Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, Bordella Pertussis, and the Influenza virus all go through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for their portal of entry. A. GI Tract B. Respiratory Tract C. GU Tract D. Skin E. Parenteral
A
B. Respiratory
2
Q
Bordetella Pertussis is also known as what? A. Hepatitis B. Whooping Cough C. Gastric Ulcer Disease D. Cholera
A
B. Whooping Cough
3
Q
Escherichia Coli, Listera Monocytogenes, Vibrio Cholerae, Helicobacter pylori all enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. GI Tract B. Respiratory C. GU Tract D. Skin E. Parenteral
A
A.GI Tract
4
Q
Neisseria Gonnorhea, Chlamydia Trachomatis, and the HIV virus all enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. GI Tract B. Respiratory C. GU Tract D. Skin E. Parenteral
A
C. GU Tract
5
Q
Colstdriuim pefringes, and Staphyoloccus Areus all enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. GI Tract B. Respiratory C. GU Tract D. Skin E. Parenteral
A
D. Skin
6
Q
Hepatitis B and C virus, and Plasmodium species enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. GI Tract B. Respiratory C. GU Tract D. Skin E. Parenteral
A
E. Parenteral
7
Q
Flu can also spread through _____.
A
tears
8
Q
HIV is not typically found in _____.
A
Tears
9
Q
Is COVID direct contact transmission?
A
Yes
10
Q
The transmission of pathogens through water, food, and air.
A
Vehicle transmission
11
Q
You can contract hepatitis A from _____ and ____ through vehicle transmission.
A
Food and Water
12
Q
The WHO says that 17% of all infectious diseases are ______ born.
A
Vector
13
Q
______ alone causes half of the 17% of infectious diseases that are vector born.
A
Malaria
14
Q
What cycle should you watch if your patient has Malaria?
A
Fever
15
Q
Broad-Spectrum antibiotics can lead to what?
A
C. Diff
16
Q
True or False- Transplant patients are a very compromised host.
A
True
17
Q
Are burn patients a compromised host? If so, what type of burns (1st degree etc) are at risk?
A
Yes and Patients with a 3rd degree burn are at an even higher risk.
18
Q
A compromised host is one that is MORE LIKELY to develop an ___________.
A
Opportunistic Infection
19
Q
A pathogen that is very virulent will cause disease in _______.
A
Everyone
20
Q
What are the top five Hospital Acquired Infections?
A
S. Areus, E. Coli, Enteroccous Sp., C. Diff, Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
21
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the rate of new (or newly diagnosed) cases of the disease contracted into a set population in a certain time period. (month, year, season) A. Incidence of Disease B. Prevalence C. Morbidity Rate D. Mortality Rate
A
A. Incidence of Disease
22
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the total number of people infected with a disease in a set population at any given time. (May not have seasonal variance) A. Incidence of Disease B. Morbidity Rate C. Mortality Rate D. Prevalence
A
D. Prevalence
23
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the number of individuals affected by the disease during a set period DIVIDED BY the total population. A. Incidence of Disease B. Morbidity Rate C. Mortality Rate D. Prevalence
A
B. Morbidity Rate
24
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the number of deaths due to a specific disease during a specific time period DIVIDED by the total population. A. Incidence of Disease B. Morbidity Rate C. Mortality Rate D. Prevalence
A
C. Mortality Rate
25
```
_______ is Random and unpredictable typically pose no threat to public health. (HantaVirus New Mexico)
A. Sporadic Diseases
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Epidemic
E. Common Source Outbreak
F. Propogated Epidemic
```
A. Sporadic Diseases
26
```
______ is what we’re living in. When the disease occurs in epidemic proportions around the world.
A. Sporadic Diseases
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Epidemic
E. Common Source Outbreak
F. Propogated Epidemic
```
C. Pandemic
27
```
_______ is Strep throat, mononucleosis. Person to Person spread. (saliva, airsol, coughing) (Flu)
A. Sporadic Diseases
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Epidemic
E. Common Source Outbreak
F. Propogated Epidemic
```
F. Propogated Epidemic
28
The numbers of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the _________
Incidence rate
29
```
______ is when a group of people are all exposed to an infectious agent or a toxin from the same source. (Legionnaires Disease, air conditioner)
A. Sporadic Diseases
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Epidemic
E. Common Source Outbreak
F. Propogated Epidemic
```
E. Common Source Outbreak
30
```
________ occurs when the incidence of the disease becomes higher than normal or what we’re expecting
A. Sporadic Diseases
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Epidemic
E. Common Source Outbreak
F. Propogated Epidemic
```
D. Epidemic
31
```
_______ is a disease that is constantly in a population but in numbers too low to be a public health problem. Causes more problems for a compromised host.
