Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Equine Exam 2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Chronic Progressive Lymphedema

A
  • Disease of lymphatic drainage of skin
  • Breeds: Belgian, draught horses, Shire, Clydesdale, German breeds
  • 50-90% develop clinical signs
  • Initally: scratches-like, masked by feathering
  • Genetic component
  • Chronic and progressive
  • Starts at ~2 years, euth at ~>6 years
  • distal aspect limbs: lumpy skin/subcutis, back of pastern, recurrent secondary infections
  • palliative care (control infections, compressive bandages, exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cannon Keratosis (Stud Crud)

A
  • Not related to urine splashing, not just males, not infectious
  • middle-aged or older
  • Genetic?
  • Esp. cranial aspect of rear cannon
  • lifelong
  • hairloss
  • Seborrhea: too much scale is being produced on surface of skin
  • Non-painful unless secondary infections
  • non fatal
  • Treat with anti-seborrhea shampoos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Parasites (4)

A
  • Lice: on skin
  • Mites: in skin
  • Onchocerciasis
  • Summer sores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Summer sores

A
  • Open, non-healing wounds
  • Esp.: around eyes, on lips, external genetalia, fetlocks, coronary band
  • Parasite + reaction: individual horses
  • esp. bad in summer
  • debulking + ivermectin
  • Incidence decreases with routine systemic dewormers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dermatophilus (Rain rot or Scald)

A
  • Caused by Dermatophilus congolensis
  • Painless swelling: hair loss
  • Dorsum
  • Trasmissible bacterium
  • Characteristic appearance: thick crusts easily epilated, raw skin beneath
  • Wet climates: rain sheets
  • Anti-microbial shampoos
  • Zoonotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dermatophytosis (Ringworm)

A
  • Fungal infection (multiple)
  • Esp. young and/or malnourished horses
  • Higher incidence in fall/winter in temp climates
  • Decrease of UV light exposure when stabled
  • Zoonotic
  • Raised, circular swellings initially, then hair loss and crusting
  • Dilute bleach
  • Antifungal shampoos
  • Tack as fomites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Eosinophilic Grnauloma

A
  • Collagenolytic granuloma or nodular necrobiosis
  • Common!
  • Painless blemish
  • Fly bite sequel: hypersensitivity or allergic response
  • Chest and back esp.
  • Spring/summer
  • May contain mineral (nodular necrobiosis)
  • Remove surgically if nuisance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aural Plaques (Ear Fungus)

A
  • Thick skin plaques
  • Bilateral
  • Concave aspect of pinna
  • Viral, not fungal: Papilloma virus
  • Fly-transmitted: black flies
  • More active in summer
  • Blemish
  • Sensitive ears
  • Older horses
  • Do not resolve
  • Various treatments: imiquimod, blood rot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Equine Papilloma Viruses

A
  • Esp. grass warts
  • Common: 6 mo.-4 yr
  • Papillomavirus
  • Muzzle + lips
  • Genital
  • May be generalized
  • Genital form, leads to SCC
  • Spread: contact, insects
  • Resolve in 3 months
  • Persistent=immunosuppressed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fistulous Withers

A
  • Swelling of withers: Supraspinous bursa
  • Draining tracts, fever, and pain
  • Cause: trauma, ill-fitting saddles, overwork, overloading/poorly balanced loads
  • Infections: Actinomyces bovis, Onchocerca cervicalis, Brucella abortis!
  • Treatment: surgery, antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anhidrosis

A
  • Loss of ability to sweat: overstimulation of sweat glands by stress hormones in summer months
  • Esp. warm humid areas
  • Risk of heat stroke
  • Sweating areas reduced to: jaw, neck, base of ears, between pelvic limbs, under saddle
  • No age, sex, breed, color predisposition
  • Esp. performance horses
  • Diagnosis by series of dilutions of terbutaline
  • Chronic: poor dry hair coat + lethargy during hot times of year
  • Control: removal of severe climatic stress, limit exercise to cool parts of day, shade, movement of air, misters, cold-water hosing, recovery may occur after move to temperate climate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hirsutism

A
  • Long, non-shedding hair coat
  • Older horses
  • Associated with PPID (Equine Cushing’s Disease)
  • Treat the underlying disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Photosensitization

A
  • Dermatitis of ALL unpigmented skin
  • Secondary to hepatic injury: metabolit of chlorophyll enters skin due to impaired biliary excretion
  • PA-containing plants (Pyrrolizidine alkaloids)
  • Weight loss, jaundice, behavioral change if severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HERDA

A

Hereditary Equine Regional Dermal Asthenia

  • Asthenia=weak
  • ‘Hyperelastosis cutes’
  • Quarter horses: Some cutting horse bloodlines, normal at birth, develops at 2-4 years
  • Hyperextensible skin + scars
  • Esp back of affected horses
  • Homozygous recessive trait: do not breed carriers
  • Genetic test for cyclophilin B mutation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Linear Keratosis

A
  • Esp. QH, TB, Standardbreds
  • Unknown cause, genetic?
  • Birth-5 years
  • Vertical bands: Alopecia + increased keratin, esp. neck, shoulder, thorax
  • Asymptomatic blemish
  • lifelong
  • No treatment: may be mild progression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Disease of Pigmentation

A

Albinism
-Overo lethal white (non-functioning coon)
-Lavender foal syndrome (weakness, neuro signs)
Leukotrichia
-white hairs
-Retriculated = tiger-striping (>1 year old)
-other forms of pigment loss
Vitiligo
-autoimmunity to melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sweet Itch

A
  • form of hypersensitivity to midges
  • active during summer
  • horses kept in marshy areas
  • esp in tail head, but can see it up to the mane
  • Shave skin, inject allergens, where there is redness there is an inflammatory response
  • seen in WY
  • pretty common
  • Treat with steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 main types of cancer in horses?

A
  1. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
  2. Melanoma
  3. Sarcoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is cancer?

A

genes involved in promoting/inhibiting growth in in normal cells are being knocked out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is metastasis?

A

can travel to another place, if can do that, is cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Characteristics of benign tumors

A
  • slow growth
  • usually encapsulated
  • smooth surface
  • local compression
  • cells differentiated
  • cells uniform and resemble each other
  • blood vessels in tumor well formed
  • minor or no necrosis
  • NEVER metastisize
  • DNA content usually normal
  • karyotype usually normal
  • normal mitotic figures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Benign tumors are not fatal unless….

