Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

SMART acronym for writing patient goals

A
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timed
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2
Q

Independent nursing interventions

A

Actions that a nurse initiates w/out supervision or direction

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3
Q

Correctly written nursing interventions include?

A

Actions, frequency, quantity, method, and the person to perform them

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4
Q

A nurse assesses a 78-year-old patient who weighs 108.9 kg (240 lbs) and is partially immobilized because of a stroke. The nurse turns the patient and finds that the skin over the sacrum is very red and the patient does not feel sensation in the area. The patient has had fecal incontinence on and off for the last 2 days. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. Which of the following outcomes is appropriate for the patient?
Patient will be turned every 2 hours within 24 hours.
Patient will have normal bowel function within 72 hours.
Patient’s skin integrity will remain intact through discharge.
Erythema of skin will be mild to none within 48 hours.

A

Erythema of skin will be mild to none within 48 hours.

Turning the patient every 2 hours in a 24-hour period is an intervention. Both “Patient will have normal bowel function within 72 hours” and “Patient’s skin integrity will remain intact through discharge” are goals.

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5
Q

Which of the following factors does a nurse consider in setting priorities for a patient’s nursing diagnoses? (Select all that apply.)
Numbered order of diagnosis on the basis of severity
Notion of urgency for nursing action
Symptom pattern recognition suggesting a problem
Mutually agreed on priorities set with patient
Time when a specific diagnosis was identified

A

Notion of urgency for nursing action
Symptom pattern recognition suggesting a problem Mutually agreed on priorities set with patient

These three factors are considered in setting priorities for a patient’s nursing diagnoses or collaborative problems. The other options are inappropriate because a numbering system and time of identification hold little meaning when a patient’s condition changes.

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6
Q

A patient has the nursing diagnosis of Nausea. The nurse develops a care plan with the following interventions. Which are examples of collaborative interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Providing mouth care every 4 hours
Maintaining intravenous (IV) infusion at 100 mL/hr
Administering prochlorperazine (Compazine) via rectal suppository
Consulting with dietitian on initial foods to offer patient
Controlling aversive odors or unpleasant visual stimulation that triggers nausea

A
Maintaining intravenous (IV) infusion at 100 mL/hr
Consulting with dietitian on initial foods to offer patient

Controlling aversive odors or unpleasant visual stimulation that triggers nausea
Providing mouth care every 4 hours and controlling aversive odors or unpleasant visual stimuli that triggers nausea are both independent nursing interventions. Administering prochlorperazine via suppository is a dependent intervention.

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7
Q
A nurse begins the night shift being assigned to five patients. She learns that the floor will be a registered nurse (RN) short as a result of a call in. A patient care technician from another area is coming to the nursing unit to assist. The nurse is required to do hourly rounds on all patients, so she begins rounds on the patient who has recently asked for a pain medication. As the nurse begins to approach the patient’s room, a nurse stops her in the hallway to ask about another patient. Which factors in this nurse’s unit environment will affect her ability to set priorities? (Select all that apply.)
  Policy for conducting hourly rounds
  Staffing level
  Interruption by staff nurse colleague
  RN’s years of experience
  Competency of patient care technician
A

Policy for conducting hourly rounds
Staffing level
Interruption by staff nurse colleague

Many factors within the health care environment affect your ability to set priorities, including model for delivering care, the workflow routine and staffing levels of a nursing unit, and interruptions from other care providers. Available resources (e.g., policies and procedures) also affect priority setting. The nurse’s years of experience and the competency of the patient care technician are not part of the environment.

