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Med Surge > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe an absent seizure.

A

form of a focal seizure. The patient is awake but the eyes tend to wonder off. Can be detected if patient is hooked up to EEG at time of seizure

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2
Q

What needs to occur if a patient is on TPA and shows signs of internal bleeding

A

STOP medication immediately.

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3
Q

How long does it take emphysema to cause COPD?

A

20 + years

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4
Q

What triggers can affect MS?

A

Cold, heat, stress, overexertion

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5
Q

How does a simple face mask work?

A

Pt gets O2 through the tubing and exhales through the ports on the mask

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6
Q

If a patient is receiving contrast dye for their cat scan what labs need to be monitored?

A

BUN/ Creatinine

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7
Q

How is primary closed angle glaucoma treated?

A

Emergency surgery

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8
Q

What types of medications are used to treat migraines?

A

NSAIDs, analgesics, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, triptans

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9
Q

What is phacoemulsifaction for cataracts?

A

its a laser treatment that cuts into the cornea at high frequency sound waves and breaks the cataract into small pieces and a new lens implanted.

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10
Q

What are some important nursing interventions related to Ethambutol

A

Remind patient to avoid drinking alcoholic beverages.
Teach patient to report any changes in vision.
Ask if the patient has ever had gout.
Teach patient to drink at least 8 ounces of water when consuming the medicine.

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11
Q

How would you communicate or speak to a patient with Boca aphasia?

A

Talk to them normal and offer visual aids to help them answer your questions

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12
Q

What type of patients will get an EEG?

A

patients with seizures and non responsive patients so we can check brain death.

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13
Q

As soon as the seizure is over, what is assessed?

A

ABC’s

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14
Q

What drugs are used to manage COPD?

A

anticholinergics, beta-adrenergics, xanthines, corticosteroids, cromones

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15
Q

What is key in treating open angle glaucoma?

A

catch it in the early stages to prevent it from getting worse and the patient from becoming blind

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16
Q

What is TB?

A

Tb is a bacteria that can invade any organ in the body.

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17
Q

How is Meniere’s Disease treated?

A

Avoid high salt foods
Drink plenty of food
Avoid caffeine, MSG and smoking
Limit alcohol

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18
Q

What oxygen mask can flow 80% -95%?

A

Non rebreather mask

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19
Q

What is ROM used for in stroke patients?

A

Prevent contractures

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20
Q

What is the ninth cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

9 glasopharyngeal – back of throat/ swalling/ gag and uvula goes up and down

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21
Q

What is nasal cannula formula?

A

L x 4 + 20 = %

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22
Q

Which oxygen mask is the most dangerous?

A

Non-rebreather/ partial rebreather because it can kill the patients

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23
Q

What labs are assessed for the COPD patient?

A

ABG’s, sputum samples, chest x rays

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24
Q

How long does a nurse have to get all tasks in a stroke alert completed before a patient is sent to get a CT?

A

10 minutes

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25
Q

Describe the procedure for retinal detachment (holes/tears) repair.

A

Silicone is placed inside the eye to grab hold of the retina and pulls it back and reattaches it.

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26
Q

What is the worst score on the Glascow Coma scale?

A

3

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27
Q

What is thought to cause cluster headaches>

A

Etiology is unknown but it is thought to be related to vasoreactivity and neurogenic inflammation or overactive and enlarged hypothalamus

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28
Q

What is the second step to pursed lip breathing?

A

Purse your lips as you would if you were to whistle and breathe out slowly through your mouth without puffing your cheeks. Spend at least twice the amount of time it took you to breathe in.

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29
Q

Describe what unhealthy alveoli looks like

A

the walls of the chambers are deteriorated now allowing for proper gas exchange

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30
Q

How can you tell if the Mantoux Test is positive?

A

You must feel the area. The area may be red and irritated or even bruised but it it is not raised then the test is not positive

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31
Q

What is an example of airway tissue sensitivity asthma?

A

Exercise induced asthma

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32
Q

What must be assessed when a patient is taking TPA?

A

ICP and bleeding

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33
Q

Why is multiple sclerosis difficult to diagnose?

A

Resembles other neurological disorders

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34
Q

What are some side effects of triptans?

A

chest pain, numbness, tingling

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35
Q

Cataract onset?

A

birth or older adults

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36
Q

What other medication must be taken for a woman who is also taking a triptan for migrain headaches?

A

birth control

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37
Q

What is the scale for the NIH assessment for stroke?

A

0(good)-40(bad)

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38
Q

Describe what healthy alveoli looks like

A

Defined chambers/ pockets

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39
Q

Describe macular deterioration.

