manifestations of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Increased levels of ACTH, enlarged clitoris, fused labia, urogenital sinus

111
Q

What is primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)?

A

Destruction of adrenal gland

112
Q

What is secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Disorder of HPA system

113
Q

What is Cushing Syndrome?

A

Excess production of ACTH

114
Q

What are the manifestations of Cushing Syndrome?

A

Protruding abdomen, buffalo hump, moon face, muscle weakness

115
Q

What is the only hormone that lowers blood glucose?

116
Q

What is the function of glucagon?

A

Maintain blood glucose levels between meals, increases blood glucose

117
Q

What is the function of somatostatin?

A

Decrease secretion of insulin and glucagon

118
Q

What is prediabetes?

A

Elevated blood glucose but not to diagnostic criteria for diabetes

119
Q

What is Type 1 DM?

A

Insufficient insulin function due to destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency
More commonly in children

120
Q

What is Type 2 DM?

A

State of insulin resistance and progressive decline in pancreatic beta-cell secretion of insulin ; accompanied by metabolic syndrome
More commonly in adults

121
Q

What is gestational DM?

A

Abnormalities of glucose regulation presenting during pregnancy

122
Q

What are concomitants of metabolic syndrome?

A

Central obesity, acanthosis nigricans, elevated fasting glucose, low HDL, increase triglycerides, albuminuria, hyperuricemia, hypertension, atherosclerosis

123
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

Volume of air inspired with each breath

Usually 500 mL in adults

124
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume? (IRV)

A

Maximum amount of air that can be inspired in excess of the normal TV

125
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume? (EVT)

A

Maximum amount of air that can be exhaled in excess of normal VT

126
Q

What is residual volume? (RV)

A

Approximately 1200 mL air remains in lungs after forced expiration
Increases with age

127
Q

What is pulmonary gas exchange?

A

Process of removing CO2 from blood and replenish oxygen supply
Occurs between alveoli and blood of lungs

128
Q

What is intrapleural pressure?

A

Pressure in the pleural cavity–>normal inflated lung pressure is negative

129
Q

What happens during inspiration?

A

Elastic recoil of lungs increase causing intrapleural pressure to become more negative

130
Q

What happens without intrapleural pressure?

A

Lung collapse

131
Q

What is transpulmonary pressure?

A

Difference between alveolar and intrapleural pressures used to determine pulmonary compliance

132
Q

What are the manifestations of influenza?

A

Fever, chills, rigor, muscle aches, malaise, viral pneumonia, sinusitis, bronchitis

133
Q

What are the manifestations of pneumonia?

A

Malaise, shaking chills, fever, fine crackling breath sounds, watery/bloody/purulent sputum, deterioration of mental status

134
Q

What are manifestations of primary TB?

A

Destruction of lung tissue, fever, weight loss, fatigue, night sweats, pleuritis, lymphadenitis

135
Q

What are manifestations of primary progressive TB?

A

Low grade fever, fatigue, weight loss, dry cough , dyspnea, orthopnea, anemia, rales on lung auscultation

136
Q

What are the characteristics of small cell lung cancer?

A

Small round to oval cells that are the size of a lymphocyte that grow in clusters that exhibit neither glandular or squamous organization
Highly malignant and rarely resectable

137
Q

What are the characteristics of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Common in men with smoking history, originate in central bronchi as intraluminal growth, spreads centrally to major bronchi and hilar lymph nodes
Hypercalcemia

138
Q

What are the characteristics of adenocarcinoma?

A

Most common lung cancer, originate in bronchiolar or alveolar tissue, located peripherally, associated with lung scarring (TB, wounds, metallic foreign bodies)

139
Q

What are the characteristics of large cell carcinoma?

A

Large polygonal cells, group of highly anaplastic neoplasms, invades subsegmental bronchi & larger airways

140
Q

What are the manifestations of lung cancer?

A

Chronic cough, SOB, wheezing, hemoptysis, dull pain in mediastinum, atelectasis, dyspnea

141
Q

What are manifestations of respiratory disorders in children?

A

Increased respiratory rate, grunting sound, nasal flaring, stridor sound, inspiratory retractions

142
Q

What are the characteristics of respiratory distress syndrome? (RDS)

A

Most common in premature infants, pulmonary immaturity, surfactant deficiency, alveolar collapse

143
Q

What are the manifestations of RDS?

A

Difficulty breathing, retractions, grunting w/ expiration, increase respiratory rate, patent ductus arteriosus

144
Q

What are the characteristics of bronchopulmonary dysplasia? (BPD)

A

Chronic lung disease developed by long-term mechanical ventilation

145
Q

What are the manifestations of BPD?