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8
Q

ACT OF URINATION

A
  • Brain structures influence bladder function.
  • Voiding: Bladder contraction + urethral sphincter and pelvic floor muscle relaxation
    1. Bladder wall stretching signals micturition center.
    1. Impulses from the micturition center in the brain respond to or ignore this urge, thus making urination under voluntary control.
    1. When a person is ready to void, the central nervous system sends a message to the micturition centers, the external sphincter relaxes and the bladder empties.
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9
Q

FACTORS INFLUENCING

URINATION

A
  • Growth and development
  • Sociocultural factors
  • Psychological factors
  • Personal habits
  • Fluid intake
  • Pathological conditions: diabetes mellitus, MS, stroke. Pt’s either have overactivity or deficient
  • Surgical procedures
  • Medications
  • Diagnostic Examinations
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10
Q

COMMON URINARY ELIMINATION

PROBLEMS

A
• Urinary retention
• An accumulation of urine due to the inability of the bladder to empty
• Urinary tract infection
• Results from catheterization or procedure
• Urinary incontinence
• Involuntary leakage of urine
• Urinary diversion
  - Diversion of urine to
external source
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11
Q

Function of kidneys

A

Filter waste products of metabolism from the blood

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12
Q

Function of ureters

A

Transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder

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13
Q

Function of the bladder

A

Holds urine until the volume in the bladder triggers a sensation of urge, indicating the need to pass urine

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14
Q

Define micturition

A

Occurs when the brain gives the bladder permission to empty, the bladder contracts, the urinary sphincter relaxes, and urine leaves the body through the urethra

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15
Q

Functional unit of the kidneys

A

Nephron, they remove waste products from the body and play a major role in the regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance.
-each nephron contains a cluster of capillaries called glomerulus which filters water, glucose, amino acids, urea, uric acid, creatinine, and major electrolytes

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16
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Produced by the kidneys, it stimulates RBC production and maturation in bone marrow
-pt’s w/chronic kidney conditions cannot produce sufficient quantities of this hormone; therefore they are prone to anema

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17
Q

How do kidneys play a role in BP control?

A

Via the renin-angiotensin system (i.e. release of aldosterone and prostacyclin)

  • in times of renal ischemia (decreased blood supply), renin is released from juxtaglomerular cells
  • Renin functions as an enzyme to convert antiotensinogen (a substance synthesized by the liver) into angiotensin I
  • angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the lungs.
  • Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex
  • Aldosterone causes retention of water, which increases blood volume
  • The kidneys also produce prostaglandin E2 and prostacyclin, which help maintain renal blood flow through vasodilation.
  • These mechanisms, increase arterial BP and renal blood flow
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18
Q

Alcohol decreases?

A

The release of antidiuretic hormone, thus increasing urine production

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19
Q

Some drugs change the color of urine (e.g. phenazopyridine-orange, riboflavin-intense yellow)

A

.

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20
Q

Transient incontinence

A
  • caused by medical conditions
  • common reversible causes: delirium, inflammation, medications etc.
  • Nursing interventions: look for reversible causes, notify health care provider of any suspected reversible causes
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21
Q

Functional incontinence

A

Loss of continence because of causes outside urinary tract, usually related to functional deficits such as altered mobility and manual dexterity

  • toilet access restricted by: sensory impairments, cognitive impairments, altered mobility, etc.
  • nursing interventions: adequate lighting in bathroom, individualized toileting program, mobility aids
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22
Q

Goal and outcome

A

Goal: broad statement that describes a desired change in a patient such as a patient will understand postop risks.
Outcome: is measurable change such as a pt will know s/s and symptoms of wound infection

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23
Q

Which of the following factors does a nurse consider in setting priorities for a patient’s nursing diagnosis (select all that apply)

A

1) numbered order of diagnosis on the basis of severity
2) Notion of urgency for nursing action
3) Symptom pattern recognition suggesting a problem
4) Mutually agreed on priorities set w/pt
5) Time when a specific diagnosis was identified

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24
Q

Factors influencing urinary elimination

A

Growth and development, sociocultural factors, psychological factors, personal habits, fluid intake, pathological conditions, surgical procedures, medications, diagnostic exams

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25
Q

Postvoid residual (PVR)

A

The amount of urine left in the bladder after voiding and is measured either by ultrasound (bladder scan) or straight catherterization

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26
Q

Characteristics of urine

A

Color, clarity, odor

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27
Q

Patient education for a healthy bladder

A

Maintain adequate hydration, keep good voiding habits, keep the bowels regular, prevent UTIs, stop smoking

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28
Q

An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) involves what?