A

deterioration of the central vision

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40
Q

How long are eyedrops used for after catartact surgery?

A

2-4 weeks

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41
Q

What are some common triggers to migraines?

A

Caffeine, red wine, stress, MSG, Tyramine

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42
Q

Describe characteristics of primary open angle glaucoma

A

Affects both eyes
Gradual onset
Mild headaches but no pain

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43
Q

What is a major MRI contraindication?

A

Metal

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44
Q

Why is it best for patients with COPD to use a venturi mask?

A

because this mask has exhalation ports the CO2 can come out of and we dont want COPD patients to retain CO2

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45
Q

T/F: Neuro assessment does not need to be done in any particular way.

A

False, it must be done bilaterally to properly assess equal strength

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46
Q

What is CPAP used for?

A

a respiratory treatment that improves obsructive sleep apnea in patients with heart failure

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47
Q

What are signs of internal bleeding?

A

Tachycardia before hypotension

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48
Q

What is the 12th cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

12 hypogoseal – tip of the tongue – stick tongue out and move side to side

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49
Q

What is emphysema?

A

damage to the lung caused by smoking or any other type of harmful inhalant

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50
Q

What is important to educate the patient on regarding their seizure medications?

A

Take the medication at the same time every day

Do not stop the medication or even miss one dose

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51
Q

What are signs and symptoms of otitis media?

A 
Pain
Pressure
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Dizziness
Fever
Nausea and vomiting
Malaise
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52
Q

Which drugs are ototoxic?

A

NSAIDs, myacins, diuretics

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53
Q

What are long acting drugs used to treat chronic ashtma?

A

Montelukast, diphenhydramine HCL, corticosteroids

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54
Q

Describe a patient with Boca aphasia

A

Understands but cannot communication. This patient will become frustrated and angry

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55
Q

What are signs and symptoms of Meniere’s Disease?

A

Low pitch humming tinnitis
One sided hearing loss
Vertigo

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56
Q

How are retinal detachment (holes/tears) treated?

A

With surgery– that is the only cure.

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57
Q

What type of productive cough is considered normal for COPD patients?

A

A white productive cough (because it is not infected)

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58
Q

What are signs & symptoms of asthma?

A 
Wheezing (louder on exhalation)
Increased respiratory rate
Use of accessory muscles
Muscle retraction at the sternum or sub - sternal notch
Tachycardia
Shortness of breath
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59
Q

What is the tenth cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

10 vacus – back of throat/ swalling/ gag and uvula goes up and down

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60
Q

What medications are used immediately after cataract surgery?

A

Antibiotics and steroids

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61
Q

Why are imaging tests done on the brain after a seizure?

A

To rule out any possible tumors

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62
Q

Which oxygen mask delivers the most accurate oxygen concentration with out intubation?

A

Venturi mask

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63
Q

What are some lifestyle changes a patient cant make in order to manage their asthma?

A

Diet and exercise (take inhaler before if needed)
Rest and relaxation
Take inhaler 30 prior to being exposed to triggers
Monitor peakflow meter

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64
Q

When do you use an MRI?

A

When you are looking at soft tissue

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65
Q

What is the macular responsible for?

A

central vision

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66
Q

Describe a negative pressure room

A

A constant vacuum sucking the air out

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67
Q

Can conductive hearing loss be treated?

A

Yes, usually it is reversible

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68
Q

Why is it important for a patient on TB drugs to not drink alcohol?

A

Because the TB drugs are already very harsh on and toxic to the liver.

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69
Q

What is miosis?

A

pupillary constriction

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70
Q

What type of room does a TB patient get isolated to?

A

Negative pressure room

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71
Q

Describe conductive hearing loss.

A

Something that is blocking the sound waves from the inner ear

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72
Q

What is brand name for meclizine and what is it used for?

A

Antivert and specifically for dizziness and vertigo.

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73
Q

What is a idiopathis seizure?

A

A seizure that only happens once and has no cause

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74
Q

What type of assessment is done after the seizure?

A

Quick neuro assessment – assess grips, pedal pulses, pupils

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75
Q

What is accommodation?

A

The process of maintaining a clear visual image when the gaze if shifted from a distant to a near object

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76
Q

What are short acting drugs used to treat acute asthma?

A

Albuterol

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77
Q

T/F: A COPD patient does not need to consider taking breaks throughout their daily activities.

A

False, a COPD patient should no over exert themselves during their daily activities. They should consider taking breaks.

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78
Q

Why is physical therapy recommended for the patient who has MS?

A

To help build their muscles

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79
Q

If a patient is complaining of discomfort after cataract surgery, what type of medication could they use t help alleviate the discomfort?

