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RUSVM BacT > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Mycobacterium stain what?

A

Gram positive, acid fast positive, ROD SHAPE. do NOT have an outer membrane

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2
Q

What contributes to acid fast staining?

A

Mycolic acid

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3
Q

What type of infection does mycobacterium cause?

A

chronic granulomatous infections

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4
Q

What are the virulence factors of mycobacterium

A
  • Lipid rich (mycolic acid containing) cell wall
  • Lipoarabinomannan- inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion
  • Cell protein antigens
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5
Q

True or False - under optimum conditions obligate pathogens can survive in a contaminated envior for extended periods

A

True

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6
Q

How is TB transmitted

A

inhalation and ingestion

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7
Q

Pathogenesis of TB

A
  • Cell mediated immune response is important in the destruction of bacilli. If bacilli survive, infected macrophages are killed following stimulated release of macrophage- derived cytotoxins and enzymes. Type IV hypersensitivity or delayed type hypersensitivity-> which leads to tissue destruction.
  • Caseous necrosis and mineralization followed by liquefaction and cavity formation resulting from enzymatic action. Rupture of these granulomas allows dissemination.
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8
Q

What does TB lesions consist of

A
  • Granulomas
  • Epithelioid macrophages
  • Caseous necrosis
  • multinucleated giant cells (Langhan’s cell)
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9
Q

What are the primary drugs for TB?

A

-Isoniazid, Rifamycins, Ethmanbutol, Pyrazinamide

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10
Q

What are the secondary drugs for TB?

A

-Aminoglycosides, Fluoroqunilones

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11
Q

Why is Mycobactrium bovis important?

A
  • Causes zoonotic TB
  • Ingestion, inhalation and less frequently by contact with mucous membranes and broken skin
  • Wide host range
  • GI tract is the main portal of entry
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12
Q

What are some clinical signs of M. bovis?

A
  • Enlarged regional lymph nodes and generalized wasting (cachexia) are seen in advanced disease stages. Pulmonary forms may be associated with chronic cough.
  • Larger stages firm, nodular lesions are evident in target organs and associated lymph nodes
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13
Q

M. bovis transmission

A
  • Aerosol transmission most common among cattle
  • May be shed in milk, prior to widespread pasteurization resulted from drinking/handling contaminated milk
  • Can enter body at any site (badgers transmission through skin wounds)
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14
Q

M. bovis diagnostic test

A
  • Tuberculin hypersensitivity skin test
  • Rare: Imaging techniques, culture
  • Post mortem exam/histo-> granulomatous lesions in lymph nodes and major organs
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15
Q

Tx for M. bovis

A
  • Not recommended for animal esp. infected cattle
  • Testing and culling of infected animals
  • For humans, combo antimicrobial agents used
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16
Q

What is Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis = Johne’s disease

A
  • A chronic, progressive granulomatous enteritis
  • Primary host-ruminants (cattle)
  • Excretion of organism through milk
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17
Q

Pathogenesis of Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis = Johne’s disease

A
  • infection through ingestion of contaminated material milk or in utero
  • Localizes macrophages in the intestine, local LN
  • Develops granulomatous enteritis, cachexia
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18
Q

Diagnosis of Paratuberculosis (johne’s disease)

A
  • Detection of host response to infection
  • Humoral immune response: ELISA or agar gel
  • Cell mediated immune response: Hypersensitivity skin test
  • Acid-fast stain
  • Culture
  • PCR
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19
Q

What is Mycobacterium leprae

A
  • Leprosy or Hansen’s disease
  • Chronic granulomatous debilitating disease
  • Transmission from shedding through nose not from the skin
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20
Q

What is Mycobacterium lepraemurium

A
  • Feline and murine (rodent) leprosy
  • Solitary or multiple cutaneous nodules or ulcerated lesions
  • Very fastidious organism
  • Granulomatous dermatitis and panniculitis
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21
Q

Campylobacter, helicobacter and lawsonia all have what in common?