A. Sporadic Diseases
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Epidemic
E. Common Source Outbreak
F. Propogated Epidemic
```
B. Endemic
32
Chlamydia in patients ages 5 years and above is or is not reportable.
IS
33
Salmonella in patients ages 4 and below is or is not considered reportable.
IS
34
True or False you report all cases of Pertussis no matter what the patient's age is.
True
35
True or False you report all cases of Campy no matter what a person's age is.
True
36
What can broad spectrum antibiotics lead to?
C Diff
37
Why do we notify disease surveillance?
So we can stop it before it causes a really big outbreak.
38
Endotoxins are secreted by _______
pathogenic organisms
39
Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ______
true pathogens
40
The terms infection refers to ___________________________
pathogens penetrating host defenses
41
_______ is a preparation of a pathogen or its products used to induce active immunity.
Vaccine
42
_______ immunity is when you come in contact with something and YOUR BODY fights it off and produces antibodies.
Active
43
If a large enough number of individuals can be immunized, ______ immunity is achieved and the transmission of communicable diseases among people is interrupted.
herd
44
_______ immunity is also herd immunity.
Community
45
______ means that your body PRODUCES an IMMUNE RESPONSE. YOU FORMED THE RESPONSE. There are two types.
Active
46
_______ ______ _____ is where you got an infection (cold, virus, bacteria) and your body responded and developed antibodies. Some bacteria your body cannot form an active immunity (UTI- because the microbes are able to change and aren’t stable enough) Your body develops antibodies.
Naturally Acquired Active Immunity
47
_______ ______ ______ this is where vaccines come into play. Health care workers introduce antigens into vaccines, they inject it or have someone consume it. Your body develops antibodies.
Artificially Acquired Active Immunity
48
_______ _______this is where antibodies or protective cells are in something and they are passed on to you but they are passed on to you in that form and your body didn’t have to do anything to develop it and there passive as in they don’t last long, for a few months or weeks.
Passive Immunization
49
_______ ______ ______ _____is like when you're born, Your mother transferred IGG through the placenta, why we're concerned with organisms and pathogens bc they can pass through the placenta. Breastfeed- double protected: Secretory IGA.
Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity
50
______ _________ _______ is When you get preformed antibodies. If you have a pt who has HEP B or HIV, so instead of waiting to see if you contracted it you can get plasma from someone else and they purify it and inject it into you, flooding your body with IGG. (Immunoglobulin shot) If you’ve been bitten by a snake we can give you an antitoxin that will flood your body that will bind to the toxin to keep you from dying.
Artificially Acquired Passive
51
Many vaccines are given in _________ to protect against infections that are usually acquired early in life.
childhood
52
The objective of ______ immunization is to provide transient protection against a particular infection.
passive
53
At what age can you start to give the Hep B vaccine?
Between 1 to 2 months.
54
What age do you continue to give the Hep B vaccine?
From 6 to 18 months.
55
The DTaP shot can be given at what age?
15 to 18 months.
56
PCV 13 and Hib shots are both given at.....
between 12 to 15 months.
57
IPV shot is given between....
6 to 18 months.
58
You can start giving the Influenza shot yearly at what age?
6 months
59
Two doses given at four weeks apart are recommended for which vaccine?
Influenza
60
Your MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) and your varicella vaccines are given at what age?
12 to 15 months.
61
Hep A vaccine can be given...
12 months and older
62
How many doses of the Hep A vaccine are needed for life long protection?
Two
63
When should you receive the second dose of your Hep A vaccine?
6 to 18 months later.
64
Name the vaccines we currently have.
Chickenpox (varicella) , Diptheria, Hib (influenzae type B), Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Influenza (Flu), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR), Pertussis (Whooping Cough), Polio, Pneumoccocal, Rotavirus, Tetanus
65
Are vaccination schedules modifiable?
Yes
66
If a patient is 65 years of age or older, what shots should they be getting?
Pneumoccocal and Shingles
67
Does being deprived of good nutrition make you susceptible for new diseases?
Yes `
68
What are some factors that could make a patient more at risk for infection/ new disease?
Underlying medical conditions, nutritional status, age, efficacy.