A

acetaminophen

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80
Q

If a nebulizer is used in the hospital for a patient having an asthma attack what should the nurse hear after assessing the lungs post treatment?

A

Minimal wheezing – no wheezing is BAD

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81
Q

What is mydriasis

A

puillary dilation

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82
Q

What age do you usually see absent seizures?

A

Children

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83
Q

What is the purpose of myelin sheath?

A

Helps conduction of nerons to send messages to brain and other parts of the body like arms and legs

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84
Q

How long does it take for an ischemic stroke to show up on a CT scan?

A

24-48 hours

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85
Q

What gender is more prone to migraines?

A

Women

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86
Q

Describe bronchial lung sounds

A

high pitched, low amplitude, inspiration < expiration

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87
Q

Describe atonic/ drop seizure.

A

limbs are flaccid– patient is awake but has completely lost muscle control.

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88
Q

What is an EEG used for?

A

To look at brain activity

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89
Q

What is affected with a tonic seizure?

A

muscles- they will tense up

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90
Q

T/F: a patient must have 2 or more seizures with unknown causes within a 6 month time frame to be a candidate for epilepsy

A

True

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91
Q

What is the purpose of the retina?

A

The retina is the reason we can see and without it we would be blind

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92
Q

What are early manifestations of cataracts?

A

Cloudy vision
Blurred/ double vision
Difficulty with ADL’s
No pain or redness

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93
Q

What is asthma?

A

Airway inflammation or airway tissue sensitivity

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94
Q

How is the Mantoux Test given?

A

intradermal with a 22-28g needle.

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95
Q

When is it appropriate to call for code blue?

A

When there is no pulse, heart rate or respiratory rate.

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96
Q

What nursing inervention is done for patients sufforing from diploplia?

A

Give them an eye patch

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97
Q

Describe Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.

A

the patient will exhibit symptoms and then go into remission. When the patient has an episode they will return to a baseline but with each episode the base line will worsen.

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98
Q

What is given to the patient after the seizure is over?

A

Oxygen

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99
Q

How is pneumonia treated?

A

IV or PO antibiotics, depending on the severity of the infection and also O2 to keep stats at 95% or higher

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100
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

increased arterial carbon dioxide levels

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101
Q

What medication can be given to a patient who has high BUN creatinine levels?

A

Mucamix

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102
Q

What gender is prone to getting cluster headaches?

A

Male

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103
Q

Describe decorticate posturing.

A

abnormal felxion – higher brain involvment

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104
Q

When is a simple face mask used?

A

short amount of time, usually in the ER

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105
Q

Which type of glaucoma is more common?

A

Primary open angle

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106
Q

Describe what a non healthy bronchus would look like?

A

Inflamed and have excessive mucous

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107
Q

What describes TIA?

A

a mini stroke and should be treated as a warning

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108
Q

Why can’t you take an SSRI with a triptan?

A

because the triptan will enhance the effects of the SSRI and the patient will go into a psychotic episode

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109
Q

Describe wet or exudative macular deterioration.

A

It can be cured and it could be stopped from progressing

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110
Q

What is thought to cause migraines?

A

It is actually unknown but thought to be related to hyperexcitability of the neurons

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111
Q

Describe sensorineural hearing loss.

A

nerve fibers that lead to the cerebral cortext become damaged, this type of hearing loss is permanent.

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112
Q

What type of patients are are risk for an embolic stroke?

A

Patients with A fib, MI, prosthetic valves, plaque rupture in the carotids

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113
Q

Describe bronchovesicular lung sounds

A

moderate pitch and amplitude. Inspiration = expiration

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114
Q

What type of surgery is performed as a last resort for patients suffering from cluster headaches?

A

PSR - sever the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve 10)

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115
Q

What are important factors for pre op regarding retinal detachment (holes/tears) ?

A

Emotional reassurance but not give them false reassurance
Restrict the patient head movement to prevent further damage
Explain that a eye patch will be used after surgery.

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116
Q

What is an example of an aura associated with a migraine?

A

halo, certain smell or taste – basically a sensory of any kind

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117
Q

What are some important nursing interventions related to Pyrainamide

A

Ask patient about gout (this medication causes formation of uric acid)
Have the patient drink at least 8 ounces of water when consuming the medicine.
This drug causes photosensitivity so have the patient wear protective gear when in the sun
Teach the patient to avoid alcohol
Teach patient to notify nurse if yellow tint of skin and sclera of eyes

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118
Q

What are late manifestations of cataracts?

A

Blindness without surgical interventions

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119
Q

Describe progressive relapsing multiple sclerosis.

