exam 2 Flashcards
What pacemaker in the heart has an intrinsic rate of 60-100 beats per minute? Select one: a. Bundle of His b. Ductus arteriosis c. SA Node d. AV Node
c. SA Node
The negative electrode is placed on the right arm, the positive electrode is placed on the left leg, the ground lead is on the left arm. This represents the correct lead placement for what Lead? Select one: a. Lead II. b. Lead III. Incorrect c. MCL Lead. d. Lead I.
a. Lead II.
What refractory phase happens when the ventricles depolarize? Select one: a. relative b. negative c. Common d. Absolute
d. absolute
What is the inherent pacing rate of the AV junction? Select one: a. 60-100 b. 40-60 Correct c. 20-40 d. 10-20
b. 40-60
What is the amount of blood ejected by the heart during one cardiac contraction known as? Select one: a. Ejection fraction b. Diastolic volume c. Cardiac cycle d. Stroke volume
d. stroke volume
What does S-T segment elevation greater than 0.1 mV in at least two contiguous leads indicate? Select one: a. Active ischemia b. Type II heart block c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Unstable angina
c. Acute myocardial infarction
How does the blood flow through the heart?
Select one:
a. Right atrium to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium to left ventricle
b. Right ventricle to right atrium to lungs to left ventricle to left atrium
c. Left atrium to left ventricle to lungs to right atrium to right ventricle
d. Left ventricle to left atrium to lungs to right ventricle to right atrium
a. right atrium to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium ventricle
During the action potential of a cardiac cell, what causes the initial conformational change in the sodium-potassium pump? Select one: a. Calcium b. Adenosine triphosphate c. Sodium and potassium d. Slow channel ion gates
b. adenosine triphosphate
What specialized bands of tissue are inserted between myocardial cells that increase the rate of cellular conduction? Select one: a. Atrial syncytium b. Purkinje system c. Internodal paths d. Intercalated discs
d. intercalated discs
What is the period of the cardiac cycle when stimulation will not produce any depolarization? Select one: a. Impulse refractory period b. Transient refractory period c. Relative refractory period d. absolute refractory period
d. absolute refractory period
The spread of an electrical impulse through the ventricles that normally measures 0.08-0.12 seconds in length is represented on an ECG as the Select one: a. Atrial complex. b. P wave. c. T wave. d. QRS complex.
d. QRS complex.
In what leads does ST elevation suggest an anterior wall MI? Select one: a. aVR, aVL, and aVF b. V3, V4 c. V1, V2
b. V3, V4
What is the most effective way to terminate ventricular fibrillation? Select one: a. Defibrillation b. Amiodarone c. Cardioversion d. Chest compressions
a. Defibrillation
What does the P wave represent with an ECG? Select one: a. Atrial depolarization b. Atrial repolarization c. Ventricular depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization
a. Atrial depolarization
Which of the following terms best describes ventricular filling? Select one: a. Afterload b. Diastole c. Preload d. Systole
b. Diastole
What structure has baroreceptors? Select one: a. Ventricular wall b. Atrioventricular node c. Vena cava d. aortic arch
d. aortic arch
What does chronotropy refer to? Select one: a. Blood pressure b. Stroke volume c. Heart rate d. Cardiac output
c. heart rate
One way to increase preload is fluid administration. This affects Select one: a. Poiseuille's Law. b. Hans Mobitz Reflex. c. Hering-Breuer Reflex. d. Frank Starling's Law.
d. Frank Starling’s Law.
An alert 65 year old male speaks in 2 word dyspnea. He has a 10 year cardiac history. Lung sounds reveal crackles in the bases with expiratory wheezing. Vital signs are BP 140/90, P 110, R 30. What should you do? Select one: a. Acquire a 12 lead ECG b. Obtain IV access c. Administer aspirin d. ,Administer nitroglycerin
c. administer aspirin
When viewing a three channel cardiac monitor, leads I and II display artifact, and lead III shows a clear reading. Based on Einthoven's Triangle, you should Select one: a. replace the right arm electrode. b. discontinue cardiac monitoring. c. monitor the patient by paddles. d. monitor only in lead III.
a. replace the right arm electrode.
What is the initial effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the heart?
Select one:
a. Increase the heart rate and decrease stroke volume.
b. Decrease the heart rate and decrease stroke volume.
c. Increase the heart rate and increase stroke volume.
d. Decrease the heart rate and increase stroke volume.
b. Decrease the heart rate and decrease the stroke volume.
A 57 year old male complains of chest pain, shortness of breath and nausea. A 12 lead ECG shows ST elevation in Ieads V2, V3 and V4. What should you administer? Select one: a. Dopamine and oxygen. b. Epinephrine and nitroglycerin. c. Nitroglycerine and oxygen. d. Aspirin and oxygen.
d. Aspirin and oxygen.