A
  • All have typical gram-negative cell wall
  • All are opportunistic, extracellular pathogens
  • Except Lawsonia intracellularis -> obligate intracellular pathogen
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22
Q

Characteristics of Campylobacter

A
  • Curved motile gram negative rods (seagull shaped)
  • Microaerophilic (require low O2 to grow)
  • Inhabit the GI tract or lower genital tract
  • Difficult to isolate; needs special culture requirements
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23
Q

Characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni

A
  • Major cause of intestinal illness and diarrhea in humans and animals
  • Poor hygiene and management
  • Young animals
  • Infection by ingestion of contaminated materials
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24
Q

What bacteria is associated with subsequent Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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25
Q

C. jejuni infection is associated with

A

Superficial erosive colitis, ileitis and fluid loss, apparently with invasion of bacteria since bacteremia is a common event in C. jejuni enteritis.

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26
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of C. jejuni

A

Diagnosis: culture of feces, PCR
Treatment: Self-limiting diarrhea illness, macrolides, fluoroquinolones in severe cases

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27
Q

Characteristics of Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis

A
  • obligate animal parasite
  • subclinical infection is preputial crypts of bulls
  • transmission at breeding -> organisms migrate to the uterus and fallopian tubes following estrus
  • Breeding/artificial insemination with infected bull or semen
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28
Q

Pathogenesis of Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis

A

-Endometritis and salpingitis (infection/inflammation of fallopian tubes) or varying severity may cause transient infertility and early embryonic death

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29
Q

Diagnosis of Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis

A

-Detect organism in smegma, preputial washes or semen

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30
Q

Characteristics of Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus

A
  • commensals in the intestinal tract of cattle and sheep
  • Causes ovine genital campylobacteriosis
  • Sheep > ingestion through contaminated food/water > bacteremia > inflammation of placenta and abortion
  • Cattle: occasional abortion
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31
Q

Characteristics of Helicobacter spp.

A
  • small, spirally curved gram-negative rods
  • microaerophilic, and some require hydrogen
  • motile (bipolar flagella)
  • pathogenic and commensals present in the gastric mucosa and intestine
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32
Q

Characteristics of Helicobacter pylori

A
  • Gram negative microaerophilic bacterium in the stomach
  • Causes gastric ulcers
  • Associated with gastric neoplasms
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33
Q

Virulence factors and pathogenesis of H. pylori

A

-adhesins, flagella, endotoxin and extracellular urease, mucinase, vacuolating cytotoxin, catalase/SOD

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34
Q

Helicobacter hepaticus and helicobacter bilis are what?

A

mouse pathogens involved in hepatic necrosis, nonsuppurative hepatitis, heptocellular tumors

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35
Q

Heliobacter mustelae is involved in what

A

hypergastrinemia and peptic ulcers in ferrets

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36
Q

Characteristics of Lawsonia intracellularis

A
  • Small, spirally curved gram-negative rod
  • Lawsonia are intracellular bacteria which replicate in the apical cytoplasm of enterocytes- obligate intracellular pathogen
  • Associated with porcine proliferative enteropathy
  • Causes reduced weight gain and proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy
  • Mainly seen in weaner pigs and yearling foals
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37
Q

Characteristics of Spirochetes

A
  • Gram negative bacT
  • Slender, helically coiled, spiral organisms, move with corkscrew or flexing motion
  • Darkfield microscopy
  • Tight/loose coiled morphology due to flagella (axial filaments/endoflagella) located in periplasmic space
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38
Q

T/F Leptospira is saprophytes

A

True- saprophytes are free living in water

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39
Q

Describe the characteristics of a Leptospira infection

A
  • Pathogenic species maintained in the renal tubules or reservoir animals
  • Reservoir animals excrete the bacteria through urine and contaminate envior.
  • Pathogenic species survive for a short period in ponds, rivers, surface water, moist soil and mud
  • Direct contact with urine or contaminated water results in infection
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40
Q

What is the natural habitat of lepto

A

Proximal convoluted tubules of kidney (sometimes genital tract)

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41
Q

Virulence factors of Lepto

A
  • Cell associated: Endoflagella, outer membrane proteins, LPS (different from other gram negative bacT)
  • Extracellular: Hemolysins, protein cytotoxins
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42
Q

What are the types of pathology of Lepto?