A

the patient will relapse but never return to a baseline.

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120
Q

What does the bump have to measure to be considered positive result from Mantoux Test?

A

> or equal to 5 in patients with HIV or otherwise > or equal to 10.

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121
Q

What is the cure for multiple sclerosis?

A

There is no cure. You treat symptoms as they appear!

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122
Q

What is empyema?

A

A collection of pus in the pleural cavity– caused by septicemia

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123
Q

What type of hearing loss can ototoxic drugs lead to?

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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124
Q

What does FAST stand for regarding the public knowledge of strokes?

A

Face
Arms
Speech
Time

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125
Q

What are some important nursing interventions related to rifampin?

A

This drug can stain the skin and urine and other bodily secretions reddish orange so make sure the patient is aware.
Women need to take oral contraceptives
Report yellow tint of skin and sclera of eyes
Ask the patient about all drugs they are currently on (this drug interacts with many other drugs)

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126
Q

What type of lung sounds are heard with pneumonia?

A

Crackles or wheezing

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127
Q

Why is a PET scan used for a patient who has seizures?

A

Because a PET scan is a CAT scan with color so is shows what the brain is doing during the seizure.

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128
Q

How long do cluster headaches typically last?

A

30 minutes to 4 hours

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129
Q

What medications are used to treat Meniere’s Disease?

A

Ondansetron
Diazepam
Meclizine

130
Q

If surgery for retinal detachment (holes/tears) is not immediately done, what can happen to the patient?

A

permanent vision loss

131
Q

Why are interferons used to treat MS?

A

because they help the body stop what its doing (auto immune – destroying myelin sheath)

132
Q

What are the two types of cat scans?

A

contrast and non contrast

133
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Seizure activity with out any reasoning

134
Q

What are adverse reactions to alteplase?

A

Severe headache, severe hypertension, bleeding, nausea, vomiting

135
Q

What is Blepharitis?

A

Inflammation of the eyelids

136
Q

How does a simple face mask stay on the patient using it?

A

The metal piece must be conformed to the shape of the patient’s nose

137
Q

What is an important activity that must before done prior to and EEG and after the EEG is completed?

A

Washing the hair

138
Q

What is hypercarbia?

A

increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide levels

139
Q

What are some characteristics of retinal detachment (holes/tears) ?

A

It is sudden and painless – like pulling a curtain closed over the eye. The patient may experience visual disturbances such as dark spots

140
Q

What are the two different types of glaucoma?

A

Primary open angle and primary closed angle

141
Q

T/F: It is ok to restrain the patient who is having a seizure only if its for their own safety

A

False, never restrain a patient that is having a seizure

142
Q

What is the eleventh cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

11 spinal accessory nerve – shrugging shoulders

143
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Increased intraocular pressure

144
Q

What is conjuctivitis?

A

Inflammation with or without infection of the conjuctiva.

145
Q

What seizure precautions can be taken?

A

Pad side rails
Keep oxygen available
Have an airway at bedside
Suction set up

146
Q

What does stribisis mean?

A

Cross eyes

147
Q

What test is done after treatment and before antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs?

A

CT scan

148
Q

How would you communicate or speak to a patient with Wernicke aphasia?

A

Ask them simple yes or no if possible

149
Q

What are the two types of macular deterioration?

A

Wet or exudative and dry

150
Q

How does the nurse prevent constipation in the patient with MS?

A

Give lots of fluid, take a stool softener

151
Q

What are the two types of ear infections?

A

Acute and Chronic

152
Q

What is the eighth cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

8 acoustic/ vastibular cochlear – hearing

153
Q

What are signs and symptoms of pneumonia?

A 
Flushed cheeks
Anxious
Chest pain
Discomfort
Myalgia
Headache
Fever, chills
Cough
Tachycardia
Dyspnea
Tachypnea
Hemoptysis
Sputum production
154
Q

What are signs and symptoms to of cluster headaches?

A

Unilateral excruciating pain but does not throb. Pain is felt deep around the eye. Said to be more painful than migraines. Rhinorrhea and ptosis

155
Q

What causes retinal detachment (holes/tears) ?

A

head trauma or older age

156
Q

T/F: If a patients tests positive with Mantoux test, that means they have TB.

A

False, it just means that they have been exposed to TB

157
Q

What are two ways to treat migraines?

A

Abortive and preventative

158
Q

T/F: Tobacco is a MAJOR risk factor for COPD

A

True

159
Q

As a nurse what do you do if you are calling a code blue?

A

Start CPR until code blue team shows up

160
Q

How do you treat stokes

A

ABCs, get blood flow back to the brain, two large bore IV’s, supine position if patient can tolerate, NPO until swallow evaluation

161
Q

What do we teach patients who have had carotid stent placement?