A
  • bleed out
  • compression of vital organ
  • growth in confined space
  • hormone production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Characteristics of malignant tumors

A
  • metastasis
  • local invasion
  • irregular surface
  • little or no capsule
  • may be large with rapid growth
  • often death if untreated
  • less well differentiated than benign neoplasm
  • may not resemble tissue of origin
  • loss of anchorage dependence
  • loss of contact inhibition
  • pleomorphism
  • increased mitotic activity
  • vessels numerous/poorly formed
  • necrosis and hemorrhage
  • DNA content increased
  • additional chromosomes present
  • karyotypic abnormalitites
  • nuclei large hyeprchromatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Common tumors of horses

A
  • sarcoid
  • viral papillomas/aural plaques
  • SCC
  • melanoma/malignant melanoma
  • thyroid adenoma
  • pituitary adenoma in pars intermedia
  • lipoma
  • ovarian tumors (=granulosa cell tumor)
  • mast cell tumor
  • lymphoma (leukemia)
  • teratoma of undescended testicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sarcoid

A

-occur typically anywhere flies tend to land or there’s been a cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Papilloma-Equine warts

A
  • Mucocutaneous transitions
  • EcPV-1 (muzzle and lips)
  • EcPV-2 (genital areas, associated with genital SCC, like HPV-16, integrated into cell genome)
  • young horses (<3y)
  • hardy viruses
  • immunity: disappearance 1-6mo after appearance
  • chemical or freezing to remove
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Aural Plaques

A
  • in ears
  • concave aspect, pinna
  • esp. summer/fall
  • papilloma virus on EM (not isolated)
  • often bilateral
  • non-painful
  • bother owner more than horse
  • no reported treatments
  • do not regress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Common squamous cell carcinomas

A 
Occular:
-3rd eyelid, conjunctiva, cornea, eyelid
-UV light/pale skin
Penile/Preputial
-Smegma (EcPV-2)
-often aggressive in young horses
Face
-UV light/pale skin
Perineal
-UV light/pale skin, vulva/clitoral
Stomach
-often aggressive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Treatment of SCC

A 
Surgical:
-early small lesions
-least successful on large, long standing lesions
Other:
-more advanced lesions
-cryotherapy
-cytotoxic chemicals
-Immunomodulation (BCG)
-Radiation: considered best, expensive, specialty clinics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Melanoma

A
  • virtually in all gray horses: >6-8y, some families worse than others
  • black tarry discharge
  • esp. tail perineum but can be anywhere
  • some become malignant
  • surgery vs. other approaches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lymphoma

A
  • incidence: 1.3-2.8% of all tumors
  • no viral association
  • typically 4-10y old
  • most commom: multicentric: LNs and internal organs
  • generally diagnosed late in clinical course
  • common subtype: T-cell rich, B-cell lymphoma
  • chemotherapy and radiation therapy
  • palliative glucocorticoid use more common
  • most commonly internal
  • leukemia unusual
  • no effective treatment
  • when skin involved: often indolent, cutaneous nodules, T-cell rich, B cell lymphoma
  • may be stallion-like behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Thyroid adenoma

A
  • Common in older horses: 30% for horses >10y, 75% in horses >20y
  • unilateral or bilateral
  • biopsy or needle aspirate to confirm
  • no need for treatment unless: compression of adjacent structures, growing, hyperthyroidism
  • other thyroid masses: goiter, cystic hyperplasia, adenocarcinoma of thyroid follicles or C cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Granulosa cell tumor

A 
Common
-male/female hormones secreted
-aggressive/stallion-like behavior
-markedly prolonged estrus
-unilateral
-slow growing
-do not metastasize
Dx
-palpation
-ultrasound
-testosterone + inhibin
-anti-mullarian hormone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pituitary adenoma, pars intermedia

A
  • pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)
  • melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) production
  • typically >18y
  • long hair coat
  • pressure on hypothalamus (body temp, appetite, cyclic shedding)
  • Polyuria/polydipsia (PU/PD)
  • poor muscle tone and weakness
  • somnolence
  • abnormal distribution of adipose tissue
  • swelling of periorbital fossa, laminitis
  • increased infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lipoma

A
  • common in older horses
  • intra-abdominal
  • long stalk=strangulation of SI
  • cause of colic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the urinary tract?

A
  • collect and removes fluid wastes from body
  • when animal dehydrated urine is more concentrated to preserve fluids
  • when animal well hydrated urine is more dilute
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Structures of urinary tract

A

Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Equine urine usually looks…

A

Normally cloudy: abundant calcium carbonate crystals, mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pollakiuria

A

Peeing too often, but normal total volume

  • estrus
  • calculi
  • cystitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Polyuria

A

Peeing too much urine

  • many primary diseases of kidney
  • pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction
  • diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus
  • behavioral problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Suspect urinary problems when…

A

weight loss + abnormal urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Diagnosis of urinary tract problems

A
  • rectal palpation
  • urinalysis
  • blood work: blood urine nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, anemia, lowered chloride and sodium
  • Ultrasound: morphology, presence of stones
  • endoscopy
  • kidney biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Acute renal failure

A
  • Kidneys stop working due to toxicity or severe dehydration
  • toxins:
  • some antibiotics
  • overuse of NSAIDs
  • heavy metals
  • plants
  • products of muscle breakdown or erythrolysis
  • Diagnosis: elevated BUN and creatinine
  • Treatment: IV fluids, dopamine (dilates blood vessels), furosemid (diuretic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where does acute renal failure cause problems?

A

In large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Chronic kidney failure

A
  • loss of 20-30% nephrons
  • after damage occurred: chronic renal infection, post-intoxication
  • symptoms: loss of appetite, weight loss, decline in performance, dilute urine
  • cannot be cured: avoid NSAIDs, low protein diet, sodium bicarbonate, anemia, avoid dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pyelonephritis

A
  • ascending bacterial infection of kidneys from bladder (fever, high WBC count in circulation)
  • relatively rare in horses
  • treatment: antibiotics, control kidney failure
  • complications: formation of stones in urinary tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Urolithiasis

A
  • most commonly in bladder
  • sequel to cystitis
  • also: kidney, ureter, urethra
  • symptoms:
  • straining during urination
  • inability of horse to urinate full stream
  • colic
  • blood in urine
  • esp. mares, particularly geldings
  • treatment: removal of stones: surgery, lithotripsy (shock waves), antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Uroliths in other locations

A
  • kidney or ureter or urethra
  • secondary to: passage of kidney stone or bladder stone
  • rarely performed surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cystitis

A
  • inflammation of bladder: due to trauma, secondary to lumbar spinal cord disease, opportunistic bacterial infection
  • symptoms: frequent urination, straining, urine leakage
  • treatment: depends on underlying problem
  • complications: risk for pyelonephritis or kidney failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Psychogenic polyuria/plydipsia (PU/PD)

A
  • drinks too much water due to boredom: upsets electrolyte imbalance, dilute urine
  • Diagnosis: no sign of kidney failure, inability to concentrate urine
  • treatment: 40ml/kg/day water intake
  • change environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ruptured bladder in foals

A
  • at/shortly after birth
  • depressed within week of birth: urinary toxins in blood
  • both foals and fillies
  • life threatening: urine in abdomen, toxemia
  • requires surgery to close
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Patent urachus in foals

A
  • when urachus fails to close, or leaks after birth
  • risk of: urine scald of skin, ascending infection of urinary tract
  • most close on their own
  • may need caustic chemical to seal urachus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Renal neoplasia

A
  • generally rare: prevalence <2%
  • most primary
  • others secondary (esp. lymphoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)

A
  • true Cushing’s disease
  • common, in some part esthetic
  • older animals
  • predisposed to insulin resistance
  • hypertrophy/hyperplasia in pituitary gland, with increased ACTH (increased cortisol released from adrenal glands)
  • abnormal fat deposits
  • long curly hair that wont shed (hirsutism)
  • bulging supraorbital fat pads
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Treatment of PPID

A
  • body clip in summer months
  • regular dental + hoof care
  • Pergolide mesylate or cyproheptadine or combination
  • increased risk of infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is hirsutism?