Which of the following has the thickest muscle wall? Select one: a. Atrial epicardium b. Parietal endocardium c. Ventricular myocardium d. Visceral pericardium
c. Ventricular myocardium
Where are the first electrical impulses stimulating the heart located? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Myocardium c. Aorta Valve d. Left atrium
a. Right atrium
What does the P-R interval represent? Select one: a. Atrial repolarization and filling b. Atrial depolarization and A-V delay c. Ventricular depolarization. d. A-V delay and ventricular repolarization.
b. atrial depolarization and A-V delay
When measuring the R-R interval, you note three large boxes in between. What would the heart rate be? Select one: a. 100 beats/min b. 150 beats/min c. 75 beats/min d. 60 beats/min
a. 100 beats/min
What is the inherent rate for the AV node? Select one: a. 150-250/min b. 20-40/min c. 60-100/min d. 40-60/min
d. 40-60/min
Why is the electrical impulse slightly delayed at the AV node?
Select one:
a. So the ventricles can contract completely.
b. So the atria can empty into the ventricles.
c. To allow the bundle of His can depolarize fully.
d. To allow the primary cardiac pacemaker to reset.
b. So the atria can empty into the ventricles.
What happens during phase 0 of the cardiac action potential?
Select one:
a. Potassium moves rapidly into the cell.
b. The fast sodium channels open.
c. The sodium-potassium pump is initiated.
d. The slow calcium channels close.
b. The fast sodium channels open.
Which of the following is consistent with left atrial enlargement?
Select one:
a. P-pulmonale
b. Both A & C are correct
c. The second half of a biphasic P wave in V1 is wider and deeper than one small block.
d. None of the above
c. The second half of a biphasic P wave in V1 is wider and deeper than one small block.
A positive deflection on the ECG tracing paper indicates that the electrical impulse is Select one: a. traveling perpendicular to the lead. b. moving toward the positive electrode. c. moving toward the negative electrode. d. non existent.
b. moving toward the positive electrode.
Which of the following is consistent with right atrial enlargement?
Select one:
a. Both A & C are correct
b. The first half of a biphasic P wave in V1 is wider and deeper than one small block
c. None of the above
d. P-pulmonale
d. P-pulmonale
P waves are normally positive in leads:
Select one:
a. I
b. All of the above
c. II
d. V4 - V6
b. All of the above
Criteria for P-mitrale include:
Select one:
a. Notching is present
b. All of the above is correct
c. P wave > 0.12 seconds
d. The space between the two humps of the notch must be > 0.04 seconds
b. All of the above is correct
The differential diagnosis of a short PR interval includes:
Select one:
a. All of the above
b. Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
c. Retrograde junctional P waves
d. Lown-Ganon-Levine Syndrome
a. All of the above
Which of the following in incorrect when discussing WPW Syndrome?
Select one:
a. Shortened PR interval is always present
b. Associated with ST-T wave abnormalities
c. Widened QRS complex > 0.11 seconds
d. Delta waves are present
a. Shortened PR interval is always present
Which of the following is not important when evaluating the QRS complex?
Select one:
a. The presence of Q waves
b. The morphology of the complexes
c. The frontal plane axis
d. The length of the PR interval preceding it
d. The length of the PR interval preceding it
Which of the following is a criteria for LVH?
Select one:
a. (S in V1 or V2) + (R in V5 or V6) > 35mm
b. R wave in lead I > 12mm
c. R wave in aVL > 11mm
d. Any precordial lead is > 45mm
d. Any precordial lead is > 45 mm
The left main coronary artery provides blood supply to:
Select one:
a. left ventricle
b. Left ventricle, interventricular septum
c. great vessel
d. left atrium
b. Left ventricle, interventricular septum
The left circumflex coronary artery supplies blood to:
Select one:
a. left ventricle, interventricular septum
b. posterior wall
c. inferior wall
d. left atrium. left ventricle
d. left atrium. left ventricle
The left anterior descending coronary artery supplies blood to:
Select one:
a. left atrium
b. aorta
c. left ventricle, interventricular septum
d. left ventricle
c. left ventricle, interventricular septum
The right marginal coronary artery supplies blood to:
Select one:
a. aorta
b. inferior wall, cardiac apex
c. left atrium
d. posterior wall
b. inferior wall, cardiac apex
The posterior descending coronary artery supplies blood to:
Select one:
a. Both ventricles, posterior wall
b. septum
c. aorta
d. right atrium
a. Both ventricles, posterior wall
The aorta supplies blood to:
Select one:
a. no major organs
b. all major organs
b. all major organs
What is the function of the Vena Cava?
Select one:
a. receives blood from the heart via superior and inferior portions
b. Returns blood to the heart via superior and inferior portions
b. Returns blood to the heart via superior and inferior portions
What does the right main coronary artery supplies blood to:
Select one:
a. septum
b. anterior wall
c. posterior wall
d. inferior wall
d. inferior wall
Leads V3, V4 represent:
Select one:
a. septal
b. posterior
c. anterior
d. inferior
c. anterior
Leads V1 & V2 represent:
Select one:
a. inferior
b. anterior
c. lateral
d. septal
d. septal