A
  • Acute and chronic inflammation of various organs most notably the liver and kidneys
  • During bacteremia phase, intravascular hemolysis petechial hemorrhages and DIC
  • Jaundice (hepatitis)
  • Nephritis (acute, chronic interstitial nephritis)
  • Placentitis and abortion
  • Mastitis
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43
Q

Describe leptospirosis in dogs

A
  • acute febrile illness
  • Renal or hepatic injury, uveitis, pulmonary hemorrhage, abortion
  • Clinical signs: PU/PD, Dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, lethargy, abdominal pain
  • Signs of hepatic and renal failure, including icterus
  • Bleeding abnormalities and DIC
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44
Q

What is the gold standard test for Lepto?

A

Microscopic agglutination test

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45
Q

How does the Microscopic agglutination test work?

A

MAT- measures antibody titers to leptospira serovars using an agglutination test which uses live leptospira serovars

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46
Q

What is leptospira borgpetersenni serovar hardjo

A

it is host adapted in cattle resulting in reproductive failure due to early embryonic death and repeat breeding

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47
Q

What are the most common causes of equine lepto

A

Serovars Pomona and Grippotyphosa

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48
Q

Characteristics of Borrelia

A
  • Gram negative
  • Loosely coiled spirochete commonly cause arthropd (tick-borne) infections
  • Linear Chromosome
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49
Q

What Borreli causes lyme disease in North America

A

B. burgdorferi

50
Q

What happens after the tick ingest blood for lyme disease

A

After tick ingest blood, spirochete up-regulated expression of an outer surface protein, which is essential for virulence in mammals

51
Q

What are the borrelia virulence factors

A
  • LPS
  • Antigenic variation in major outer surface lipoproteins
  • Ability to hide out in L forms,
52
Q

Lyme disease pathogenesis

A
  • After inoculation into the skin, spirochetes multiple to highest numbers in the skin and disseminate via the blood stream
  • Skin rash (erythema migrans) is often the first sign of infection in human beings
  • Organism spread through the blood to joints, brain, nerves, eyes, heart, liver, kidney
53
Q

Characteristics of Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

A
  • Anaerobic spirochete agent of swine dysentery
  • Obligate parasite of colon in pigs
  • Survives relatively poor in enviornment
54
Q

How is Brachyspira hyodysenteriae transmitted?

A
  • Fecal-oral
  • Asymptomatic carrier pigs
  • Mechanical vectors (boots, coveralls, vehicles)
55
Q

How do you diagnosis Brachyspira

A
  • Direct staining and observation of loosely coiled spirochetes in clinical specimens
  • Anaerobic culture
  • PCR
  • Histopathology and silver staining
  • This condition must be differentiated from salmonellosis
56
Q

What does Treponema pallidum cause ?

A

Causes syphilis a sexually transmitted disease in humans

57
Q

What is Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PPD)

A
  • “Hairy Heel Warts”
  • Growing cause of lameness in cows
  • Economic loss, decreased milk production
58
Q

How do you treat Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PPD)

A
  • Spraying feet of dairy cattle with AB (tetracycline or lincomycin) solutions while they are milking -> most cost effective
  • Formaldehyde foot baths
59
Q

Characteristics of Treponema paraluis- cuniculi

A
  • Rabbit syphilis or vent disease in rabbits
  • Perineal and facial lesions
  • Epidermal hyperplasia with erosions, ulcers
  • Increased susceptibility
  • Spread by direct or venereal contact
60
Q

What is Rickettsia

A

Rickettsia are arthropod transmitted parasites of blood cells or endothelial cells and may cause persistent infections

  • Small obligate intracellular bacteria
  • Gram negative coccibacilli
  • Reside in an arthropod host
  • Rodents and small mammals can act as reservoirs
61
Q

Treatment for Rickettsia

A

Tetracycline, Doxy, Chloramphenicol, Enrofloxacin

62
Q

Transmission of Rickettsia rickettsia

A

-Dermacenter and Rhipicephalus sanguineous

63
Q

Pathogenesis of Rickettsia rickettsia

A

Organism invades and replicates in edothelial cells of small blood vessels, initiating platelet activation, intravascular coagulation and progressive necrotizing vasculitis.