A

long curly hair that wont shed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Most common PPID infections

A
  • sole abscesses
  • dermatitis
  • dental and gum disease
  • enteric parasitism
  • respiratory infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Equine Metabolic Syndrome (what it looks like)

A
  • aka: ‘peripheral Cushing’s, easy keeprs, insulin-resistant’
  • humans: insulin-resistant (similar to pre-diabetics), obesity = increased risk for secondary diabetes mellitus +coronary artery disease
  • Horses: esp. ponies (genetic component), cresty neck and thick sheath, insulin resistance, obesity = increased risk of laminitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Equine Metabolic Syndrome

A
  • typically 5-15 years
  • common esp. in ponies
  • insulin insensitivity: glucose intolerance, increase insulin, increased leptin, pro-inflammatory state, hyperinsulinemia affects ~22-29% of susceptible equine population
  • overfeeding nonstructural carbohydrates
  • obese horse with cresty neck + predisposition to laminitis
  • weight reduction + exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Distinguishing EMS from PPID

A 
EMS:
-onset earlier
-laminitis
-test: increased fasting insulin
-few progress to diabetes
-control: weight loss
PPID
-onset in middle/old age
-laminitis
-hisutism
-excessive sweating
-PU/PD
-skeletal muscle atrophy
-test: low dose dex suppression test, increased ACTH
-control: counteracting effect of ACTH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sick euthyroid syndrome

A
  • ‘eu’ because thyroids healthy: low circulating thyroid secondary to other illness
  • ‘hyperthyroidism’: true hypothyroidism RARE in horses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Thyroid adenoma

A
  • common in older horses
  • generally asymptomatic
  • diagnosed by palpation or biopsy
  • may be bilateral
  • thyroid carcinomas-rare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Goiter with musculoskeletal disease

A
  • western USA + Canada
  • musculoskeletal + goiter (mandibular prognathia, flexural deformation)
  • avoid: adequate iodine
  • affected foals: good odds if not severe and survive 1st week of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A
  • tumor of adrenal medulla
  • increased epinephephrine and norephinephrine
  • anxiety, sweating, increased heart/respiratory rates
  • generally untreatable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Ovarian Diseases

A
  • granulosa cell tumor
  • relatively common
  • benign
  • hormone producing: persistent estrus, anestrus, masculinization
  • confirmation by hormone tests
  • can be bred after removal of affected ovary-usually 1 year later
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Anhidrosis

A
  • loss of ability to sweat
  • factors: familial trait, semi-tropical/tropical climates, TBs and warmbloods, born west/midwest the moved to warm climates
  • onset: sudden vs. gradual, esp. in summer
  • prevalence: 10% at farm level, 2% at animal level
  • risk of hyperthermia (heat stroke)
  • confirmation: intradermal sweat test
  • move to cooler climate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Big Head-Bran Disease

A
  • secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • associated with high phosphate diets with low calcium hay
  • esp. foals and lactating mares
  • PTH hormone productio + increased activity of vitamin D
  • end result: poorly mineralized bone with fibroplasia = ‘big head’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Management of big head

A 
Avoid:
-care with high phosphate diets
Manage:
-calcium supplementation
-restricted exercise
-NSAID for pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the immune system responsible for?

A

protecting the horses body against the constant influx of pathogens from its environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are external influences on the immune system?

A

weaken the function of the immune system

-stress: transportation, performance, change of routine, pain, fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the physical barriers of the immune system?

A

-skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the internal protection of the horse?

A

-when the physical barriers are breached, immune system is activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Organs of the immune system

A
  • spleen: active immune cells’ information modulated form the vagus nerve
  • bone marrow: in neonate, thymus is active in construction of immune system
  • lymph nodes: multiply and produce antibodies
  • autonomous nervous system: informs anatomical sites of the immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cell Mediated Immunity in the Equine

A
  • non specific
  • leukocytes respond to a threat by degranulation (releasing substances to help destroy the threat) and phagocytosis
  • body cells participating in this part die off and are pus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Humoral Branch of the Immune System

A
  • must be previously exposed for this part to work
  • previous exposure primes lymphocytes and complement system
  • involve plasma cells and antibodies that are capable of colonal expansion (can multiply and produce more antibodies to fight threat)
  • complement system functions to break down/remove damaged cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What happens (steps) when immune system starts working?

A
  • immune system reacts violently

- inflammation that causes swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Some examples of when the immune system reacts

A

lameness, injuries, colic!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Drugs to use for inflammation and swelling

A

Bute, banamine, previcox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Shock organ in the horse is the…

A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is involved in shock? specific aspects

A
  • vagus nerve system
  • inflammatory cells form the immune system
  • humoral factors like TNFalpha
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Pigeon Fever (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis) from Dr. Weiss

A
  • lives in dry hot dusty soil and manure (as in feed lots)
  • infection through open wounds, biting flies, inhalation
  • as bacteria stays in abscesses they create, they are difficult to reach with antibiotic therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Clinical presentation of Pigeon fever (Dr. Weiss)

A
  • one or more abscesses on chest/face
  • febrile/anorexic horses might have mutliple abscesses
  • may get ulcerative lymphagitis along extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Important things to know about Pigeon Fever (Dr. Weiss)

A
  • ruminants suffer same disease, can only infect eachother if have same strain
  • infected individuals need to be isolated
  • difficult to eradicate
  • treatment is similar to strangles, anti-inflammatories, warm poultices on abscesses so they can drain, antibiotics only in select cases
  • prevention includes fly control, remove manure, husbandry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Autoimmune diseases

A
  • COPD
  • Hives
  • all kinds of allergies
  • some conditions are genetically anchored, others caused by influence of environment on immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Laboratory support of autoimmune diseases (tests)

A
  • allergen testing
  • intradermal skin testing
  • IgE measurements of blood in horses
  • IgE measurements do not work for food allergies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Why do we vaccinate? (Dr. Weiss)

A

protect horses against catastrophic contagious diseases by preparing the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What will the horse’s immune system make from vaccination?

A

antibodies for protection

-these immunoglobulins are circulating in blood stream or waiting in the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Core vaccines

A
  • tetanus
  • WEE/EEE
  • west nile
  • rabies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is immunology?

A

study of the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What 3 areas of study (-ology) work together to help avoid situations where the immune system needs to be activated?

A

epidemiology, serology, immunology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the conformation of the brood mare reproductive tract?

A
  • vulvar labia presents a barrier for contamination
  • no retrograde urine contamination
  • cervix is a barrier to keep infections out
  • uterine body, pooling of fluid is not possible and bacteria can’t cause infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is a healthy environment of the uterus?

A

low pH=acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Where does the placenta evolve from?

A

chorion-a thin membrane that lines the egg shell on the inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What kind of placenta does a horse have?

