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Human Behavior > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are immature defenses?

A 
acting out 
externalization 
fantasy 
idealization 
omnipotent control
passive agressive 
projection 
projective identification 
somatization
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2
Q

What are neurotic defenses?

A 
Displacement 
Dissociation 
Hypochondriasis 
Intellectualization 
Isolation 
Rationalization 
Reaction Formation 
Regression 
Repression/Blocking 
Undoing
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3
Q

What are higher order (mature) defenses?

A 
Altruism 
Anticipation 
Humor 
Identification 
Introjection 
Sublimation 
Suppression
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4
Q

What percentage of the US population has a personality disorder (PD)?

A

6-9%

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5
Q

When is the typical onset of PDs?

A

during adolescence or in early adulthood

you can not dx before the age of 18

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6
Q

Are PDs more common in Males or Females?

A

Males are more common for PPD, APD, and NPD

Females are more common for BPD

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7
Q

What is personality?

A

Combination of stable, habitual patterns of behavior that are characteristic of a person and that develop over the first two decades of life and then change little

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8
Q

Trait

A

personality patterns are considered traits because they are longstanding and consistent (eye color, height)

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9
Q

State

A

state behavior refers to behaviors that come and go, such as a mood state and many DSM axis 1 conditions

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10
Q

What types of behavioral traits have high heritability?

A 
aggressiveness 
altruism 
assertivness 
empathy 
harm avoidance 
impulsivity 
leadership 
persistence (stubbornness)
social closeness 
well-being
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11
Q

What is the DSM criteria for Personality Disorders?

A 
must be over the age of 18 to dx
2+ of the following:
-cognition
-affectivity 
-interpersonal functioning
-impulse control
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12
Q

Paranoid PD

A

unwarranted suspiciousness and a tendency to misinterpret the actions of others as threatening, or deliberately harmful; stereotype of militia, hate group member, isolated bomber or killer
defense mechanism: projection

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13
Q

Schizoid PD

A

detachment from others, a restricted range of emotional expression and a lack of interest in activities; stereotype of socially awkward, isolated computer hacker

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14
Q

Schizotypal PD

A

deficits in interpersonal relationships and distortions in both cognition and perception; the clarirvoyant mystic

defense mechanism: fantasy

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15
Q

Histrionic PD

A

excessive emotional expression and attention-seeking behavior

defense mechanism: hypochondriasis, somatization, regression

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16
Q

Narcissistic PD

A

grandiosity, lack of empathy and a need for admiration; wealthy real estate tycoon who enjoys firing people

defense mechanism: omnipotent control, denial, externalization

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17
Q

Antisocial PD

A

guiltless, exploitative and irresponsible behavior with the hallmark being conscious deceit of others; stereotype of the cold and callus criminal

defense mechanism: acting out, denial, externalization

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18
Q

Borderline PD

A

pervasive instability in moods, interpersonal relationships, self image and behavior; often disrupts family and work life, long-term planning, and the individual’s sense of identity
originally thought to be at the “borderline” of psychosis, people with BPD suffer from a disorder of emotion regulation

defense mechanism:
acting out, splitting, projective identification, dissociation

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19
Q

Obsessive-compulsive PD

A

rigidity, perfectionism, orderliness, indecisiveness, interpersonal control and emotional constriction

defense mechanism: undoing

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20
Q

Avoidant PD

A

inhibition, introversion and anxiety in social situations

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21
Q

Dependent PD

A

Submissive behavior and excessive needs for emotional support

defense mechanism: idealization

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22
Q

PD: Cluster A (weird)

A

Paranoid PD
Schizoid PD
Schizotypal PD

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23
Q

PD: Cluster B (wild)

A

histrionic PD
Narcissistic PD
Antisocial PD
Borderline PD

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24
Q

PD: Cluster C (wacky)

A

Obsessive-compulsive PD
Avoidant PD
Dependent PD

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25
Q

What defense mechanism is commonly seen with depression?

A

introjection

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26
Q

What defense mechanism is commonly seen with paranoia/psychosis?

A

Projection

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27
Q

What defense mechanism is commonly seen with Obsessive Compulsive PD?

A

undoing

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28
Q

What defense mechanism is commonly seen with Antisocial PD?

A

omnipotent control

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29
Q

What defense mechanism is commonly seen with borderline personality PD?