A

Intravenous injection of an iodine based contrast media. Patients that have had a previous hypersensitivity reaction to contrast media in the past are at high risk for another reaction. Informed consent is required. There is no need for a full bladder such as with a pelvic ultrasound or to save any urine for testing. There is no instrumentation of the urinary tract such as with cystoscopy

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29
Q

A post-op patient with a three-way indewelling urinary catheter and continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) complains of lower abdominal pain and distention. What should be the nurses initial intervention?

A

Assess intake and output

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30
Q

An appropriate first action would be to assess the patency of the drainage system. Urine output in the drainage urine and irritant, the irritant should be stopped immediately, the catheter may be occluded and the bladder distended

A

.

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31
Q

Pelvic muscle training is effective in treating

A

Stress urinary incontinence

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32
Q

Bladder retraining is?

A

Behavioral therapy

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33
Q

Behavioral therapy that includes pelvic muscle training should be offered as?

A

First-line treatment for stress, urge, and mixed incontinence in women of all ages

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34
Q

Common causes of constipation

A
  • irregular bowel habits and ignoring urge to defecate
  • chronic illnesses (parkinson’s, MS, rheumatoid arthritis, chronic bowel diseases, depression, eating disorders)
  • low-fiber diet high in animal fats (meats, and carbs); low fluid intake
  • stress (illness of family member, death of loved one, divorce)
  • physical inactivity
  • medications, especially use of opiates
  • changes in life or routine such as pregnancy, aging, travel
  • neurological conditions that block nerve impulses to the colon (stroke, spinal cord injury, tumor)
  • chronic bowel dysfunction (colonic inertia, irritable bowel)
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35
Q

Signs of dehydration in adults

A

Signs of dehydration in adults:

  • thirst
  • less frequent urination than usual
  • dark-colored urine
  • dry skin
  • fatique
  • dizziness
  • light-headedness
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36
Q

Signs of dehydration in infants and young children

A
  • dry mouth/tongue
  • no tears when crying
  • no wet diapers for 3 hours or more
  • sunken eyes or cheeks or soft spot in the skull
  • high fever
  • listlesness or irritability
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37
Q

The proper position for the patient on a bedpan is?

A

With the head of the bed elevated 30-45 degrees

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38
Q

Which skills must a patient with a new colostomy be taught before discharge from the hospital?

A
  • How to change the pouch
  • How to empty the pouch
  • How to open and close the pouch
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39
Q

Initial steps of chronic constipation

A

Increase fluid and fiber, exercise 30 min/day, schedule time to use the toilet every day

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40
Q

Frequent or continuous oozing of liquid stools occurs when?

A

Liquid fecal matter above the impacted stool seeps around the fecal impaction

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41
Q

pH

A

<7.35 is acidic

>7.45 is alkalosis

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42
Q

HCO

A

22-26

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43
Q

PaCO2

A

35-45

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44
Q

Left sided heart failure

A

Decreased function of left ventricle, resulting in decreased cardiac output

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45
Q

S/S of left sided heart failure

A

Fatigue, SOB, dizziness, and confusion due to tissue hypoxia and decrease cardiac output b/c left ventricle is failing, blood pools in the pulmonary circulation > pulmonary congestion

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46
Q

Clinical findings for left sided heart failure

A

Crackles, hypoxia, SOB on exertion, cough, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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47
Q

Right sided heart failure

A

Impaired function of right ventricle, results from pulmonary disease or long term left sided heart failure. Blood backs up in the systemic circulation

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48
Q

Clinical findings for right sided heart failure

A

Weight gain, distended neck veins, hepatomegaly and splenogaly, and dependent peripheral edema

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49
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function Heart

A

Muscle contraction
pathophysiological change: thickening of the ventricular wall, increased collagen and decreased elastin in the heart muscle
Clinical findings: Decreased cardiac output, diminished cardiac reserve

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50
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function blood flow

A

Pathophysiological change: Heart valves become thicker and stiffer, more often in the mitral and aortic valves
Clinical findings: systolic murmur

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51
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function conduction system

A
  • Pathophysiological change: SA node becomes fibrotic from calcification; decrease of number of pacemaker cells in SA node
  • Clinical findings: increased PR, QRS, Q-T intervals, decreased amplitude of QRS complex. Irregular heart rhythm
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52
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function arterial vessel compliance