A

diffuse-epitheliochorial placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What position is used to check that the entire placenta has been expelled?

A

lazy “F” position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When should you avoid vaccinating a pregnant mare?

A

in the first trimester to avoid any complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

If ____ is in good working order, an infection can be avoided?

A

the local immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Hematogenous infection

A

mare is systemically sick and the bacteria/virus infect the uterus, placenta, and fetus causing inflammation and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Ascending infection

A

Noxious agents enter mare’s repro system through cervix, causes inflammation and disrupts oxygen and nutrient supply for foal by destroying the villi of the chorioallantois membrane (placental membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Unidentified infection

A

cause for infection cannot be determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the most common noxious agents in infections of brood mares?

A

EIS, EHV1, EVA, CEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Is a retained placenta life threatening?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

In situations of infections causing stillbirth, what can be seen and why?

A

dystocia or premature placental separation from the retention of parts of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is a red bag?

A

premature placental separation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

If a retained placenta is addressed promptly after birth, what can you do?

A
  • remaining membranes can be removed with copious lavage
  • manually picking off placenta
  • anti-infammatories and antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

If retained placenta is not addressed, what happens?

A
  • toxins released into mare’s blood stream
  • sepsis, laminitis, schock
  • chronic infection/inflammation in mare’s endometrium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What should the mare produce before birth and what is in this?

A

Colostrum

  • nutrients
  • calcium
  • antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is agalactia?

A

when the mare does not produce any milk at all

-treatment can include keeping mare away from foal, pain killers, and fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is mastitis?

A

painful inflammatory process in the udder tissue

-needs treatment immediately with anti-inflammatories, pain killers, antibiotics

110
Q

What is glocoma?

A

too much fluid being produced in the eye or not enough fluid being drained

111
Q

What is a carract?

A

clouded lens

112
Q

What is tonometry?

A

measuring intraocular pressure

113
Q

What do you do to examine the eyes?

A
  • menace reflex
  • obstacle course
  • ability to constrict pupil
  • direct and indirect ophthalmoscopy
  • tonometry
  • fluorescein (dye): corneal ulcers, blocked NL duct
114
Q

About equine vision and ocular anatomy

A
  • largest globe of any land mammal
  • complete bony orbit
  • visual field of 350 degrees
  • strong eyelid muscles
  • copora nigra on dorsal margin of iris
  • recognizes color
115
Q

Eyes in foals

A
  • dimished coneal sensitivity
  • low tear production
  • reduced menace reflect until 7-1- days (increased reisk of corneal trauma)
  • various congenital ocular abnormalities: most common cataract
  • some inherited, some associated with multiple ocular anomalies
  • most idiopathic in utero
116
Q

Vulnerable complex structures of the eye

A
  • esp. large cornea, slow to heal
  • after trauma: uveitis, cataract=sequestered antigens unleashed
  • retinal detachment
  • intraocular hemorrhage
  • scars distort eyelids
117
Q

Trauma in eye

A

common due to:

  • prominent eyes
  • outdoor
  • curious
  • flies + sarcoid
  • fungal complications (cornea), steroid risk
  • corneal healing: no blood supply, ulcers with perforation
118
Q

Blocked nasolacrimal (tear) duct

A
  • weepy eye (nuisance)
  • conjuctivitis sequel
  • treatment: flush NL duct
  • some permanent
119
Q

Conjunctivitis +Keratitis

A 
Inflamed conjunctival sac: 
-bacterial or allergies
-trauma
-dust
Most uncomplicated:
-good response to abs
-protect from flies
Complications:
-keratitis (keratoconjunctivitis)
-blocked NL duct
120
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis

A
  • inflamed cornea
  • normally avascular
  • deep ulcers slow to heal
  • superficial ulcers: most traumatic, risk of 2nd infection (bacterial, fungal), perforation risk, iris adhesions
  • antibiotic ointments + atropine + NSAIDs
121
Q

Melting ulcers (keratoconjunctivitis)

A
  • loss of overlying epithelium
  • collagenase production
  • risk of perforation in <24h
  • fungi esp.
  • horses at high risk of anterior uveitis
  • esp. with abuse of topical ointments with corticosteroids or long-time use of antibiotics
  • veterinary emergency
122
Q

Treatment of Keratoconjunctivitis

A
  • topical or subconjuctival broad-spectrum antibiotics (melting ulcers-antifungal medications)
  • atropine (pain)
  • also: antibiotic-soaked collagen lenses or contact lenses
  • anti-proteinases
  • systemic antibiotics
  • surgery:
  • lamellar keratectomy
  • conjuctival graft to promote healing
123
Q

Treatment of Keratoconjunctivitis

A
  • topical or subconjuctival broad-spectrum antibiotics (melting ulcers-antifungal medications)
  • atropine (pain)
  • also: antibiotic-soaked collagen lenses or contact lenses
  • anti-proteinases
  • systemic antibiotics
  • surgery:
  • lamellar keratectomy
  • conjuctival graft to promote healing
124
Q

Cataract

A
  • opaque lens
  • importance of severity and site
  • some congenital: may be genetic
  • sequel to: trauma, recurrent uveitis
  • leave alone or surgery: phacoemulsification + lens implant
125
Q

Recurrent (periodic) uveitis

A
  • moon blindness
  • common cause of blindness in horses in USA
  • uveitis = inflammation of grape (blood vascular layer)
  • probably related to exposure to bacterial antigens
126
Q

Uveitis definition

A 
uvea = vascular (middle) layer of eye
uveitis = inflammation of this layer
127
Q

Recurrent Uveitis

A
  • other causes: esp trauma
  • Leptospira is one tirgger
  • major autoimmune component
  • genetics: appaloosa
  • one or both eyes
  • waxes and wanes
  • hard to control
128
Q

Recurrent Uveitis Complications and treatment

A 
Blindness due to complications:
-persistent uveitis
-glaucoma
-mature cataracts
-retinal detachment
-hemorrhage
-atrophy
Anti-inflammatory + mydriatics
Experimental:
-antibiotics
-vaccination
-vitrectomy + gentamycin
-sustained-release cyclosporine
129
Q

Common cancers in and around eye

A
  • SCC
  • Sarcoid
  • Papilloma
  • Lymphosarcome
  • Melanoma
130
Q

Cancer Eye (SCC)

A
  • Esp. UV exposure
  • common in WY
  • eyelids
  • haw
  • slow to metastasize, locally destructive
  • draught, appaloosa, paints
  • 11 years
  • surgical removal
131
Q

Sarcoid

A
  • Variable: 5 clinical types, not always obviously sarcoids
  • BPV-1,2,5
  • Surgery vs. other:
  • immunotherapy
  • chemotherapy
  • freezing or heating
  • irradiation in situ
  • photodynamic therapy
132
Q

What is CVID?

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency

  • dysfunction of the immune system
  • specifically B-cell branch or the humoral response is inept at protecting horse from pathogens
  • have deficient quantities or no bB cells
133
Q

What gene is involved in CVID?