64
Q

Clinical signs of Rickettsia rickettsia

A

Fever, depression, anorexia, subq edema, petechiation of mucous, myalgia and stiff gait.

65
Q

Treatment for Rickettsia rickettsia

A

Tetracycline therapy

66
Q

Characteristics of Anaplasmataceae

A
  • Parasites of haematopoietic (bone marrow derived cells) of vertebrate host
  • Transmitted by either invertebrate host, (trematode=neorickettsia) or by a vector (tick)
  • Can be zoonotic
67
Q

Who transmits anaplasma phagocytophilum

A

Ixodes (deer) tick

68
Q

what does Anaplasma phagocytophilum cause

A
  • Causes canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis: found in neutrophils in the host
  • Necrotizing small vessel vasculitis
  • Disease: febrile illness and neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, rarely shock
69
Q

what does Anaplasma phagocytophilum cause in horses

A

Usually mild subclinical limb edema, icterus, ataxia, may be rapidly fatal (DIC)

70
Q

what transmits Anaplasma platys

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineous (brown dog tick)

71
Q

What does Anaplasma platys cause?

A
  • infectious cyclic thrombocytopenia
  • Infects platelets leading to thrombocytopenia
  • Often asymptomatic
  • Fever, and acute infections may result in petechial and ecchymosis
72
Q

What is the principal target cell for Anaplasma marginale

A

Erythrocytes

73
Q

What does anaplasma marginale cause in ruminants

A

Cause anaplasmosis in ruminants

74
Q

What are the clinical signs of anaplasma marginale

A

Fever, anemia, icterus

75
Q

What is the vector for Anaplasma marginale

A

Ticks (boophilus), biting flies, blood contaminated fomites.

76
Q

What does Ehrlichia canis cause?

A

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis (CME)

77
Q

What does Ehrlichia ewingii cause?

A

Granulocytic ehrlichiosis in people and dogs in North America

78
Q

What does Neorickettsia risticii cause?

A

Potomac Horse Fever

  • Infects enterocytes and monocytes
  • Fever, anorexia, profound leukopenia, severe diarrhea, laminitis, abortion
79
Q

What does Neorickettsia helminthoeca cause?

A

Causes salmon poisoining in dogs

-infects monocytes and macrophages

80
Q

What type of bacteria is Chlamydia

A

Obligate intracellular parasite

81
Q

Disease of chlamydia include what?

A

Enteritis, abortion, polyarthritis, polyserositis, conjunctivitis, pneumonia

82
Q

Why is Chlamydia psittaci important?

A

It is a zoonotic pathogen and reportable disease

83
Q

Why is Mycoplasma different from other bacteria?

A
  • Small free living bacT

- No cell wall -> no gram stain

84
Q

Mycoplasma colonies often have what type of appearance

A

“fried-egg appearance”

85
Q

Characteristics of Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

A
  • Enzootic pneumonia of swine

- Mostly spread direct contact, chronic non-productive, unthrifty appearance, decrease weight gain

86
Q

What is the most virulent mycoplasm in cattle

A

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides

87
Q

Is Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides reportable?

A

Yes

88
Q

Which myoplasma is contagious bovine pleuropneumonia

A

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides

89
Q

What does mycoplasma bovis cause?

A
  • upper resp. tract bronchopneumonia, seen in cattle with feedlot pneumonia
  • Mastitis, Arthritis
90
Q

True or False - Ureaplasma diversum can be normal commensal organisms of the lower urogenital tract

A

TRUE

91
Q

Why is M. capricolum sbsp. capripneumoniae important

A

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia caused a reportable disease in USA

92
Q

What are two reportable avian mycoplasmas

A

M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae

93
Q

What does M. gallisepticum cause?