A
  • Pathophysiological change: calcified vessels, loss of arterial distensibility, decreased elastin in vessel walls, more tortuous vessels
  • clinical findings: hypertension w/an increase in systolic blood pressure
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53
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function breathing mechanics

A
  • Pathophysiological change: decreased chest wall compliance, loss of elastic recoil. Decreased respiratory muscle mass/strength
  • clinical findings: prolonged exhalation phase. Decreased vital capacity
54
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function oxygenation

A
  • Pathophysiological change: Increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch. Decreased alveolar surface area. Decreased carbon dioxide diffusion capacity
  • clinical findings: Decreased PaO2, decreased cardiac output, slightly increased PaCO2
55
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function breathing control/breathing pattern

A
  • Pathophysiological change: decreased responsiveness of central and peripheral chemoreceptors to hypoxemia and hypercapnia
  • clinical findings: increased respiratory rate. Decreased tidal volume
56
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function lung defense mechanisms

A
  • Pathophysiological change: decreased number of cilia, decreased IgA production and humoral and cellular immunity
  • clinical findings: decreased airway clearance, diminished cough reflex, increased risk for infection
57
Q

Effects of aging on assessment findings of the cardiopulmonary system: function sleep and breathing

A
  • pathophysiological change: Decreased respiratory drive. Decreased tone of upper airway muscles
  • clinical findings: increased risk of aspiration and respiratory infection, decreased PaO2, snoring, obstructive sleep apnea
58
Q

Cause of Xanthelasma (yellow lipid lesions on eyelids)

A

Hyperlipidemia

59
Q

Cause of corneal arcus (whitish opaque ring around junction of cornea and sclera)

A

Abnormal finding in young to middle-age adults with hyperlipidemia (normal finding in older adults with arcus senilis)

60
Q

Cause of pale conjunctivae

A

anemia

61
Q

Cause of cyanotic conjunctivae

A

Hypoxemia

62
Q

Cause of petechiae on conjunctivae

A

Fat embolus or bacterial endocarditis

63
Q

Cause of cyanotic mucous membranes

A

Decreased oxygenation (hypoxia)

64
Q

Cause of pursed-lip breathing

A

Associated w/chronic lung disease

65
Q

Cause of distention (neck veins)

A

Associated w/right-sided heart failure

66
Q

Cause of flaring nares

A

Air hunger, dyspnea

67
Q

Cause of chest retractions

A

Increased work of breathing, dyspnea

68
Q

Cause of chest asymmetry

A

Chest wall injury

69
Q

Cause of skin peripheral cyanosis

A

Vasoconstriction and diminished blood flow

70
Q

Cause of central cyanosis

A

Hypoxemia

71
Q

Cause of decreased decreased skin turgor

A

Dehydration (normal finding in older adults as a result of decreased skin elasticity)

72
Q

Cause of dependent edema

A

Associated w/right and left sided heart failure

73
Q

Cause of periorbital edema

A

Associated with kidney disease

74
Q

Cause of cyanosis in fingertips and nail beds

A

Decreased cardiac output or hypoxia

75
Q

Cause of splinter hemorrhages of fingertips and nailbeds

A

Bacterial endocarditis

76
Q

Cause of clubbing

A

Chronic hypoxemia

77
Q

Low flow delivery oxygen delivery system: nasal cannula

A

FiO2 delivered: 1-6L/min: 24-44%
Advantages: Safe and simple, easily tolerated, effective for low concentrations, does not impede eating or talking, inexpensive, disposable
Disadvantages: unable to use w/nasal obstruction, drying to mucous membranes, can dislodge easily, may cause skin irriation or breakdown around ears or nares, pt’s breathing pattern (mouth or nasal) affects exact FiO2

78
Q

Low flow delivery oxygen delivery system: Simple face mask

A

FiO2: 6-12L/min: 35-50%
Advantages: useful for short periods such as patient transportation
-Disadvantages: contraindicated for patients who retain CO2, may induce feelings of claustrophobia, therapy interrupted with eating and drinking, increased risk of aspiration