69
High levels of IgG - and igM is lower- the infection is ____ ____
not new and it has been going on.
70
High levels of what indicates we have had a recent infection?
IgM
71
______ stimulates antibody production.
Antigen
72
In children under ___ months, the ____ (____ ____) is routinely used for vaccinations.
36 months, thigh (vastus lateralis)
73
If someone is allergic to EGGS what vaccination should we NOT give them?
Influenza
74
People who do not vaccinate their children fear that their children could experience what?
serious side effects
75
People who do not vaccinate their kids also fear what?
Autism, and they believe children get too many shots.
76
_____ people are usually the ones who are not vaccinated.
Wealthier
77
________ has been attempted to be used as a biological weapon.
Smallpox
78
_______ are protein filaments that extend like long tails from the cell membranes of certain gram positive and gram negative bacteria.
Flagella
79
Does a vibrio cholera have a single, many, or no flagella?
single flagella
80
Does E. Coli have single, many, or no flagella?
many flagella
81
Does Proteus Mirabilis have a single, many, or no flagella?
many flagella
82
Does Shigella have single, many, or no flagella?
no flagella
83
_____ ______ occur with UTI's, wound infections, and stinks. They have many flagella.
Proteus Mirabilis
84
flagellum to spirochetes are _____
internal
85
Mirella madorphia is associated with _____ ____.
Is it internal?
Is it mobile?
Lyme disease, yes, yes
86
Treponema Palldidum is associated with _____.
Is it internal?
Is it mobile?
syphilis, yes, yes
87
Pili look like little _____
thorns
88
Does a pili have circular DNA?
Yes
89
Fimbria ____ to things.
stick
90
____ ____ is required form mating (conjugation)
Sex Pili
91
______ _______ bind to cervical cells and buccal cells. These enzymes deactivate IGA.
Neisseria Gonorrhea
92
______ ______ adhesion binds to ciliated respiratory cells and causes whooping cough.
Bordetella Pertussis
93
_ ___ and ____ ______ cannot cause diarrhea without their adhesions to bind to the intestinal epithelium.
E. Coli and Campylobacter jejuni
94
______ are protective walls that surround the cell membranes of gram positive and gram negative bacteria.
Capsules
95
______ enable bacteria to be more virulent because macrophages and neutrophils are unable to phagocytize them.
Capsules
96
Smooth means _____.
Virulent
97
Rough means ________.
Not virulent
98
_ ________ vaccine contains antigens from the 23 most common types of capsules.
S. Pneumoniae
99
Is Bacillus aerobic or anerobic?
Aerobic
100
Is C. Diff aerobic or anerobic?
Anaerobic
101
Bacillus look like _____
string
102
C. Diff is ____
small
103
_____ are formed by 2 genera of bacteria, both of which are gram positive. (bacillus & C. Diff)
Endospores
104
Endospores are metabolically _____ forms of bacteria that are resistant to certain things.
Dormant
105
What are endospores are resistant to?
Heat (boiling), cold, drying and chemical agents, low nutrient conditions, radiation
106
______ is an extracellular polysaccharide network, that forms a mechanical scaffold around bacteria.
Biofilm
107
______ allow bacteria to bind to prosthetic devices (Iv, catheters) and protects them from attack by antibiotics and the immune system.
Biofilm
108
________ _______ often forms biofilms on intravascular catheters & leeches out to cause bacteremia and catheter related sepsis.
Staphylococcus Epidermis
109
_______ _____ _____ (___) is secreted by the organisms in the biofilm.
Extracellular Polymeric Substances (EPS)
110
Are biofilms difficult or easy to treat with antibiotics?
Difficult
111
What is the FIRST stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?
The reversible attachment of planktonic cells (takes seconds)
112
What is the SECOND stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?
the first colonizers become irreversibly attached.
113
What is the THIRD stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?
growth and cell division
114
What is the FOURTH stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?
Production of EPS and formation of water channels.
115
What is the FIFTH stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?
Attachment of secondary colonizers and dispersion of microbes to new sites.
116
_______ _______ bacteria are phagocytosed by macrophages and neutrophils yet survive within these WBC's unharmed.
Facultative Intracellular Bacteria
117
Increased neutrophils mean that the infection is ______
bacterial
118
What are the 8 bacterial pathogenesis? (Listen Sally Yer Friend Bruce Must Leave Now)
Listeria monocytogenes, salmonella typhi, Yesenia, Francisella tularensis, Brucella, mycobacterium, legionella, Nocardia.