A

chronic respiratory diseases in chicken and turkeys

94
Q

What does Mycoplasma felis of horses cause?

A

pleural effusion, also predisposes to secondary S. zooepidemicus, then anaerobe colonization of effusion

95
Q

What does mycoplasma edwardii cause in dogs?

A

Meningoencephalitis

96
Q

What type of drugs do you NOT use to treat mycoplasma edwardii

A

Do not use cell wall active drugs

97
Q

Mycoplasma hemofelis is formerly known as what

A

Hemobartonella felis

98
Q

What is the principal target cell of Mycoplasma hemofelis

A

Erythrocytes

99
Q

What is L- form bacteria

A

are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls.

100
Q

Characteristics of fungi

A
  • Free-living microorganisms
  • Majority are saprophytes and non-pathogens
  • Heterotrophs
  • Reproduce asexually by fragmentation, budding, and through spores
  • Cell membrane contain sterols
  • Plant-like cell wall (glucan, mannan,chitin NOT cellulose)
101
Q

Unicellular fungi is called what?

A

Yeast

102
Q

Multicellular fungi is called what?

A

Mold

103
Q

Mold has what structures?

A

Mold has hyphae and fruiting bodies which contain spores

104
Q

What is groups of hyphae called?

A

mycelium

105
Q

The main element of the vegetative or growing form is the what?

A

Hyphae

106
Q

Fungi can be divided by cross walls called what?

A

Septa

107
Q

Define mycelium

A

Filamentous mass of hyphae

108
Q

What are the diseases caused by fungi?

A
  • Fungal infections: fungus invade the tissue and induce its pathogenic effect
  • Mycotoxicoses: fungal contamination or growth on food material leads to accumulation of toxins and when consumed induce severe disease
  • Allergies: Inhaled fungal spores induce hypersensitivity and allergy
109
Q

How does immunity to fungal infections work?

A
  • Immunity is mainly cell-mediated
  • Antibodies usually produced but are NOT protective
  • Most lesions are granulomatous
110
Q

Define Phaeohyphomycosis

A

a mycotic infection of humans and lower animals caused by a number of dematiaceous (brown-pigmented) fungus.

111
Q

Define Chromoblastomycosis

A

a mycotic infection of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues characterized by the development in tissue of dematiaceous rounded sclerotic bodies.

112
Q

Define Zygomycosis

A

any infection due to a member of the zygomycetes. These are primitive, fast growing, terr

113
Q

Define Mycetoma

A

Is a mycotic infection of humans and animals caused by a number of different fungi and actinomycetes characterized by draining sinuses, granules and tumefaction.

114
Q

Characteristics of dermatophytes

A
  • Superficial mycosis (ringworm or tinea)
  • Fungal parasites of keratinized epithelium of skin and nails
  • Cross species infection very common
  • Zoonotic disease
  • Highly contagious
115
Q

Describe what the classical ring worm lesion looks like

A

Slowly expanding, circular area of alopecia and desquamated epithelium. Central hair regrowth, inflamed edge. Often multiple different size lesions

116
Q

What are the two dermatophytes we learned about for dogs and cats?

A
  • Microsporum canis

- Microsporum gypsium

117
Q

What is Kerion?

A

Nodular (kerion) lesions caused by dermatophytes, localized, or generalized folliculitis and often with furunculosis

118
Q

What is pseudomycetoma

A

a subcutaneous nodule caused by microsporum canis (image of a Persian cat)

119
Q

How do you diagnosis ring worm?

A
  • Clinical species ID of dermatophyte assist in controlling infections that may a family pet etc.
  • Woods lamp detection of fluorescence is used for detecting M. canis infection
120
Q

True or false- Sample collection for ring worm should be collected from the periphery of the lesion or combing with a tooth brush

A

TRUE

121
Q

What is microsporum gallinae and what does it often effect

A
  • Avian ringworm of favus

- often affects the comb and wattles, but may invade feather follicles.

RUSVM BacT (2 decks)

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