A

Chronic respiratory distress, persistent hypoxemia, reduced lung compliance, increased airway resistance, severe expiratory flow, pulmonary hypertension, tachycardia, barrel chest, rapid shallow breathing

146
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

Reduction in arterial blood O2 levels which is considered PaO2 less than 95 mm Hg

147
Q

What are the manifestations of hypoxemia?

A

Metabolic acidosis, increase HR, peripheral vasoconstriction, confusion, restlessness, agitation, cyanosis, diaphoresis

148
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

Increase in CO2 content of arterial blood

Common in hypoventilation

149
Q

What are the manifestations of hypercapnia?

A

Respiratory acidosis, increased bicarbonate retention, increased WOB symptoms (hypoxemia symptoms)

150
Q

What are symptoms of work of breathing? (WOB)

A

SOB, diaphoresis, pursed-lip breathing, tachypnea/bradypnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, abdominal breathing, use of accessory muscles

151
Q

What are the manifestations of asthma?

A

Episodic wheezing, chest tightness, slight increase in respiratory rate, cough, distant breath sounds, moist skin, decreased airflow, prolonged expiration

152
Q

What is the characteristic of emphysema?

A

Loss of lung elasticity and abnormal enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles, with destruction of alveolar walls and capillary beds

153
Q

What are the manifestations of COPD?

A

Fatigue, exercise intolerance, cough, SOB, sputum production, dyspnea, chronic respiratory infections, wheezing and crackles, “tripod” position

154
Q

What are the manifestations of emphysema?

A

Lack of cyanosis, used of accessory muscles, pursed-lip breathing, airway collapse w/ expiration (barrel chest)

155
Q

What are the manifestations of chronic bronchitis?

A

Cyanosis, fluid retention, right-sided heart failure

156
Q

What is cystic fibrosis? (CF)

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of CFTR gene that affects respiratory, GI, and reproductive tracts

157
Q

What are the manifestations of CF?

A

Accumulation of mucus, impaired mucociliary clearance, lung infections, malabsorption/malnutrition, steatorrhea, diarrhea, abdominal pain/discomfort, elevated NaCl in sweat

158
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

A blood-borne substance lodges in a branch of pulmonary artery and obstructs blood flow
Generally occur from a DVT

159
Q

What are manifestations of PE?

A

Chest pain, dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, pleuritic pain, moderate hypoxemia, tachycardia, rapid weak pulse, low BP, cyanotic & diaphoretic skin

160
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

Elevation of pressure within pulmonary circulation

161
Q

What are the 5 groups of pulmonary arterial hypertension? (PAH)

A

I-pulmonary arterial or idiopathic hypertension
II-pulmonary venous hypertension
III-pulmonary hypertension associated with hypoxemia
IV-pulmonary hypertension due to chronic thrombotic or embolic disease or both
V-miscellaneous disorders that cause PAH

162
Q

What is PAH?

A

Abnormal proliferation and contraction of vascular smooth muscle, coagulation abnormalities, and marked intimal fibrosis leading to obileration or obstruction of pulmonary arteries

163
Q

What are the manifestations of PAH?

A

Persistent elevation in pulmonary artery pressure w/ normal left ventricular pressure, SOB, decrease exercise tolerance, peripheral edema, fatigue, angina, syncope

164
Q

What is secondary pulmonary hypertension?

A

Develops secondary to other conditions such as chronic hypoxemia, COPD, ILD, or sleep-disordered breathing, chronic thromboembolic disorders, mitral/aortic valve disorder, left heart dysfunction

165
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

Right heart failure resulting from primary lung disease or pulmonary hypertension

166
Q

What are the manifestations of cor pulmonale?

A

Venous congestion, peripheral edema, SOB, worsening productive cough, cyanosis, plethora, drowsiness, altered consciousness

167
Q

What are the manifestations of acute respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Rapid onset of respiratory distress, increase respiratory rate, signs of respiratory failure, marked hypoxemia, multiple organ failure, bilateral infiltrates of lung tissue in absence of cardiac dysfunction

168
Q

What are the causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Aspiration, drugs, toxins, septicemia, trauma/shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation

169
Q

What is acute respiratory failure?

A

Hypoxemic respiratory due to failure of gas exchange function of the lung
Hypercapnic/hypoxemic due to ventilatory failure

170
Q

What are the manifestations of acute respiratory failure?

A

Arterial PO2 less than 50 mm Hg or arterial PCO2 more than 50 mm Hg, respiratory acidosis, increased respiratory drive, increased sympathetic tone, tachycardia, increased BP, arterial vasodilation, headache

NUR 332 (1 decks)

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