119
______ are proteins that are released by both gram positive and gram negative bacteria. But mostly gram positive.
Exotoxins
120
What gram negative bacteria secretes exotoxins?
V. Cholera, E. Coli,
121
What are some severe diseases that can be caused by exotoxins?
Anthrax (gram positive) (Saddam Husseins threatened germ warfare agent), Botulisms (gram positive) , tetanus (gram positive), and Cholera (gram negative)
122
_______ are exotoxins that act n the nerves or motor endplates to cause paralysis.
Neurotoxins
123
What are some examples of neurotoxins?
tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin
124
_______ - tetanospasm
lock jaw
125
________ are exotoxins that act on the GI tract to cause diarrhea. They inhibit NaCl reabsorption activate NaCl secretion or kill intestinal epithelial cells.
Enterotoxins
126
The common end result of _______ is the osmotic pull of fluid into the intestine which causes diarrhea. (losing NaCl)
Enterotoxins
127
The enterotoxins cause _ disease manifestations.
2
128
______ _____ is where bacteria colonize and bind to the GI tract, continue releasing their enterotoxins locally. And diarrhea will continue until the bacteria are destroyed by the immune system or antibiotics.
Infectious Diarrhea
129
What are some examples of Infectious diarrhea?
Vibrio cholera, E. Coli, Campy, Shigella dysenteriae
130
____ ____ is when bacteria grow in food and release enterotoxin in the food.
Food Poisioning
131
What are some examples of bacteria that cause food poisoning?
Bacillus cereus (rice products) Staphylococcus Areus, and salmonella
132
______ _____ stimulate the release of cytokines and can cause a rash, fever, and toxic shock syndrome.
Pyrogenic Exotoxins
133
What are some examples of Pyrogenic Exotoxins?
S. Areus, and S. Pyogenes
134
_____ _______ _____ allow bacteria to destroy and tunnel through tissues. These include enzymes that destroy DNA, Collagen, Fibrin, NAD, and RBC's and WBC's.
Tissue Invasive Exotoxins
135
What is an example of a tissue invasive exotoxin?
Necrotising Fasciitis
136
______ is a piece of the OUTER membrane lipopolysaccharide of gram NEGATIVE bacteria.
Endotoxin
137
______ is VERY toxic and is released when the bacterial cell undergoes lysis. They also shed is steady amounts from living bacteria.
Endotoxins
138
Sometimes treating a patient with a antibiotic who has a _____ _____ infection could worsen the patients condition because the bacteria are lysed and releasing large quantities of endotoxin.
Gram NEGATIVE
139
Endotoxins pathogenic to humans have only been confirmed in ____ ____ bacteria
gram negative
140
____ _____ people world wide are affected by sepsis.
26 million
141
____ are diagnosed each year in the US.
1.6 million
142
It is the ___ leading cause of death.
3rd
143
It has a __-___ % mortality rate.
25 to 30%
144
It is the #__ cause of hospital readmission in the US.
#1
145
____ of septic patients enter the hospital through the emergency department.
2/3
146
____ is bacteria in the bloodstream.
Bacteremia
147
_______ can occur silently and without symptoms.
Bacteremia
148
____ ____ ____ results in transient bacteremia
brushing your teeth
149
_____ refers to bacteremia that causes a systemic immune response to infection.
Sepsis
150
Septic patients are described as " _____ ____"
looking sick
151
What are some responses sepsis can cause?
high or low temperature, the elevation of WBC, and fast heart rhythm or breathing rate
152
What is the most important principle in the treatment of septic shock?
find the site of infection and the bug responsible and eradicate it.
153
The ____ is the most common site for septic shock followed by the _____ and ____ ___
lungs, abdomen, and urinary tract
154
In 1/3 cases a site of infection is / is not identified?
is not
155
It increases or decreases mortality if an antibiotic is delayed?
increases
156
______ have long been considered to be of potential use in the treatment of sepsis because of their anti-inflammatory properties and beneficial effects on vascular tone.
Corticosteroids
157
Blood pressure must be supported with _____ and _____ & ____ maintained in regards to sepsis.
fluids & drugs (dopamine & norepinephrine) & oxygen level. (intubation and mechanical ventilation is often required)
158
What are the 4 bacteria that produce exotoxins that increase the levels of CAMP?
Cholera, Anthrax, Montezumas Revenge, Pertussis