A

PAX5 gene

134
Q

Clinical Signs of CVID

A
  • prolonged/recurring bacterial infections
  • bacterial meningitis
  • peritonitis
  • lyme disease
  • depression/ill thrift
135
Q

Treatment/Prevention Options for CVID

A
  • treat infections as they come

- reduce environmental risk

136
Q

What is the generic cause of CVID?

A

epigenetic cause

137
Q

Is there a cure for CVID?

A

no

138
Q

When are most deaths of foals?

A

60-70% first month of life

139
Q

How to predict a healthy foal

A
  • pre-partum fetal examination
  • ultrasound
  • fetal heart rate, aortic diameter
  • maximal fetal fluid depts
  • uter-placental contact, thickness
  • fetal activity
  • score of 0-2 for each
  • cumulative score
140
Q

Foal Immunity at Birth

A
  • ensure mom is clean
  • stall disinfected and bedded with fresh straw
  • no immunoglobulin transfer across placenta
  • at birth: immunocompetent, low concentrations of immunoglobulins detectable
  • regular traffic of bacteria into system circulation
  • primary immune response to envt antigens not detectable til 2 wks
  • dependence on maternal immunity
141
Q

Checking a foal is not compromised

A
  • sits up sternally shortly after birth
  • responsive
  • 60 breaths at birth
142
Q

Protection from Mare’s milk

A
  • ~5 liters colostrum in first 18 hours
  • antibodies: abosorbed <24 hours, confined to intestine lumen >24hr
  • other components:
  • energy
  • protein
  • hormones
  • minerals
  • trophic factors enhancing immune competency
143
Q

1,2,3 rule for foals

A
  • stand in 1 hours
  • nurse in 2 hour
  • placenta passed in 3 hours
  • pull blood at 24h to check IgG
144
Q

Well Mare check

A
  • nutritional condition
  • womb and mammary infections
  • evidence of trauma and fistulas
  • placenta
145
Q

Well Foal check

A
  • common congenital defects: hernia, cleft palate, cataract

- IgG in blood

146
Q

Vaccination of foals

A
  • ensure mare vaccinated properly: protects foal in first 6m of life
  • traditionally >6 months
  • vaccinate for: tetanus, influenza, EHV-1 -4, strangles, rabies, WEE/EEE, WNV
147
Q

Fractured ribs/contusions of foals

A
  • common: ~10% of necropsied neonatal foals
  • primary cause of death:
  • hemothorax
  • pneumothorax
  • damaged heart
  • death within wk of birth
  • contributing to death: failure to nurse or rise
148
Q

Trauma of foals

A
  • most important single cause of death 0-12m
  • musculoskeletal injury
  • typically on grass
  • ribs: especially foaling
  • long bones
  • skull
149
Q

Septicemia

A
  • sleepy foal: recumbant +_ diarrhea
  • multiple agents, generally environmental or commensal bacteria
  • survival rate ~50% with intensive care
  • a special case: Actinobacillus
  • high mortality
  • often present within 1 day of birth
  • in WY, not uncommon
150
Q

Neonatal Maladjustment Syndrome (dummy foal)

A
  • fetal asphyxia esp. at foaling
  • most common CNS disorder of neonatal foals
  • neurological damage
  • mild to severe
  • altered consciousness, inability to suckle, lack of affinity for mare, tongue protrusion, star-gazing, localized/generalized seizures
  • difficulty breathing
  • FPT compilcation
  • nursing + patience vs. euth
151
Q

The Pregnane Hypothesis

A
  • normal birth
  • increased prenanes in blood
  • abnormally quiet sleepy neonatal foal
  • madigan foal squeeze procedure
152
Q

Meconium impaction

A
  • most common cause of colic in neonate
  • typically passed several hours after birth
  • tarry feces
  • if not passed or pain, enema
153
Q

Patent Urachus

A
  • passage of urine via umbilical stump
  • cautery (mild)
  • surgery (if persistent)
154
Q

Navel Ill

A
  • typically swelling/pain
  • sometimes internal to foal (inner side belly wall)
  • ultrasound
  • antibiotic treatment, generally good response
  • sx if non-responsive
155
Q

Hernia

A
  • suspected genetic component

- present at birth: resolve naturally, wait til >3m for repair of small hernias

156
Q

Ruptured Bladder

A
  • typically at birth
  • colts esp.
  • straining to urinate, little/no urine
  • colic
  • swollen abdomen
  • belly tap and/or contrast material
  • surgery esp. when caught early
157
Q

Diarrhea in foals

A
  • meconium retention
  • 70% of foals have diarrhea episode
  • rotavirus: common in many areas
  • not common in WY
  • most common cause of outbreaks
  • often ~3m
  • death more likely in young foals, but rare
  • dehydration + shock
  • short duration, 3 days
  • vaccinate mares!
158
Q

Gastro-Duodenal Ulcer Disease (GDUD)

A
  • important in older nursing and early weanlings
  • ulcers in: glandular stomach, upper SI
  • pain, salivation, teeth grinding, colic, reflux
  • no recognized agent: presumed to be secondary to other stresses
159
Q

Developmental Orthopedic Diseases

A 
Osteochondrosis
-excessive cartilage
-arthritis risk
Angular limb deformities:
-valgus/varus deformation
-conservative vs. sx
Contracted tendons:
-physical therapy
Inflamed growth plates:
-physitis/epiphysitis
-role of diet
-NSAIDs
160
Q

What is the major factor affecting physical performance of a perfomance horse? (Weiss)

A

oxygen consumption

161
Q

What happens when the physiological parameters involved oxygen consumption of performance horses increases dramatically during exercise? (Weiss)

A
  • emptying of splenic reserve causes doubling of amount of erythrocytes in blood
  • seven fold increase in heart rate
  • increase in respiratory frequency
  • tidal volume doubles
162
Q

What does training of performance horses cause? (Weiss)

A
  • lowering of heart rate
  • increase in hematocrit
  • increase in oxygen affinity of hemoglobin
163
Q

What else can alter oxygen consumption in performance horses? (Weiss)

A

-feeding regimes

164
Q

Oxygen consumption in performance horses is influenced by which energy source that is used to obtain a sufficient energy density in the feed? (Weiss)

A

fat and sugar can be used to replace starch

165
Q

What other important physiological function do we need to worry about during long trailer hauls? (Weiss)

A
  • water intake

- fresh air/breathing for horse

166
Q

What other important physiological function do we need to worry about during long trailer hauls? (Weiss)

A
  • water intake

- fresh air/breathing for horse

167
Q

What is the reason many professional horse owners bring their own food? (Weiss)

A
  • used to that food

- don’t want to pick up diseases

168
Q

How much does your horse drink on an average day?

A

10-15 gallons

169
Q

What can happen from over-exercising performance horses? (Weiss)

A
  • anaerobic muscle work due to improper conditioning regime and routine
  • exhaustion of the pH buffer in the blood and tissue of lungs
  • overheating internally
  • severe stress and lowering of immune system
  • dehydration due to electrolyte depletion
170
Q

What structures are stressed when horses jump? (Weiss)

A

tendons, gut, hamstring, stifle, neck, spine

171
Q

What is a soundness exam?

A

when you are purchasing a horse, exam to make sure they are sound (mainly externally)

172
Q

What do you do in an outbreak of strangles?