A

Report any changes in LOC, neck or painful swelling, difficulty swalling or hoarseness

162
Q

What is a peak flow meter used for?

A

measures the expiratory flow for chronic asthma

163
Q

What do patients in late stage primary open angle glaucoma experience?

A

halos around lights, losing peripheral vision. This damage is irreversible.

164
Q

Why are anti depressants used to treat MS?

A

because this disease is very traumatic

165
Q

how long after the seizure do you wait until you administer medications?

A

five minutes

166
Q

What are signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis?

A 
Fatigue stiffness
Sensitivity to temperatures
Finger spasms
Hyperactive DTR
Unsteady gait
Intention tremors 
Ataxia
Motor coordination
Dysphagia
167
Q

Describe what a healthy bronchus would look like

A

opened bronchioles

168
Q

What is the third cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

3 occular motor – pupils are responding

169
Q

What other test is done to diagnose TB other than Mantoux Test and chest X-ray?

A

AFB test (which tests the sputum)

170
Q

What are some nursing interventions associated with Immunosuppressants?

A

hand washing, vaccines, stay away from sick people, wear a mask when around children

171
Q

What is corneal abrasion?

A

a scrape or scratch injury of the cornea

172
Q

What do we check electrolyte levels for a patient having a seizure?

A

Because if sodium, calcium or magnesium levels get too high, the patient can seize.

173
Q

What is convergence?

A

The ability to turn both eyes inward toward the nose at the same time. This action helps ensure that only a single image of a close object is seen

174
Q

What drugs are patients who have had a stroke usually sent home with?

A

Low dose aspirin and/or plavix

175
Q

What does TIA stand for?

A

Transient Ischemic Attack

176
Q

T/F: Migraines are thought to be genetic.

A

True

177
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

When breathing is harder when lying down

178
Q

What does CPAP stand for?

A

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

179
Q

After a patient wakes up from a seizure, they will be confused. How do you appropriately handle this?

A

Ask them alert and oriented questions. Tell them what happened and reassure them where they are.

180
Q

What are signs/ symptoms of migraine headaches

A

unilateral, throbbing pain that worsens with movement. Photophobia, nausea, vomiting

181
Q

What age is prone to getting macular deterioration?

A

older adults

182
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Excess fluid in the lungs resulting from an inflammatory process.

183
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

collapsed lung

184
Q

What medical device must be at the patient’s bedside when they have a history of seizures?

A

Suction device

185
Q

What patient education must be considered regarding post cataract procedure?

A 
Itching is normal
White creaming discharge is normal
Bloodshot is normal
Discomfort is normal
Pain is not normal
Restrict activity to prevent IOP
186
Q

What are some causes of status epilepticus?

A

Head trauma, alcohol withdraw, cerebral edema

187
Q

What happens when you call a stroke alert?

A

check blood glucose, assess vitas, baseline neuro assessment, EKG, blood

188
Q

What is the rate that IV fluids will run to keep the pneumonia patient from getting dehydrated?

A

about 100 mL/ hour

189
Q

What is the fourth cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

4 trochlear – pulling muscle (follow fingers

190
Q

How is pneumonia diagnosed?

A

Chest Xray

191
Q

What are stroke key factors associated with the left hemisphere?

A

Aphasia-language
Understands (frustrated)
Math skills are gone
Analytical thinking gone

192
Q

What is an ante room?

A

A room that leads to the negative pressure room. This is where you put on your PPE

193
Q

How long does it take for the body to resolve TIA’s?

A

about 30-60 minutes

194
Q

What are common causes of cataracts?

A

age, congenital, traumatic head injuries, tetracycline with gestation

195
Q

What tests are used to diagnose a seizure?

A

CT scan, MRI, EEG, PET, Electrolyte levels

196
Q

How long do MRI’s typically last for?

A

45-60 minutes

197
Q

What are signs and symptoms of primary closed angle glaucoma

A

pain that radiate over their face
nausea and vomiting
headache

198
Q

What type of medications are used as a preventative measure for migraine headaches?

A

Beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics

199
Q

What action takes place in alveoli?

A

gas exchange

200
Q

What describes status epilepticus?

A

long lasting seizure or recurring seizures

201
Q

What is the best score on the Glascow Coma scale?

A

15

202
Q

What type of drug therapy is used to treat MS?

A 
Interferon
Immunosuppressant
Corticosteroids
Antispasmodics
Antieleptics
Anti-depressants
NSAIDS
203
Q

What discharge information do you send home with a patient who had a stroke?