79
Q

Low flow delivery oxygen delivery system: partial and nonrebreather masks

A
  • FiO2: 10-15L/min: 60-90%
  • Advantages: useful for short periods, delivers increased FiO2, easily humidifies O2, does not dry mucous membranes
  • Disadvantages: hot and confining; may irritate skin; tight seal necessary, interferes w/eating and talking, bag may twist or kink; should not totally deflate
80
Q

Low flow delivery oxygen delivery system: Oxygen-conserving cannula (oxymizer)

A
  • FiO2: 8L/min: up to 30-50%
  • Advantages: indicated for long term use O2 in home, allows increased O2 concentration and lower flow
  • Disadvantages: cannula cannot be cleaned, more expensive than standard cannula
81
Q

High-flow delivery devices: venturi mask

A
  • FiO2: 24-50%
  • Advantages: provides specific amount of oxygen with humidity added, administers low, constant O2
  • Disadvantages: mask and added humidity may irritate skin, therapy interrupted with eating and drinking, specific flow rate must be followed
82
Q

Extracellular volume deficit

A

Sudden weight loss (overnight), postural hypotension, tachycardia, thready pulse, dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, slow vein filling, flat neck veins when supine, dark yellow urine if severe; thirst, restlesness, confusion, hypotension; oliguria (urine output below 30ml/hr); cold, clammy skin; hypovolemic shock

83
Q

Extracellular volume excess

A

Sudden weight gain (overnight), edema (especially in dependent areas), full neck veins when upright or semi-upright or semi-upright, crackles in lungs. If severe: confusion, pulmonary edema

84
Q

Which assessment do you interpret as a transfusion reaction?

A

Chills, tachycardia, flushing

85
Q

To assess ECV deficit

A

Fullness of neck veins when supine (means good) if they are flat that means there is an ECV deficit

86
Q

Hypokalemia

A

SLOWS THINGS DOWN Bilateral muscle weakness that begins in quadriceps and may ascend to respiratory muscles, abdominal distention, decreased bowel sounds, constipation, dysrhythmias

87
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

SPEEDS THINGS UP Bilateral muscle weakness in quadriceps, transient abdominal cramps, diarrhea, dysrhythmias, cardiac arrest if severe

88
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

SPEEDS THINGS UP numbness and tingling of fingers, toes, and cicumoral (around mouth) region, positive Chvostek’s sign (contraction of facial muscles when facial nerve is tapped), hyperactive reflexes, muscle twitching and cramping; carpal and pedal spasms, tetany, seizures, laryngospasm, dysrhythmias

89
Q

UTI’s are usually caused by

A

Escherichia coli

90
Q

Typically a sense of urgency occurs when the bladder fills to?

A

400-600mL

91
Q

Several areas in the brain are involved in bladder control;

A

cerebral cortex, thalamus, hypothalamus and brainstem.

92
Q

There are two micturition centers in the spinal cord

A

one that coordinates inhibition of bladder contraction and the other that coordinates bladder contractility.

93
Q

In older adults, the ability to hold urine between the initial desire to void and an urgent need to void decreases. Older adults are at increased risk for?

A

urinary incontinence due to chronic illness and factors that interfere with mobility, cognition, and manual dexterity.

94
Q

*Important to note that ANY TIME the sterile urinary tract is catheterized, there is increased risk for?

A

infection. Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are usually caused by Escherichia coli. Symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (bladder) can include: burning or pain with urination (dysuria), irritation of the bladder (cystitis) characterized by urgency, frequency, incontinence, suprapubic tenderness, and foul-smelling cloudy urine.

95
Q

Most common urinary elimination problems involve?

A

The inability to store urine or fully empty the urine from the bladder, these issues can result from infection, irritable, or overactive bladder, obstruction of urine flow, impaired bladder contractility, or issues that impair innervation to the bladder resulting in sensory or motor dysfunction.

96
Q

Common forms of UI are?

A

urge or urgency UI (involuntary leakage associated with urgency) and stress UI (involuntary loss of urine associated with effort or exertion, on sneezing or coughing. Urinary incontinence associated with chronic retention of urine (formally called Overflow UI) is urine leakage caused by an overfull bladder

97
Q

All specimens collected and sent for laboratory testing need to be labeled with?