A
  • isolate horses with swollen nodes
  • no antibiotics! poultice swollen nodes, drain
  • monitor other horses
  • multiple PCR tests to establish horses free of infection
  • vaccination choices
173
Q

When to use antibiotics during a strangles outbreak?

A
  • catch early

- swollen lymph nodes don’t look like they will burst

174
Q

What can happen when you vaccinate a horse during a strangles outbreak?

A
  • purpura hemorrhagica

- cause immune-mediated reactions

175
Q

Managing infectious outbreaks:
First thing you do is __
Second thing you do is___

A
  1. isolate horse

2. monitor other horses

176
Q

If multiple cases during an outbreak, what do you do?

A

Create 3 groups:

red: infected/presumed infected
amber: at risk-direct/indirect contact with infected
green: no clinical signs, no direct/indirect contact with infected horses

177
Q

How to manage an infected group of horses during an outbreak

A
  • separate building or pasture
  • ideally 25m from other horses
  • safe disposal of bedding, uneaten feed, water
  • appropriate disinfectant for boots and outer wear
178
Q

What should you avoid on the road to prevent a disease?

A
  • bring own buckets, water, feed
  • avoid nose-to-nose contact of your horse with others
  • wash hands after touching other horses
  • disinfect boots; clean outerwear
179
Q

What should you do at home to prevent a disease?

A
  • 3 wks of isolation for new horses

- record who comes in and who leaves

180
Q

When do you know a disease outbreak is over (Strangles)?

A

Infected horses:
-3 neg nasopharangeal washes/swabs over 3 wk period
-endoscopic testing of guttural pouch
Uninfected horses:
-temps daily
-serological tests
-persistently infected guttural pouch infection: treat

181
Q

Strangles treatment (take home)

A
  • understand best practices

- where to find information

182
Q

Strangles control (take home)

A
  • benefits of quarantine
  • benefits of good isolation
  • introduced by carriers or actively infected animals
  • detecting PI animals
  • organism hardy
183
Q

Zn phosphide poisoning Treatment

A
  • supportive, no antidote

- generally ineffective

184
Q

Zn phosphide poisoning control

A
  • awareness of poisons, insecticides, herbicides
  • don’t make assumptions
  • persistence in environment
  • ‘inaccessible’ in burrows
185
Q

Stomatitis

A
  • inflammation of the tissue of the mouth
  • plant fragments in feed, coarse feed
  • foreign body
  • vesicular stomatitis
  • phenylbutazone
  • blister beetle, in WY but still somewhat rare
186
Q

Why is dental disease important?

A
  • 3rd most common problem in adult horses involves teeth
  • ~25% of horses have dental abnormalities
  • 80% prevalence of dental lesions in horses at necropsy
187
Q

What is diastema?

A

gap between teeth, food can get lodged

188
Q

What can result from a fractured tooth?

A

root abscess

189
Q

Brachydont

A
  • short crowned
  • most crown above gumline
  • all fully erupted before maturity
  • long enough to survive lifetime
  • humans
190
Q

Hypsodont

A
  • long crowned
  • most crown below gumline
  • erupt slowly during animal’s lifetime
191
Q

What is the 3:1:4:3 dental formula?

A

3 incisors
1 canince
4 premolars
3 molars

192
Q

What is the 3:1:4:3 dental formula?

A

3 incisors
1 canince
4 premolars
3 molars

193
Q

Teeth Facts

A
  • deciduous and permanent teeth:
  • permanent teeth in by ~5y
  • grass abrasive
  • complex surface of teeth used for aging
  • removal of permanent teeth a difficult procedure
194
Q

Morphology of teeth (more teeth facts)

A
  • ‘wolf’ teeth: 1st premolar, commonly perceived source of bit problems, usually maxillary
  • each set of 6 cheek teeth operate a unit, importance of gaps between teeth
  • no ‘neck’ as in human or canine teeth
  • no true tooth ‘root’
  • multiple ‘pulp horns’ in cheek teeth with maturity
  • dentin formed in teeth over entire lifetime
  • apical foramina constrict at >5y
195
Q

Maxillary cheek tooth (layers)

A

3 layers:

  • enamel
  • dentin
  • cementum
196
Q

What happens when a pulp cavity is exposed?

A
  • nerves are exposed
  • can cause infection
  • can repair and plug it
197
Q

What is the pulp canal and periodontal attachment?

A

pulp canal=vascular/connective tissue

periodontal attachment=anchors tooth to tooth socket/jaw

198
Q

Changes in teeth with time

A

Young horses: high enamel, low dentin
-hard, brittle teeth
-readily floated, may shatter when cut with shears
Older horses: increased proportion of dentin
-less brittle
-more difficult to float
Changes in pulp cavity:
-decreased blood supply
-decreased dentin-forming cells
‘Smooth mouth’ when occlusal surface formed largely by cementum
-spaces develop between equine permanent incisors but development is delayed by the medial pressure of outmost incisors

199
Q

What is ‘smooth mouth’?

A

teeth worn to ‘roots’ with occlusive covering of cementum

200
Q

Assessing Teeth

A
  • watch horse eat, food dropped
  • palpate cheeks
  • discomfort in TMJ
  • head tossing/bit discomfort: possible problems with wolf teeth
  • balance of incisors
  • oral speculum to see/feel molars
  • radiographs if problems detected
201
Q

Assessing Teeth

A
  • watch horse eat, food dropped
  • palpate cheeks
  • discomfort in TMJ
  • head tossing/bit discomfort: possible problems with wolf teeth
  • balance of incisors
  • oral speculum to see/feel molars
  • radiographs if problems detected
202
Q

Suspect dental problems when…

A
  • change in behavior (dropping food, head tilting, excessive salivation)
  • quidding: rolling hay into balls, dropping them
  • loss of weight/condition
  • halitosis (bad breath)
  • refusing foods
  • eating slowly
  • packing food into cheeks
  • food/hay in feces
  • swellings under jaw, side of face, above eyes
  • chewing on bit
203
Q

Gaps between cheek teeth

A
  • diastema (singular), diastemata (plural)
  • creation of food pockets
  • devolpmental vs. senile diastemata
  • food pockets lead to periodontitis leads to osteomyelitis in advanced cases
204
Q

Periodontal disease

A
  • occurs in ~60% of horses 15-20yo
  • sequel to diastemata and displaced teeth
  • organic dental plaque + bacteria leads to mineralized plaque leads to dental calculus
  • development of deep periodontal pockets with gingivitis
  • eventually, infection of pulp, apical infection, and death of tooth
205
Q

Check teeth enamel overgrowth

A
  • enamel ‘points’
  • can affect horses on predominantely roughage diet
  • buccal (Cheek) side of upper cheek teeth
  • lingual (tongue) side of lower cheek teeth
206
Q

Pulpitis and other miseries

A
  • inflammation in confined dental chamber

- higher pressure leads to collapse of vascular supply leads to death of tooth

207
Q

‘apical’ infections

A

=tooth root infection

  • cheek teeth
  • rare in incisors or canine teeth
  • front maxillary teeth: maxillary bone swelling with sinus tracts
  • back maxillary teeth: maxillary sinusitis
  • getting in from 3 routes: blood-borne > fracture > periodontal
208
Q

Overjet/Overbite

A
  • maxillary teeth project rostral to mandibular teeth
  • reduced wear of central incisors
  • often concurrent poor alignment of cheek teeth
209
Q

Removing teeth (when?)