A

Rehab (ambulation, eating, speach, PT/OT) watch for signs and symptoms of stroke, watch diet and ADLs, support groups and assistive devices

204
Q

What does EEG stand for?

A

Electroencepholygram

205
Q

What test is used to determine if patient has been exposed to TB?

A

Mantoux Test

206
Q

How do you prevent foot drop?

A

Boots

207
Q

Describe a focal seizure.

A

One side of the brain is seizing. The patient is awake but not aware that they are seizing.

208
Q

What position should a patient with pneumonia be in?

A

High fowlers

209
Q

When are neuro assesments performed for patients on alteplase?

A

Every 10-15 minutes during the infusion
Every 30 minutes after that for 6 hours
Monitor hourly for at least 24 hours

210
Q

How is status epilepticus treated?

A

With IV benzos followed by antiepileptic

211
Q

When do you call a stroke alert?

A

When any patient exhibits a stroke

212
Q

What medications are used to treat infections?

A 
Antibiotics
Cold compress
Analgesics (avoid NSAIDS)
Antihistamines
Decongestants
213
Q

What is important to documenting a seizure?

A 
Date
Time
Duration
Positioning
Type of seizure
Where is began
What body parts were involved
Changes in pupil size
LOC
Presence of apnea, salivation, cyanosis
Incontinence
Eye fluttering
Lip smacking
Tongue or lip biting
If the seizure was proceeded by an aura
What the patient did after the seizure
How long posticlic phase lasts
214
Q

When do cluster headaches occur?

A

Usually at the time of day and usually in the spring and fall.

215
Q

What are signs and symptoms of a stroke?

A 
Change in LOC
Confusion
Difficulty speaking
Unequal pupils
Numbness in hands, feet, arms, legs
Weak grips or paralysis
Visual disturbances
Dizziness
Ataxia
Sudden Headache
216
Q

What is the first step to pursed-lip breathing?

A

Close your mouth and breath in through your nose

217
Q

What are the four types of multiple sclerosis?

A
  1. Relapsing-remitting
  2. Secondary progressive
  3. Primary progressive
  4. Progressive relapsing
218
Q

Where should you stand when talking and providing care for a patient suffering from macular deterioration?

A

on the side of them so that they are able to see you.

219
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

Ringing in the ear

220
Q

What are the two types of posturing you will see when a patient is having a tonic/ clonic seizure?

A

decerebrate and decorticate

221
Q

What is punctal pressure and what is it used for?

A

A technique that is used when putting eye drops in a patients eyes. The technique consists of applying eye drops in lower eye lid and apply pressure to the tear duct as not to let the medication become systemic.

222
Q

Describe a patient with Wernicke aphasia

A

This patient cannot understand spoken or written language. They may be able to talk.

223
Q

Why are antiepileptics given to patients with seizures?

A

Because the antiepilectic will help prevent future seizures

224
Q

How long do migraines typically last?

A

4-72 hours

225
Q

What is a result of an oxygen level of greater than 50% continuously given for 24-48 or more hours?

A

oxygen toxicity

226
Q

How are cataracts treated?

A

through surgery, the cataracts are manually removed or phacoemulsification.

227
Q

What are symptoms of TB?

A

Fatigue/lethargy
Nausea/anorexia
Weight loss
Low grade temp/night sweats/bloody sputum

228
Q

How are ear infections treated?

A

With antibiotics but the body is capable of fighting the infection on its own so many doctors no longer prescribe ear infections

229
Q

What is considered a last resort treatment for Meniere’s Disease?

A

shunt placement that goes inside the inner ear and drains the fluid outside the body

230
Q

What medications are used to treat stokes?

A

Fibrinolysis (thrombolytic therapy) – altepase

231
Q

When is it appropriate to call for rapid response?

A

When the patient is showing a decrease in LOC, or has signs of a stroke or even if the patient is deteriorating

232
Q

What is the fifth cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

5 frigneal – assess chewing – touch cheek, forehad, chin

233
Q

As a nurse, what do you do for a patient having a tonic/ clonic seizure?

A

keep patient safe, have them on their right lateral side

234
Q

Why are patients who are having a seizure turned on their side?

A

to prevent them from aspirating on their vomit

235
Q

What are side effects and adverse reactions to bronchodilators?

A 
Nervousness
Restlessness
Shakey
Headache
Insomnia
Chest pain
Tachycardia
Palpitations
Hypertension
Nausea/ Vomiting
236
Q

What medications cannot be taken when a patient is taking a triptan?

A

Any SSRI or St. John’s Wart

237
Q

What is the last seen normal range for TPA?

A

3-4.5 hours

238
Q

Why is occupational therapy recommended for the patient who has MS?

A

To help with ADL’s

239
Q

Normal sensory changes with age include:

A 
Decreased visual and hearing
Relaxation of lower eyelid
Fat deposits on outer edge of cornea
Less dilation of iris
Slight increase of IOP
240
Q

What are the two different types of Aphasia?

A

Boca’s and Wernicke

241
Q

What are some triggers of cluster headaches?

A

emotional disturbances and sleep cycle.

242
Q

What type of medications are taken to treat cluster headaches?

A 
Triptans
Antielpileptics
Calcium channel blockers
Lithium
Corticosteroids
Oxygen
243
Q

Describe crackled lung sounds

A

popping or discontinued sounds caused by air moving into previously deflated airways. It sounds like hair being rolled between fingers near the ear

244
Q

What is the magic number of hours allowed before use of a catheter?

A

8 hours

245
Q

If a heating pad is used to treat an ear infection, what is important to know?

A

Keep the heating pad on low and do not use it for the elderly people.

246
Q

Where must a stroke patient be admitted to when they are receiving alteplase?

A

Critical care unit or specialized stroke unit

247
Q

How are seizures treated?

A

Usually a combo therapy of drugs.

248
Q

What is the importance of the venturi mask adapters?

A

Each adapter creates a different percentage of O2

249
Q

How is status epilepticus different from other seizures regarding medication?

A

You do not wait 5 minutes to administer the medication

250
Q

What is the postical phase?

A

Basically the brain resetting. The patient will be very tired because all their energy was used during the seizure.

251
Q

What type of anesthesia is used for retinal detachment (holes/tears) repair?

A

general anesthesia

252
Q

Which oxygen mask delivers 40-60% O2?

A

Simple face mask

253
Q

What is a NANDA related to Meniere’s Disease?

A

Risk for falling because of the vertigo

254
Q

What are the two types of pneumonia?

A

CAP (community acquired pneumonia) and HAP (hospital acquired pneumonia)

255
Q

What are stroke key factors associated with the right hemisphere?

A

Visual problems
Left sided neglect
Lack of impulse control

256
Q

What can otitis media lead to if left untreated?

A

permanent hearing loss because it can perforate the ear drum

257
Q

When can a patient stop wearing dark sun glasses after cataract procedure?

A

When pupils respond to light

258
Q

Which oxygen mask requires close monitoring?

A

Non rebreather mask

259
Q

What are signs and symptoms of glaucoma?

A

no peripheral vision and do not usually have any pain

260
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

An autoimmune disorder that affects the myelin sheath.

261
Q

T/F: both eyes are operated on at once during phacoemulsification procedure.

A

False, only one eye is done at a time.

262
Q

What nursing measures must be taken for a patient who is on either a beta blocker or calcium channel blocker?

A

blood pressure and heart rate!

263
Q

Describe an embolic stroke.

A

Dislodged traveling clot, usually from the heart or lungs that travels to the brain

264
Q

Why are benzos given to patients with seizures?

A

Because the benzo will stop the seizure

265
Q

T/F: Once in the ante room, the door to hallway must be closed before door to negative pressure room can be opened and visa versa

A

TRUE!

266
Q

As a nurse what do you do if a you are calling a rapid response?

A

stay with your patient

267
Q

Describe decerebrate posturing.

A

Extension posturing – involves the brainstem

268
Q

What type of foods are good for the eyes?

A

foods that are rich in vitamin k such as red, orange and dark green vegetables and fruit

269
Q

What test is used to diagnose TB?

A

Chest X-ray

270
Q

Why is vertigo so significant in Meniere’s Disease?

A

Because it is so severe and incapacitate them

271
Q

What are the two types of ischemic stokes?

A

Thrombotic and emobolic

272
Q

What other allergies are associated with an allergy to contrast dye?

A

Shellfish and iodine

273
Q

Why are corticoseroids used to treat MS?

A

Reduce inflammation

274
Q

What does a cataract look like?

A

cloudy formation over the eye lens

275
Q

What occurs during a clonic seizure?

A

Jerking

276
Q

Why are eyes patches worn after surgery for renital detachment repair?

A

so the eye is covered and wont try to work.

277
Q

Describe dry macular deterioration

A 
This type is the more common.
It starts with a burning sensation.
There is no cute
You can try preventative measures.
Smoking makes it worse.
278
Q

What are some important nursing interventions related to Isoniazid (INH)?

A

Take on an empty stomach (food and antacids slow or prevent absorption of of the drug)
Take a multivitamin that includes a b complex (this rug can deplete the body of this vitamin)
Avoid drinking alcohol (this drug is already harsh on the liver)

279
Q

What is the second cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

2 optic – vision, distance, peripheral

280
Q

What medication is used for a patient on metformin but needs a CT with contrast STAT?

A

mucomyst (acetylcystine)

281
Q

When is surgery an option to treat Meniere’s Disease?

A

When the vertigo become so severe that it intereferes with ADL’s

282
Q

What is bronchospasm?

A

a narrowing of the bronchial tubes by constriction of smooth muscle around or within the bronchial walls

283
Q

What is the seventh cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

7 facial – responisible for smiling

284
Q

What is Otitis Media?

A

Ear infection

285
Q

What is Meniere’s Disease?

A

Excess fluid in the inner ear

286
Q

What oxygen mask can flow 60% - 75%?

A

Partial non rebreather mask

287
Q

What are foods that contain tyramine?

A

Pickled foods, preservatives, artificial sweeteners

288
Q

When is abortive treatment used when treating a migraine?

A

Usually when the patient is experiencing their aura. If a patient does not get an aura then medication should be taken as soon as migraine begins

289
Q

What is the sixth cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

6 abducens – 6 cardinal fields of gaze make X will line through it

290
Q

Why is TB treated with multiple drugs?

A

To prevent resistance

291
Q

What medications are used to treat late stage primary open angle glaucoma?

A

Beta blocker eyes drops.

292
Q

When does a patient have the Mantoux Test results read?

A

48-72 hours after.

293
Q

What is brand name for Ondansetron and what is it used for?

A

Zofran and nausea

294
Q

Describe tonic/ clonic seizure.

A

Full body is affected

295
Q

What are the first line treatment drugs for TB?

A

Isoniazid (INH)
Rifampin
Pyrainamide
Ethambutol

296
Q

What position will you often find a person suffering from COPD in?

A

Tripod or orthopneic

297
Q

What is the difference between vertigo and dizziness?

A

Vertigo is when the room is spinning and dizziness is when you feel like you are spinning

298
Q

What are two examples of preventive measures when treating dry macular deterioration?

A

B12 shots and antioxidants

299
Q

What are some CAM therapies that can be recommended for the patient with MS?

A

Aroma therapy
Guided imagery
Massage therapy
Meditation

300
Q

When is it appropriate to call for help?

A

When nothing emergent is going on but you still require help with a patient

301
Q

What is vertigo?

A

a sense of whirling or turning in space

302
Q

Describe the position that patient who just had retinal detachment (holes/tears) repair needs to be in.

A

Positioned on their abdomen and turn their head until their affected eye is in the up position…. if right retina was damaged, patient would have head turned so far that the left ear was being laid on

303
Q

When do you need an IV for a cat scan?

A

When you are getting contrast dye

304
Q

What is brand name for Diazepam and what is it used for?

A

Valium and it relaxes the patient

305
Q

What are the serum drug levels for dilantin?

A

10-20

306
Q

What are the two major changes that occur with emphyshema?

A

Lung elasticity is lost and hyperinflation of the lung occurs.

307
Q

Describe vesicular lung sounds

A

low pitched, soft amplitude, rustling like the sound of trees

308
Q

T/F: Barrel chested and clubbing are a sign of Emphysema.

A

True

309
Q

When do you use a cat scan?

A

Anything.

310
Q

Who is at high risk for pneumonia?

A

Elderly, non vaccinated, stroke patients, smokers, patients with COPD

311
Q

How are TIA’s treated?

A

with anti-platelet drugs

312
Q

What is the first cranial nerve and what is it responsible for?

A

1 olfactory – smell

313
Q

What are some complications from COPD?

A 
hypoxia
acidosis
respiratory infection
cardiac failure
dysrhythmias
respiratory failure
314
Q

What are endovascular interventions?

A

Go in and remove the clot manually (usually goes in at the femoral artery)

315
Q

What are some options when the patient with MS becomes incontinent?

A

Bladder pacemaker, texas cath (condom cath)

316
Q

Describe Intra-arterial thrombolysis treatment.

A

Shoot some TPA inside the clot to help dissolve it.

317
Q

How is TB treated?

A

Usually with a combination of drugs.

318
Q

What does COPD stand for?

A

Chronic Obstructive pumonary disease

319
Q

1/2 of all stokes.
Caused by atherosclerosis or ruptured plaque in the brain.
Slow onset evolving over minutes to hours.

All the above are characteristics of what type of ischemic stroke?

A

Thrombotic

320
Q

What type of patients use the venturi mask?

A

patients with COPD

321
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

collapsed alveoli

Med Surge (4 decks)

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