A

the patient’s name, date, time, and type of collection.

98
Q

The plan of care for urinary elimination alterations must include?

A

realistic and individualized goals along with relevant outcomes. Goals should be a collaborative effort between the nurse and the patient.

99
Q

It is important to establish priorities of care based on the?

A

patient’s immediate physical and safety needs, patient expectations and readiness to perform some self-care activities

100
Q

Maintaining normal urinary elimination helps to prevent many problems. Many measures that promote normal voiding are?

A

independent nursing interventions.

101
Q

Integrating the patient’s habits into the care plan fosters a more normal voiding pattern.

A

Create as much privacy as possible by closing the door and bedside curtain; asking visitors to leave a room when a bedside commode, bedpan, or urinal is used; and masking the sounds of voiding with running water. Respond to requests for assistance with toileting as quickly as possible. Avoid the use of incontinence containment products unless needed for uncontrolled urine leakage. Some containment products may be difficult to remove and interfere with prompt toilet access.

102
Q

Adequate fluid intake will help flush out solutes or particles that collect in the urinary system and decrease bladder irritability. If the patient needs to increase fluid intake, set a?

A

schedule for drinking extra fluids, identify fluid preferences, increase high fluid foods such as fruits, and encourage fluid intake in small volumes frequently. Excessive fluid intake should be avoided. To prevent nocturia, suggest that the patient avoid drinking fluids 2 hours before bedtime.

103
Q

Patients with indwelling catheters require regular perineal hygiene, especially after a bowel movement, to reduce the risk for?

A

CAUTI.

104
Q

A critical part of routine catheter care is reducing the risk for CAUTI. A key intervention to prevent infection is?

A

maintaining a closed urinary drainage system. Another key intervention is prevention of urine back flow from the tubing and bag into the bladder.

105
Q

Prompt removal of an indwelling catheter after no longer needed is a key intervention that has proven to decrease the incidence and prevalence of?

A

HAUTI (hospital-acquired urinary tract infections) and is one of the ”never events” identified by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).

106
Q

Teach patients about foods and fluids that cause bladder irritation and increase symptoms such as frequency, urgency, and incontinence. Teach patients to avoid common irritants such as?

A

artificial sweeteners, spicy foods, citrus products, and especially caffeine. Encourage patients with edema to elevate the feet for a minimum of a few hours in the afternoon to help diminish nighttime voiding frequency.

107
Q

Age influences bowel elimination

A

Older adults may have decreased chewing ability. Peristalsis declines and esophageal emptying slows. This impairs absorption by the intestinal mucosa. Muscle tone in the perineal floor and anal sphincter weakens, and may cause difficulty in controlling defecation.

108
Q

Regular daily food intake helps maintain a regular pattern of peristalsis in the colon. Fiber in the diet provides the?

A

bulk in the fecal material. Bulk-forming foods help remove the fats and waste products from the body. Some foods may also produce gas, which distends the intestinal walls and increases colonic motility.

109
Q

While individual fluid needs vary with the person, however, recommended fluid intake, again, is about?

A

2.5L daily. Fluid liquefies intestinal contents by absorbing into the fiber from the diet and creating a larger, softer stool mass. This increases peristalsis and promotes movement of stool through the colon.

110
Q

Physical activity promotes?

A

Peristalsis.

111
Q

Prolonged emotional stress impairs the function of almost all body systems. During emotional stress, the digestive process is?

A

accelerated and peristalsis is increased.

112
Q

Constipation is a symptom, not a disease, and there are many possible causes.

A

Improper diet, reduced fluid intake, lack of exercise and certain medications can cause constipation. When intestinal motility slows, the fecal mass becomes exposed over time to the intestinal walls and most of the fecal water content is absorbed. Little water is left to soften and lubricate the stool. Constipation is a significant source of discomfort

113
Q

Sigmoid colostomy

A

more formed stool

114
Q

Transverse colostomy

A

thick liquid to soft consistency

115
Q

Ileostomy

A

fecal effluent leaves the body before it enters the colon, creating frequent, liquid stools

116
Q

Fluid homeostasis is the dynamic interplay of three processes

A

Fluid intake and absorption, fluid distribution, and fluid output. To maintain fluid balance, fluid intake must equal fluid output. Because some of the normal daily fluid output (e.g., urine, sweat) is a hypotonic salt solution, people must have an equivalent fluid intake of hypotonic sodium-containing fluid (or water plus foods with some salt) to maintain fluid balance (intake equal to output).

117
Q

Fluid intake occurs orally through drinking but also through eating because most foods contain some water. Food metabolism creates additional water. Average fluid intake from these routes for healthy adults is about

A

2300mL, although this amount can vary widely depending on exercise habits, preferences, and the environment. Other routes of fluid intake include intravenous (IV), rectal (e.g., enemas), and irrigation of body cavities that can absorb fluid.

118
Q

Fluid output normally occurs through four organs

A

the skin, lungs, GI tract, and kidneys.

119
Q

The GI tract plays a vital role in fluid balance.

A

Approximately 3 to 6L of fluid moves into the GI tract daily and then returns again to the ECF. The average adult normally excretes only 100mL of fluid each day through feces. However, diarrhea causes a large fluid output from the GI tract.

120
Q

The kidneys are the major regulator of fluid output because they respond to hormones that influence urine production.

A

When healthy adults drink more water, they increase urine production to maintain fluid balance. If they drink less water, sweat a lot, or lose fluid by vomiting, their urine volume decreases to maintain fluid balance. These adjustments primarily are caused by the actions of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), and atrial natriuretic peptides (ANPs).

121
Q

ADH regulates the osmolality of the body fluids by influencing how much water is excreted in urine. It is synthesized by?

A

neurons in the hypothalamus that release it from the posterior pituitary gland. ADH circulates in the blood to the kidneys, where it acts on the collecting ducts.

122
Q

People normally have some ADH release to maintain fluid balance. More ADH is released if body fluids become more concentrated. Factors that increase ADH levels include?

A

severely decreased blood volume (e.g., dehydration, hemorrhage), pain, stressors, and some medications.

123
Q

The RAAS regulates ECF volume by influencing?

A

how much sodium and water are excreted in urine. It also contributes to regulation of blood pressure.

124
Q

Aldosterone circulates to the kidneys, where it causes ?

A

resorption of sodium and water in isotonic proportion in the distal renal tubules. Removing sodium and water from the renal tubules and returning it to the blood increases the volume of the ECF.

125
Q

To maintain fluid balance, normally some action of the?

A

RAAS occurs

126
Q

ANP also regulates ECV by?

A

influencing how much sodium and water are excreted in urine. Cells in the atria of the heart release ANP when they are stretched (e.g., by an increased ECV). ANP is a weak hormone that inhibits ADH by increasing the loss of sodium and water in the. Thus ANP opposes the effect of aldosterone.

127
Q

Sodium imbalances:

A

contribute to cerebral dysfunction (confusion, lethargy)

128
Q

Potassium imbalances:

A

Potentially life threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, cardiac arrest

129
Q

Calcium imbalances:

A

neuromuscular excitability, hypercalcemia= lethargy

130
Q

Magnesium imbalances:

A

neuromuscular excitability, lethargy, decreased DTR critically low magnesium levels can lead to lethal cardiac dysrhythmias

131
Q

Environment: hot environments increase fluid output through sweating. Sweat is a hypotonic sodium-containing fluid. Excessive sweating without adequate replacement of salt and water can lead to ECV deficit, hypernatremia, or clinical dehydration. Ask patients about their normal level of physical work and whether they engage in vigorous exercise in hot environments. Do patients have fluid replacements containing salt available during exercise and physical activity?

A

Environment: hot environments increase fluid output through sweating. Sweat is a hypotonic sodium-containing fluid. Excessive sweating without adequate replacement of salt and water can lead to ECV deficit, hypernatremia, or clinical dehydration. Ask patients about their normal level of physical work and whether they engage in vigorous exercise in hot environments. Do patients have fluid replacements containing salt available during exercise and physical activity?