A

-limited effectiveness of salvaging diseased teeth in horses
Esp:
-periodontal disease
-infundibular caries of maxillary cheek teeth
-bacterial infection of pulp
Also:
-retained deciduous incisor/premolar
-loose tooth
-fractured crown
-supernumerary, displaced, misaligned tooth
-impacted tooth
-non-vital tooth because jaw fractured
-overgrowth tooth causing severe, soft-tissue drama
-dental tumors

210
Q

Easier teeth to remove (incisors and wolf teeth)

A
  • more likely to be done intra-orally
  • if straightforward, removal under sedation possible
  • failure to shed deciduous incisor: malalignment of permanent incisor
  • supernumerary incisors: mostly cosmetic, harder to remove
  • fractured mandible with loose teeth
211
Q

Harder teeth to remove (canines and wolf teeth)

A 
Canines:
-uncommon
-bit injuries; pulpitis
-harder to remove, anesthesia
Wolf teeth:
-first premolar
-historically, overdone procedure
212
Q

Most challenging to remove: cheek teeth

A 
Intra-oral:
-current recommendation
-sedated horse
-analgesia
-local nerve block
-rigid halter or head stand
-restrained in stocks
Extra-oral:
-retropulsion into oral cavity
-buccotomy with removal of alveolar bone (higher rates of complications)
213
Q

Specialist tools and patience

A
  • up to ~1hr with 100s of gentle oscillations

- molar separators + molar extractor + elevator with fulcrum

214
Q

Complications for cheek teeth extracted per os

A 
In all cases:
-avoiding step mouth
-float 2x annually
~7%:
-fracture with apical portion persisting
-damage to adjacent teeth
-fracture of jaw
-sequestrum of adjacent bone
-impaction of feed in alveolus
-fistulas/sinusitis
215
Q

Retropulsion removal of teeth

A

-common but professionally discouraged
-strongly recommended: weaken periodontal ligament first
-high rate of complications: ~40% require second surgery, further back the tooth, more likely a problem
Problems:
-sequestra of bone/teeth fragments
-damage to adjacent teeth
- nerve damage
-major bone damage
-damage to nasolacrimal duct, parotid salivary duct, or palatine artery

216
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Pluripotenet Cells
-bone, cartilage, soft tissue
Cell Homing
Two sources: bone marrow, adipose tissue

217
Q

Application of stem cells

A
  • musculoskeletal injuries: tendonitis/desmitis, degenerative joint disease
  • wound treatment
218
Q

Does stem cell therapy work?

A
  • not a cure
  • accelerates healing
  • just a tool
  • reduced chances of reoccurence
219
Q

What is microchipping in horses?

A

highly reliable and biocompatible form of horse identification

220
Q

Is microchipping of horses safe?

A

yes, no risk of chip migration

221
Q

With who is microchipping of horses mandatory?

A
  • not mandatory by US govt

- mandatory for: USEF and USHJA, Jockey Club

222
Q

What is the ISO standard number for microchipping? USA country code for a microchip?

A

ISO standard: 11784/11785

USA code: 840

223
Q

Brucellosis in Horses

A 
Brucella abortus:
-B. suis occasionally involved
-endemic in GYA elk and bison
-transmission to cattle
-zoonotic
'Fistulous withers' and 'poll evil':
-bursitis between shoulder blades or atlantal bursa
224
Q

Diseases outside GYA

A
  • non-endemic areas: almost always other bacteria
  • endemic area:
  • state vet
  • serological testing
  • attempted culture
  • curettage + lavage + antibiotics + vaccination
225
Q

Equine Viral Arteritis

A 
-arterivirus
Present but rare in USA:
-seroprevalence of 1-2%
-at least 6 outbreaks
-carrier stallions (STD)
-esp. v young and v old debilitated and immunosuppressed
-most infections inapparent
-multiple strains: most low pathogenicity
Three presentations:
-flu-like illness
-abortion
-pneumonia
-USDA uniform methods and rules for EVA
-MLV vaccine, USDA controlled
226
Q

Pigeon Fever (‘dryland distemper’, ‘wyoming strangles’)

A
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • esp. SW USA, recurrently in WY and CO during summers
  • fly transmitted
  • esp. young adult horese
  • abscesses in pectoral area and ventral midline
  • generally recovery within 2wks of rupture and discharge
  • complications: internal abscesses, laminitis
  • lesions resemble TB
  • don’t use antibiotics
227
Q

Big-Head

A
  • Aka: nutritonal secondary hyperparathyroidism, bran disease, miller disease, osteitis fibrosa, swollen face disease, and equine osteoporosis
  • low in calcium and/or high in phosphorus
228
Q

Hendra Virus

A 
-related to measles and CD
Originates in fruit bat:
-Melbourne-Papua New Guinea
-Asymptomatic infectins
-Bat to horse transmission?
-ARDS in horses
-zoonotic
229
Q

Hendra virus in horses

A
  • incubation: 6-18 days, shed virus during asymptomatic period
  • depression, pyrexia, dyspnea, tachycardia
  • nasal discharge
  • sudden death 1-3 days after onset
230
Q

Hendra virus in people

A
  • incubation period 4-18 days, may be up to 1 yr
  • flu-like disease: fever, myalgia, headaches, vertigo
  • pneumonitis, rapid progression to respiratory failure
  • meningoencephalitis
231
Q

Equine Piroplasmosis

A
  • protozoan
  • tropical/subtropical, formerly USA, recent periodic incursions into US (associated with illegal horse importation, needle-sharing, pre-race blood-doping)
  • multiple tick species incl. US endemic ticks
  • long-lived infection in horse (years), reservoirs: asymptomatic horses and competent tick vectors
  • mechanical transmission possible
  • no vaccine, no 100% treatment
232
Q

Anemia in horses

A

-blood parasite
-acute vs. chronic
Most typically, acute disease:
-fever
-weakness
-labored/rapid respiration
-anemia
-thrombocytopenia
-jaundice
-systemic inflammatory response

233
Q

Dourine-Equine Trypanosomiasis

A
  • equine version of human ‘sleeping sickness’
  • STD
  • horses only
  • in S. America and elsewhere (USA/Canada, europe)
  • chronic blood-borne parasite: Trypanosoma equiperdum
234
Q

Clinical Signs of Dourine

A

Acute STD:
-Mares: vaginal discharge
-Stallions: edema of external genetalia
Chronic Disease: CNS
-treatement not recommended, induces carrier state
-risk from imported semen from endemic areas

235
Q

What is the average life span of a horse?

