exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F the codon UGA, in some cases may act as a stop codon in mRNA

A

True

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2
Q

T/F anticodon CGI in tRNA may pair with GCU codon of an mRNA molecule

A

True

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3
Q

T/F mRNA is translated in the 3’ to 5’ direction

A

False

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4
Q

T/F Binding of RNA polymerase II to DNA requires the presence of translation factor

A

False

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5
Q

T/F During translation, the mRNA codon AUG is recognized by the amino acid methionine attached to the tRNA containing UAC anticodon

A

True

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6
Q

5’ capping, addition of 3’ poly A tail, and removal of introns to generate a final mRNA from the primary RNA transcript that serves as its precursor

A

modification and processing

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7
Q

portion of a gene containing TATA box, CAAT box, GC box and Enhancer base sequences

A

Promoter

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8
Q

it assembles at editsomes and corrects the mRNA transcript if it is different from the corresponding gene

A

guide RNA

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9
Q

A portion of DNA, the first codon of which is TAC at the 3’ end, and the last codon of which could be ATC at its 5’end

A

Gene

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10
Q

A core promoter, proximal control elements and a transcription unit in DNA

A

activation

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11
Q

The process of copying the DNA to make two identical DNA’s

A

replication

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12
Q

The transmission of genetic cod from a gene to an mRNA

A

transcription

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13
Q

The process of decoding the genetic message in mRNA

A

translation

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14
Q

the linear sequence of bases in the DNA molecule that determines the linear sequence in an mRNA, which determines the amino acid sequence in a protein

A

genetic code

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15
Q

Binding of tRNA and some other components to the ribosomes, transpeptidation and translocation of the empty tRNA

A

elongation

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16
Q

If a GAA codon from glutamine mutated to GUA, which now codes for valine, this will be considered ____ type of point mutation

A

missense

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17
Q

If a UUA codon for leucine mutated to UAA, which now becomes a stop codon, this will be considered ___ type of point mutation

A

nonsense

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18
Q

T/F cancer cells prevent the shortening of their chromosomal telomeres by self-destructing their telomerase enzyme, which stabilizes the telomere length

A

False

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19
Q

T/F Elongation of protein synthesis occurs at the A site of the ribosome

A

True

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20
Q

Decodes the message during translation

A

tRNA

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21
Q

codes for protein

A

mRNA

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22
Q

components of ribosome and acts as ribozyme

A

rRNA

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23
Q

synthesizes leading and lagging sttrands

A

DNA polymerase III

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24
Q

joins together adjacent Okazaki pieces after the removal of RNA protein

A

DNA ligase

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25
removes RNA primers and fills the gap
DNA polymerase I
26
promotes separation of the 2 DNA strands by inducing negative supercoiling
topoisomerase (gyrase)
27
What can occur in the development of cancer?
angiogenesis occurs, cells are immortal, and cell metastasize (no benign cell growth)
28
T/F oncogenesis caused by a retrovirus is by radiation, loss of tumor-suppressing gene, or a carcinogen activates the latent provirus gene which causes the transformation of a normal cell into a cancer cell
True
29
in regulation of protein synthesis, if the enzyme is not synthesized it is called___ whereas if the enzyme is synthesized, but its activity suppressed it is called___
enzyme repression, end-product inhibition
30
T/F Xeroderma pigmentosum have reverse transcriptase activity
False (retroviruse) -are sensitive to sunlight, their skin cells are unable to repair thymine dimers, develop freckling, and may develop melanoma
31
CTC codon in hemoglobin gene changed to CAC
sickle cell anemia
32
an abnormal growth of new tissue forming a lump that stays within the original tissue
neoplasm
33
the development of blood supply by the cancerous cells
angiogenesis
34
Several cell cycle checkpoints regulate progression through the cell cycle. These include ____ checkpoint
G1, G2, S phase
35
T/F formation of chiasma occurs in mitosis
false | -disappearance of the nuclear membrane and nucleoli, formation of spindle apparatus, and separation of sister chromatids
36
the nucleus has the following functions
cell's command center, contains genes, and is thus involved in heredity
37
Which enzyme is NOT involved in DNA repair process
DNA polymerase III
38
Assume that you have an mRNA, which is 27-base long (including the initiator codon AUG and the sop codon UAA). During or after protein synthesis, the 5' end methionine was cleaved off. In addition, one codon was removed due to mutation, but that did not affect protein synthesis, and it went on as usual. The completed polypeptide chain would have how many amino acid in it?
6
39
growth due to excess multiplication of cells
neoplasm
40
noncancerous growth
benign tumor
41
cancer arising form connective tissue
sarcoma
42
proliferation of leukocytes
leukemia
43
tumor of epithelial cells
carcinoma
44
If mutation occurs in the DNA and DNA repair is unsuccessful for some reason, P53 prevent proliferation of the genetically damaged cell by triggering cell suicide, a process commonly known as
apoptosis
45
Transcription in eukaryotic cells is directly involved with what flow of genetic information
DNA to RNA
46
Processing the primary mRNA transcript is necessary because:
introns have to be cut out since they don't make genetic sense
47
Which one is not part of the "promoter" in DNA
operator | -TATA sequence, enhancer, CAAT sequence
48
as the ribosome moves along each mRNA codon, additional amino acids are transferred into place by ___-RNA_____ bonds from bw adjacent AA with the help of an enzyme provided by the
tRNA; Peptide; ribosome
49
UV radiation to DNA causes mutation by replacing a purine by pyrimidine. This is known as..
Transversion
50
High fat consumption is the dietary factor associated with high risk of the development of all but which type of cancer
colon cancer
51
The genetic code is degenerate. This means that
a. the codons AUG, and sometimes GUG act as a start codons B. most codons differ only in their third base in the nucleotide C. The genetic code is universal D. Several codons specify the same amino acid E. The genetic cold degenerates after each replication
52
An enhancer in the promoter is crucial for the following functions except:
enhances transcription of the gene upstream - is the "entry point" of DNA for RNA polymerase II enzyme - May alter DNA's topography - May mediate selective gene expression
53
Introns contain the information for making a polypeptide
False
54
In telophase I of meiosis, each chromosome in each cell has only one DNA
false
55
Alfotoxin B1 is potent antioxidant which prevents the development of cancer
False
56
Most protein synthesis occurs in the
cytoplasm
57
The difference bw DNA and RNA are in
- number of strands in a molecule - base composition - sugar composition - Rate of synthesis and degradation of the average molecule
58
The following are true of messenger RNA exept
DNA codons. GCA becomes mRNA condon CGT - When DNA unwinds in the synthesis of mRNA, only one of the two DNA chains is used to form a single mirror-image chain of mRNA - the formation of mRNA does not involve making a mirror -image of the entire DNA molecule - DNA codon CGT becomes mRNA codon GCA
59
What is the name of the bond which is formed bw two amino acids during protein synthesis?
peptide bond
60
An operon is
a group of structural genes
61
Activation of the repressor substance will
A stop biological synthesis
62
When E.coli is grown in a medium to which histidine is added all the enzymes required for the synthesis of histidine are simultaneously inhibited. What is the process called?
enzyme repression