A

splitting and projective identification

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30
Q

What is bipolar?

A

a mood disorder characterized by episodes of mania, hypomania and major depression
recurrent swings between these mood states
85% of bipolar patients will have more than one episode of a full cycle swing in their lives

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31
Q

BPD ranks _____ as the world’s most disabling illness

A

6th

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32
Q

BPDs account for ____% of all mood disorders

A

25%

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33
Q

Risk Factors

A

majority of first episode before 25 years of age
means age of onset of first episode is 18 years
mixed episodes are more common in adolescents and young adults than older adults
There is a 10-15% of adolescents with hx of recurrent major depression will develop Bipolar disorder
GENETIC

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34
Q

How do the first episodes differ between men and women?

A

Women - depressive

Men - manic

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35
Q

Risk of suicide in BPD is ____X is the general population

A

15 times higher

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36
Q

Bipolar disorder may account for ___% of all completed suicides

A

25%

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37
Q

BPD are much more likely to have ____disorders than the general population

A

anxiety

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38
Q

BPD pts are more likely to ….

A

be unemployed

risk of divorce 2-3x general population

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39
Q

If you are counseling a family with a teenage who has depression, what is the likelihood that they will develop bipolar?

A

10-15%

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40
Q

What is the likelihood that monozygotic twins both have BPD if one has BPD?

A

50%

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41
Q

Bipolar 1 vs Bipolar 2

A

Bipolar 1 - episodes of full blown mania and major depression. may also have hypomania
Bipolar 2 - episodes of hypomania and major depression, but not full blown mania

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42
Q

What is the DMS criteria for mania?

A

a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated or irritable mood AND persistently increased goal-direct activity or energy lasting @ least a week or requiring hospitalization
during this period 3+ of the following:
-inflated self esteem or grandiosity
-decreased need for sleep
-more talkative than usual or pressured speech
-flight of ideas or racing thoughts
-distractibility (attention drawn to unimportant stimuli)
-increased goal directed activity
-excessive involvement in risky behavior

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43
Q

What is the DSM criteria for hypomania?

A

essentially the same as for mania, but the required duration is 4+ days and the sxs are “not severe enough to cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning”
difficult to diagnose retrospectively unless you have help from a family member/significant other

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44
Q

DSM criteria for major depression

A

5+ of the following sxs have been present for the same 2 week period and represent a change from previous functioning; at least one of the sxs is either (1) depressed mood or (2) loss of interest or pleasure
-depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day, as indicated by either subjective report of observation made by others
- markedly diminshed interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day
significant weight loss when not dieting or weight gain, or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
-psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
-fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
-feelings or worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
- diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness, nearly every day
-recurrent thoughts of death recurrent suicidal ideation without specific plan

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45
Q

How do you dx Bipolar 1?

A

one manic episode not explained by anything else

depression not actually required

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46
Q

How do you dx Bipolar 2?

A

one hypomanic plus one major depressive episode

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47
Q

Cyclothymia

A

a chronic, bipolar-like condition characterized by numerous periods of sxs of hypomania and periods of sxs of depression that do not meet the threshold for a major depressive episode. lasts at least 2 years, sxs present most of the time, no more than 2 months sxs-free

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48
Q

What medications can cause substance induced bipolar disorder?

A

cocaine
corticosteroids
stimulants

this dx is NOT made if pt had sxs of bipolar disorder prior to use of medications/substance

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49
Q

What is the ratio of depressed mood to elevated mood in bipolar 1 vs 2?

A

Bipolar 1 - 3:1

Bipolar 2 - 37:1

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50
Q

What is the differential dx of BPD?

A 
unipolar major depressive disorder 
schizoaffective disorder 
schizophrenia
ADHD
borderline personality disorder 
substance abuse 
hypothyroidism
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51
Q

What is rapid cycling?

A

4+ episodes in a year

more common in women

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52
Q

When is the most dangerous time for a BP pt?

A

When they are coming out of their depressive state via medications because their energy comes back before their mood improves

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53
Q

What is the goal of BPD treatment?

A

monotherpy on a mood stabilizer (lithium or valproate)

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54
Q

When do we use valproate?

A

first line treatment for pts without psychosis

DO NOT use in women with periods

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55
Q

DSM 5 Criteria for Manic Episode

A

A distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least 1 week
3+:
- inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
- decreased need for sleep
-more talkative than usual (or pressured speech)
-flight of ideas
-distractibility
- increase in goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation
-excessive involvement in activities that have a high potential for painful consequences

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56
Q

Bipolar I disorder

A

Occurrence of at least one manic or mixed episode

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57
Q

Hypomanic Episode

A

Mood disorder syndrome similar to mania but milder and briefer

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58
Q

Obessions

A

recurrent and persistent ideas, thoughts, impulses, or images that are experienced as intrusive and inappropriate and that cause marked anxiety or distress

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59
Q

Compulsions

A

repetitive and intentional behaviors (or mental acts) performed in response to obsessions or according to certain rules that must be applied rigidly

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60
Q

What is the DSM criteria for OCD?

A

Obsessions, compulsions, or both
obsession or compulsion are time consuming or cause clinically significant stress or impairment
the person recognizes that the obsessions and compulsions are intrusive and unwanted

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61
Q

What are the 7 different types of obsessions?

A 
aggression 
contamination 
symmetry
sexual
hoarding
religious
somatic
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62
Q

What are the subtypes of OCD?

A

insight (good, poor, absent)

tic related

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63
Q

What is the best treatment for tic-related OCD?

A

antipsychotic + SSRI

this subtype is highly familial with early onset and M > F

64
Q

What is the epidemiology of OCD?

A

M = W (men more likely to have earlier onset)
onset typically gradual (but can be sudden)
typically onset by late teens early 20s with most having had it by their 30s
lifetime prevalence of 2-3%

65
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of OCD?

A

2-3%

66
Q

What SSRIs are used to treat OCD?

A

fluoxetine
fluvoxamine
paroxetine
sertraline

67
Q

What is the DSM criteria for body dysmorphic syndrome?

A

preoccupation with 1+ received defects or flaws in physical appearance that are not observable to others
at some point during the course of the disorder, the individual has performed repetitive behaviors or mental acts in response to the appearance concerns

68
Q

What is the prevalence of body dysmorphic syndrome?

A

1-3% in general population

equally common in men and women

69
Q

When is the typical onset of body dysmorphic syndrome?

A

adolescence or early adulthood

70
Q

Is body dysmorphic syndrome acute or chronic?

A

chronic but fluctuates in intensity and severity

71
Q

Pts with body dysmorphic syndrome attribute their disability to ….?

A

the embarrassment associated with their imagined defect

72
Q

What is the treatment for body dysmorphic syndrome?

A

cognitive-behavioral therapy + SSRIs

73
Q

The addition of what drug class will help boost the SSRIs when treating pts with body dysmorphic syndrome?

A

second generation antipsychotics (olanzapine, risperidone)

74
Q

What is the incidence of hoarding disorder?

A

5% of the general population

75
Q

What is the DSM criteria for Hoarding Disorder?

A

persistent difficulty discarding or parting with possessions
perceived need to save the items
resulting in accumulation of possessions that clutters active living areas

76
Q

What is the emotional feelings a pt with Hoarding Disorder experience when trying to get rid of an possessions?

A

anxiety or feeling of grief at the loss

77
Q

What are the nonpsychiatric differential dx of a pt with hoarding disorder?

A

lesions in the anterior ventromedial prefrontal and cingulate cortices
Prader -Willi Syndrome (rare –pt will be of short stature, hyperphagia, food-seeking behavior)

78
Q

What is the treatment for mild hoarding disorder?

A

SSRI

79
Q

What is trichotillomania?

A

hair pulling disorder

increase sense of tension before pulling out the hair and pleasure, gratification, or relief when pulling out the hair

80
Q

What is the DSM criteria for Trichotillomania?

A

Recurrent pulling out of ones hair

repeated attempts to decrease or stop hair pulling

81
Q

Is trichotillomania acute or chronic?

A

chronic but tends to wax and wane in sx severity

82
Q

Which gender is more likely to have trichotillomania?

A

females

83
Q

What is the typically onset of trichotillomania?

A

childhood onset

1-4% of adolescents and college students

84
Q

What comorbidities do you normally see in a pt with trichotillomania?

A

mood and anxiety disorders

85
Q

What is the treatment for trichotillomania?

A

behavioral therapy (habit reversal)
SSRIs or clomipramine
cognitive behavioral psychotherapy to help boost low self esteem

86
Q

Excoriation

A

skin - picking disorder

87
Q

What is the incidence of excoriation?

Is it considered chronic or acute?

A

1-5% of the general population
often considered chronic, the disorder fluctuates in intensity and severity (few people wit this disorder seek treatment)

88
Q

What is the DSM criteria for Excoriation?

A

recurrent skin picking resulting in skin lesions

repeated attempts to decrease or stop skin picking

89
Q

What is the treatment for excoriation?

A

not well established

SSRIs + habit reversal

90
Q

What are the type of eating disorders?

A 
Anorexia Nervosa 
Bulimia Nervosa 
Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder 
Binge eating disorder
Pica
Rumination disorder
91
Q

What are the two key disturbances of eating disorders?

A

Behavioral Disorder “disturbance in eating habits”

Cognitive Disturbance “fear of being fat”

92
Q

What factors affect the development of eating disorders in adolescence?

A

Pubertal changes
Interpersonal changes
Genetics

93
Q

What is the weight cut off for anorexia nervosa?

A

In adolescents a BMI for age < 5th percentile

94
Q

Which gender is more likely to get anorexia nervosa?

A

Females

95
Q

Binge eating

A

Eating, in a discrete period of time (ex. Within any 2 hour period), an amount of food that is definietly large than what most individuals would eat
A sense of lack of control over eating during episode

96
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of bulimia nervosa?

A

2%

97
Q

Binge eating disorder

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating
May or may not have cognitive distortions (but more often they do)
The binge-eating episodes are associated with 3+ of the following:
-eating much more rapidly than normal
-eating until feeling uncomfortably full
-eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry
-eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one is eating
-feeling disgusted with oneself, depressed, or very guilting afterward
The bind eating occurs, at least once a week for 3 months

98
Q

Loss of Control Eating (LOC)

A

A binge is hard to define in growing children of various ages
LOC: subjective experience of loss of control over eating with an objective or subjective binge episode
Associated with weight gain
Associated with impulsivity/ADHD

99
Q

Avoidant Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

A

Persistent failure to meet nutritional needs with one or more of:
-sig. weight loss
-sig. nutritional deficiency
-dependence of enteral feeding or supplements
-interference with functioning
Onset in infancy or early childhood, may persist to adulthood
Insufficient evidence linking to tother eating disorders

100
Q

What is atypical anorexia?

A

Weight is in the normal range despite weight loss

101
Q

Which groups of adolescents have higher rates of eating disorders?

A

Those with chronic medical conditions
And
Type 1 Diabetes

102
Q

What are the 3 components of feeding behavior leading to food consumption?

A

Food acquisition
Satiety
Social learning

103
Q

What are some CV complications of eating disorders?

A 
Bardycardia 
Hypotension
Orthostatic blood pressure 
Long QT syndrome 
Loss of cardiac muscle
Mitral valve prolapse
Pericardial effusion 
Reversible with weight restoration
104
Q

What are the endocrine complications of AN?

A

Low T3
Normal T4 and TSH
Reversible with feeding
Suppression of hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis leading to amenorrhea, pubertal delay

105
Q

What is the DSM criteria for Delirium?

A

Disturbance in attention (ie reduced ability to direct, focus, sustain, and shift attention) and awareness
Change in cognition (eg memory deficit, disorientation, language disturbance, perceptual disturbance) that is not better explained by something else
-disturbance develops over a short period (hours to days) and tends to fluctuate during the course of the day

106
Q

____% of elderly patients admitted for medical problem will experience delirium

A

30%

107
Q

_____% of patients admitted for a surgical problem with have delirium

A

25-40%

108
Q

Up to ____% of ICU pts have delirium at some point in their stay

A

70%

109
Q

___% of people over 55 living at home who were randomly chosen were found to be delirious

A

1%

110
Q

Mortality rates for pts with delirium are ____ as high as pts without similar conditions who do not get delirium

A

Twice

111
Q

What neurotransmitter is found to be deficient in delirium pt?

A

Acetylcholine

Anticholinergic medications (benadryl, tricyclic antidepressants, HTN meds) are well known to cause delirium

112
Q

What are the risk factors for delirium?

A 
Advanced age 
Serious illness 
Dehydration 
Polypharmacy
Pre-existing dementia 
Electrolyte and metabolic problems 
Sleep deprivation 
Visual/hearing problems
113
Q

What is the most common cause of delirium?

A

INFECTION

114
Q

What are the most common causes of delirium?

A

Infection

  • Urinary infection
  • PNA
  • Sepsis
  • electrolyte disturbance
  • metabolic disorder
  • medication reactions
  • dehydration
  • Heart attack
  • Stroke
  • EtOH/drugs
  • HF
  • Renal Failure
115
Q

What are the first symptoms of delirium?

A 
“Grandma ain’t acting right!”
Reduced awareness of the environment
Drowsy or lethargic 
Distractible 
New memory impairment 
Wave and wave = HALLMARK
116
Q

What questions should you be asking the family when assessing a delirium patient?

A

How long has this been going on?
What specifically do you notice is wrong?
Any new meds or change in meds?
Alcohol/drug hx
Recent febrile illness?
Sxs of other illness (cough, strong urine, leg weakness)
Depression?

117
Q

What PE are you going to do for a pt with delirium?

A

Head to toe

Full Neurological exam

118
Q

What labs do you order for a pt with delirium?

A

ALWAYS: CBC, electrolytes, renal panel, liver panel, UA with culture, CXR

  • EKG (if they have CV risk)
  • blood clture
  • toxicology panels/drug levels
  • cardiac enzymes/ Pro-BNP
  • arterial blood gas (if they seem septic)

May also include:
-CT/MRI, lumbar puncture, EEG

119
Q

What does a low temperature in an elderly patient mean?

A

Equivalent to a fever in an elderly pt because they are not in balance

120
Q

What is the treatment for delirium?

A

Treat the CAUSE (abx, etc)

121
Q

What are the adjunct treatments for delirium?

A
  • gently re-orient and reassure the patient
  • have family stay close by if they are helpful
  • discontinue restraints and urinary catheters if possible
  • try to keep the environment quiet and remove unnecessary visual stimuli
  • may be gentle sedation with haloperidol (
122
Q

What are the differences between delirium and dementia?

A 
Time frame of onset 
Underlying cause 
Genetic predisposition
Treatment 
Reversibility (waxing and waning)
123
Q

What is one of the most common and most serious psychiatric emergencies?

A

Suicidal Ideation

124
Q

How many people die per year from suicide in the US?

A

30,000

125
Q

____% of suicide patient saw their primary care doctor within a month of their suicide

A

45%

126
Q

Men are ____times more likely to complete suicide, but women are more likely to attempt

A

4 times

127
Q

How do men and women differ from attempted suicide?

A

Men more likely to use violent means

Women are more likely to OD

128
Q

People who live in a house where there is a gun are ____to ____ times as likely to succeed in suicide as those whose household do not contain guns

A

4 to 10

129
Q

What are the risk factors for suicide

A
  • Major psychiatric disorder such as depression, bipolar dz, SCZ
  • previous psych hospitalization
  • previous suicide attempt
  • substance abuse
  • hopelessness
  • impulsivity (especially among teens)
  • living alone
  • unemployed
  • being an MD
  • childhood physical/sexual abuse
  • family hx of suicide
  • chronic illness
130
Q

What questions are you asking when assessing a suicidal pt?

A

Are the means of suicide available to the pt (meds, guns)?
How lethal is the plan likely to be?
What is the likelihood of rescue?
Has pt. Made preparations for suicide? (Stockpiling pills, giving away belongings)
Who does the patient have to provide support to them?
Do they have protective religious beliefs?

131
Q

What is the hardest part of suicide pt presentation?

A

They present so differently
As the provider you need to just pay attention to subtle phrases or recent stories of loss or etc
Be direct
Be comfortable with talking about suicide. “Have you thought of hurting yourself or anyone else?”

132
Q

What is inpatient management of suicidal patient?

A 
Intensive therapy (individual +/- group) 
Start patient on anti-depressant or change medication regimen 
Assess for psychiatric and medical comorbidities 
Begin discharge planning from the first day
133
Q

When you start a pt with high suicidiality on anti-depressants why do you want to see this patient multiple times a week?

A

The first few weeks after a pt starts an antidepressant are dangerous
Since they have more energy but aren’t feeling better

134
Q

What is a “contract for safety”?

A

Sitting down and expressing concern
Making a plan for the patient to call or what actions they would take if they were considering suicide
DOCUMENT that you did this

135
Q

Which patients do you ask about homicidal ideation?

A

Depression
SCZ
PD
Suicidality

Make sure you ask the patient and DOCUMENT
You do NOT want to be held accountable for this
ASK!

136
Q

What is the Tarasoff Ruling?

A

Health professionals have a “duty to protect” the intended victim by warning the victim, notifying the police and any other practical means
Health professionals do not have a duty only to the patient right in front of them

This is one reason you are able to break pt confidentiality

137
Q

What do you do if a pt tells you they want to kill someone and have a plan?

A

1) call the PD and let them know

2) hospitalize this pt and start psych work up

138
Q

Psychosis definition

A

A disturbance in the perception of reality, evidenced by hallucinations, delusions, or thought disorganization

Psychotic patients are at high risk for agitation, aggression, suicide, homicide and other forms of behavioral dysfunction

139
Q

What is Rule # 1 for evaluating psychotic pts?

A

Make sure that you, the pt, and all staff are safe

140
Q

What are techniques for calming a psychotic pt?

A

Verbal reassurance
Cooling down period
Haloperidol (Haldol)

141
Q

What are you assessing in a psychotic pt?

A 
Hallucinations 
Delusions
Thought disorganizations 
Difficulty maintaining daily activities 
Cognitive loss 
Diminished verbal communication
142
Q

What is the treatment of psychosis?

A

Immediate, secure hospitalization to prevent harm to themselves and others g

Long term, these patients need a correct diagnosis (SZH, Bipolar) and proper treatment for these diseases
May include antipsychotic pills or depot haloperidol (once a month injection)

143
Q

What do you do if a pt has a weapon?

A

NEVER ask them to hand it to you
Ask them to put it on the ground

Follow hospital protocol for what comes next

144
Q

Substance abusers are ___times more likely than the general population to become violent

A

30

145
Q

Patients with antisocial personality disorders + substance abuse are ____ times more likely than the general population to become violent

A

100

146
Q

What do you have to consider when you are physically restraining a patient?

A

Figure out the law in your state
But make sure they are quick release (with one pull or one hand)
Because if that patient codes or vomits you need to be able to quickly role the patient
These patients need a sitter

147
Q

What are the two main drugs for chemical restraints?

A

Anti-psychotics - Haldol
Start with 5 mg IM. Dose can be repeated every 20-30 minutes

Benzo - Lorazepam
-start with 1-2mg IV/IM
Dose can be repeated every 10 - 30 minutes

148
Q

What are the only fatal withdrawal syndromes?

A

EtOH or Benzos

149
Q

What is the treatment for EtOH Intoxication?

A

“Banana Bag” - Thiamin, Magnesium, MVI and folate in 1 L NS given IV
NEVER give sugar before thiamine because you can cause korscoff syndrome
Prevent EtOH withdrawal since it’s fatal

150
Q

What do pinpoint pupils suggest?

A

Opiate intoxication

151
Q

What is the treatment for Opiate Intoxication?

A

If they are breathing ok, just let them ride it out

If not, give them Naloxone (narcan) - don’t give 2mg all at once

152
Q

At what point do cocaine pts come into the hospital?

A

Only if they have a complication like chest pain (vasospasm), stroke, or spontaneous abortion, asthma

153
Q

What is the treatment for Cocaine-related Health Problems?

A

If HTN or tachy treat with Benzo
If having coronary vasospasm, given ASA and nitroglycerine

NEVER given Beta Blocker —> beta blockers will block beta but leaving alpha unopposed leading to stroke or HA
Always ask a pt with chest pain if they have done cocaine

154
Q

What is cluster A and what are the diseases, and associated familial disease?

A

Cluster A pts seem eccentric, peculiar, or withdrawn
Family hx of psychotic disorders

Paranoid
Schizoid
Schizotypal

155
Q

What is cluster B? What are the diseases and family correlation?

A

Emotional, dramatic, or inconsistent

Familial association with mood disorders

Diseases:

  • antisocial
  • borderline
  • histrionic
  • narcissistic
156
Q

What is cluster C? What diseases are cluster C?

A

Cluster C: anxious or fearful

Familial association of anxiety disorders

Diseases:

  • dependent
  • avoidant
  • Obsessive-compulsive

Human Behavior (2 decks)

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