A

27 years

236
Q

1st, 2nd, 3rd reasons why horses die

A
  1. digestive
  2. endocrine
  3. musculoskeletal
237
Q

Digestive problems in older horses

A 
Various forms of colic
-GI impaction or rupture
-gastric ulcers and neoplasia
-colonic impaction
-intestinal displacement/volvulus, other strangulating lesions
Intestinal inflammation:
-enteritis, typhlitis, colitis
Intestinal neoplasia
Liver failure
Worn teeth and periodontitis
238
Q

Dental problems in old horses

A
  • Senile diastemata: food impaction, periodontal disease
  • pulpal exposure
  • decreased occlusal surface + reduced enamel ridges, less grinding efficiency, ‘smooth mouth’
  • loss of cheek teeth
  • loss of enamel folds
239
Q

Common causes of less efficient teeth of old horses

A
  • decreased surface area + decreased enamel ridges
  • decreased GIT ability to digest protein and fiber
  • decreased excessive incisor wear
  • periodontitis in ~80% of horses >20y
  • loss of reserve crown leads to poorly anchored tooth leads to displacement/tooth loss
240
Q

Dealing with less efficient teeth of old horses

A
  • pelleted/extruded dies ~14%
  • reducing fiber length of hay
  • ‘smooth mouth’: moistened pellets or cubes in liquid consistency
  • antibiotic oral gels for chronic periodontitis
  • regular dental examination
241
Q

Musculoskeletal disease of older horses

A

Lameness

  • laminitis, esp. chronic
  • osteoarthritis/DJD
  • esp. lower limbs, metacarpus/metatarsus, fetlock, tarsus/carpus
242
Q

Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (Equine cushings) (older horses)

A

focal/multifocal hyperplasia of fars intermidia (PI) leads to diffuse hyperplasia of PI leads to adenomatous hyperplasia of PI leads to microadenomas leads to adenoma

243
Q

Respiratory system of older horses

A
  • equine asthma
  • pneumona, esp. as sequel to choke, infectious
  • guttural pouch empyema
  • sinusitis
244
Q

Central Nervous System/Eyes of older horses

A 
Age-related neurodegenration:
-white matter and neuronal vacuolation
-vascular degeneration +/- iron deposition
-'wear and tear' pigment
-abnormal axons ('spheroids')
-'neuraxonal dystrophy'
-no true alzheimer's disease
Degenerative myelopathy
-EPM
-Uveitis
245
Q

Urogenital disease of older horses

A
  • interstitial nephritis
  • bladder tumors
  • Penile SCC
  • ovarian carcinoma
246
Q

Cardiovascular system of older horses

A
  • cardiac valvular disease
  • myocardial necrosis
  • verminous arteritis
  • tumors of cardiovascular system
  • aortic-iliac thrombosis
  • Hemoabdomen (vascular tears)
247
Q

Biggest type of neoplasia in older horses

A

pituitary adenoma

248
Q

What is the most common malignant neoplasm of old horses?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

249
Q

Euthanasia in older horses

A 
Safety issues: falling and thrashing
1. Barbiturates (ace)
-safe disposal of carcass (wildlife hazard)
2. Gunshot or penetrating captive bolt
-experience + care regarding ricochet
3. Adjunctive only: potassium chloride
Unacceptable:
-choral hydrate
-neuromuscular blocking agents
250
Q

What does a soundness exam mean to a veterinarian?

A

to examine something closely
-horse-racing term, referring to requirement that horses be checked for health and soundess by veterinarian before being allowed to race

251
Q

Which diseases are typically missed on a soundness exam?

A
  • strangles
  • gastric cancer
  • parasites
  • internal cancer
252
Q

What is typically found on a soundness exam?

A

Lameness

-designed to find out will horse meet requirements of what buyer wants it to be used for

253
Q

Overview of Soundness Exam

A
  • buyer initiates prepurchase exam (one vet should not represent both parties)
  • purpose: to discover pre-existing/potential problems (not gurantee of soundness, helpful to know intended use of horse)
  • roles of parties should be defined
  • major source of litigation, due to: lack of understanding of prepurchase exam process, buyer’s excessive expectation of secure investment
254
Q

Veterinarian’s responsibilities of a soundness exam

A
  • experience with breed
  • understanding of intended use
  • away of breed or use requirements
  • thorough, orderly examination
  • generates report for buyer
  • accurately assesses buyer’s expectations
  • define limitations of prepurchase exam
255
Q

What does a veterinarian need to know/do prior to a soundess exam?

A
  • no contact with horse or seller in previous medical or personal role
  • be aware of state and international disease testing (review with buyer, EIA test)
  • offer drug testing
256
Q

Buyer’s responsibilities during a soundness exam

A
  • buyer owns the information but should maintain confidentiality
  • buyer can request previous medical records
  • may request trial period
  • help verify specific rule requirements
257
Q

Prepurchase exam: history

A
  • questionnaire to seller: info is legally buying
  • questionnaire to buyer: expectations, potential use, previous experience
  • note modifying conditions:
  • intended to compete at higher level
  • coming off lay-off period
  • some infirmities may be acceptable to experienced rider
  • financial investment
  • pleasure horse
258
Q

Prepurchase exam: environment

A
  • habits/vices matter
  • environtment: bedding, stall appearance
  • animal’s demeanor
259
Q

Prepurchase exam

A 
At rest:
-heart rate
-respiratory rate
-body temp
-what is normal?
Re-evaluate after exercise (did murmur appear/disappear)
260
Q

Prepurchase exam: microchip

A
  • verify placement (nuchal ligament)

- verify ID #

261
Q

Prepurchase exam: head

A 
Teeth:
-hypsodont
-speculum, thorough exam
-dentistry required?
-verify teeth mirror age
Eyes:
-darkened room
-ophthalmoscope
-ulcers, cataracts, others
-periodic ophthalmia
Ears:
-sarcoid, melanoma, papilloma
262
Q

Prepurchase Exam: musculoskeletal

A
  • musculatrue: face, neck, back, symmetry, atrophy, pain, spasm
  • palpate spine and pelvis for misalignment
  • evidence of scar tissue for previous surgeries
  • EPM, rare in WY-raised horses, but not impossible
  • palpate all 4 legs: tendons, muscles, heat or swelling
  • observe: uneven wear on toes
  • test hooves
  • observe horse in motion
263
Q

Prepurchase exam: musculoskeletal, exam in motion

A
  • level footfall
  • gait abnormalities
  • range of motion
  • mobility of neck, back and pelvis
  • head movement
  • flexibility and fluidity
  • muscle use
  • tail carriage
264
Q

Prepurchase exam: reproductive

A 
Mares:
-perineal conformation
-udder symmetry
Stallions:
-both testicles descended
Geldings:
-castration remnants
Generally not:
-pregnancy examination
-uterine swab and biopsy
265
Q

Generally not done during prepurchase exam:

A
  • Echocardiography
  • rectal palpation
  • x-rays
266
Q

Is glanders present in the US?

A

no, eradicated in the US

267
Q

Is glanders a reportable disease?

A

glanders

268
Q

Is glanders zoonotic?

A

yes

269
Q

Is there treatment/vaccine for glanders?

A

high fatality in horses/humans

  • treatment is experimental
  • no vaccine
270
Q

Where can you go to find information about drugs for horses?

A
  • Compendium of Veterinary Products
  • FDA website
  • USDA

Equine Exam 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions