Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the general structure of a eukaryotic DNA molecule.

A
  • A linear polymer made up of nitrogenous bases (nucleotides) adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
  • Takes the shape of a double helix
  • Has polarity, a 3’ and a 5’ end
  • Each strand bound together by covalent bonds, and the strands are bonded together by H-bonds
  • Nucleotides are always added to the free 3’ end
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2
Q

Describe the general steps in DNA replication.

A

1) Helicase opens helix
2) Topoisomerase relieves tension by nicking to untwist
3) RNA primase synthesizes a primer at the 3’ end of the leading strand, and along the lagging strand as it is unravelled.
4) Pol III adds nucleotides continuously to the leading strand, and fills in the RNA primers on the lagging strand.
5) Pol I excises RNA primers (5’ - 3’ exonuclease activity) and fills in gaps.
6) Ligase bonds the Okazaki fragments together.

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3
Q

What are the functions of Pol I?

A

1) 3’ - 5’ exonuclease - proofreading
2) 5’ - 3’ exonuclease - removes RNA primers
3) 5’ - 3’ synthase/polymerase

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4
Q

What is the major elongation enzyme?

A

Pol III

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5
Q

What is the overhang problem?

A

It is impossible to replicate the very end of the lagging strand, because once the last 5’ - 3’ RNA primer is removed, there is no free 3’ end for pol III to add nucleotides to. This leads to the shortening of DNA after each replication.

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6
Q

How do telomeres and telomerase solve the overhang problem?

A

Telomeres are the regions on the ends of our DNA molecules made up of mostly repeats - they do not code for anything. This protects us from losing coding information during DNA replication.

Telomerase is a ribonuclear protein containing an RNA template. It binds to the 3’ overhang and extends it further. An RNA primase then comes and synthesizes another primer, and DNA pol III synthesizes complementary strand. There is still an overhang, but telomeres are continuously lengthened to prevent fast degradation.

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7
Q

List the enzymes and proteins involved in DNA replication and their functions.

A

Primase - synthesizes RNA primers based on template strand
Pol III - elongates RNA primers with nucleotides
Pol I - removes RNA primers and fills gaps; proofreads
Helicase - unzips DNA H-bonds
Topoisomerase (gyrase)- nicks DNA to untwist
SSBPs - bind to single-strand DNA to prevent duplex from reforming
ß-Clamp - encircles DNA like a donut and keeps pol III attached
Ligase - forms covalent bonds between okazaki fragments on lagging strand

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8
Q

What are the structural differences between DNA and RNA?

A

1) RNA molecules have a hydroxyl group at the 2’ position of the sugars that DNA molecules lack.
2) RNA molecules are less stable and turnover more rapidly than DNA molecules.
3) RNA molecules have U in place of T found in DNA molecules.
4) Some RNA molecules can catalyze biological reactions, but DNA cannot.

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9
Q

Why does each eukaryotic chromosome contain many origins of replication?

A

Eukaryotic genomes are much larger, so more origins are required to replicate more quickly.

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10
Q

Describe the proposed models for DNA replication. Which one was correct?

A

Conservative - the two parental DNA strands are back together after replication has occurred.
Semiconservative - the two parental DNA strands separate and each of those strands then serves as a template for the synthesis of a new DNA strand (CORRECT)
Dispersive - parental double helix is broken into double-stranded DNA segments that act as templates for the synthesis of the new double helix molecules.

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11
Q

Why are G-C pairs stronger than A-T pairs?

A

They have one more hydrogen bond that A-T pairs.

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12
Q

What are some similarities between DNA replication and DNA transcription?

A

1) Use similar nucleotide building blocks
2) Use same chemical method of attach by a terminal hydroxyl group of growing chain on the triphosphate group of an incoming nucleotide with the use of an RNA polymerase.
3) Start in a bubble.
4) Synthesize in a 5’ to 3’ direction.

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13
Q

How is DNA transcription different from DNA replication?

A

1) DNA transcription generates a single-stranded mRNA
2) Only one DNA strand is used as a template
3) No supercoils (bubble never long enough), so topoisomerase is not needed
4) RNA polymerase can act without a primer
5) Does not transcribe the entire chromosome at once

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14
Q

Describe the steps of DNA transcription in prokaryotes.

A

Initiation

  1. RNA polymerase complexed with a sigma factor binds to promoter “consensus DNA sequence”
  2. Double-stranded DNA goes through a conformational change to form an open complex through opening of the base pairs at the -10 position.
  3. Initiator nucleotide binds to complex. First phosphodiester bonds are made.

Elongation

  1. In transcription bubble, double helix is unwound and RNA polymerase monitors the binding of a free ribonucleoside triphosphate to the next exposed base on the DNA template strand.
  2. DNA that is unwound ahead of RNA polymerase is rewound after it has been transcribed.

Termination

  1. RNA synthesis will proceed until RNA polymerase recognizes special nucleotide sequences that act as a signal for chain termination.
    a. Rho-independent (simple termination)
    - Formation of a hairpin loop in GC rich regions of template renders the strand inaccessible to RNA polymerase.
    b. Rho-dependent
    - A protein factor (Rho) binds to the termination site and destabilizes the interaction between DNA template and RNA polymerase. The mRNA is released.
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15
Q

Describe the steps of DNA transcription in eukaryotes.

A

Initiation

  1. GTFs mediate the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter region. TFs are required for proper assembly of the transcription-initiation complex.
    a. Conserved sequences: TATA box ~ -25,
  2. DNA double helix is opened up.

Elongation

  1. RNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides to the growing transcript, catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between them.
  2. As the strand of RNA is synthesized, the already-transcribed regions of DNA rewind together and the mRNA is dissociated.

Termination
1. Occurs when RNA polymerase reaches a stop sequence—often, a polyadenylation signal (AAUAAA).

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16
Q

What occurs during pre-mRNA processing?

A

1) Processing of 3’ and 5’ ends
- addition of 5’ cap: necessary for translation, and protective
- addition of poly-A tail: a stretch of ~200 adenine nucleotides is added; length determines how long RNA will live in the cytoplasm
2) Splicing: removal of introns

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17
Q

What is the mechanism of splicing?

A

1) snRNPs bind to 5’ splice site and internal A site
2) other snRNPs join the spliceosome
3) First splicing reaction; one intron end attaches to A
4) Second splicing reaction; other intron end cleaved
5) Exons join

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18
Q

What are the different classes of RNA?

A

-Messenger RNA: carries genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to ribosomes in the cytoplasm (sites of protein synthesis); 5’ cap (also involved in recognition of mRNA by translating machinery) and 3’ poly(A) tail greatly enhance the stability of mRNA molecules

-Functional RNA: does not encode information to make a protein, as the RNA itself is the final functional product.
♣ Transfer RNA: brings the correct amino acid from the cytoplasm to the mRNA during translation.
♣ Ribosomal RNA: major component of ribosomes (guide the assembly of the amino acid chain). May act as ribozymes.
♣ Small nuclear RNA: found in eukaryotic nucleus, assists in processing of RNA transcripts, may unite with protein subunits to form the spliceosome.
♣ MicroRNA: regulate the amount of protein produced by many eukaryotic genes. Exert their regulatory action by binding messenger RNAs and preventing their translation into proteins.
♣ siRNA: double stranded RNA that interferes with expression of a specific gene by hybridizing to its corresponding RNA sequence in the target mRNA, activating the degrading mRNA. Once the target mRNA is degraded, it can no longer be translated.

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19
Q

Differentiate between the sense and antisense strands.

A
  • Sense strand: also known as the “coding strand,” refers to the strand of DNA running from 5’ to 3’. Has the same sequence as the mRNA. Is not used by the cell to make protein.
  • Antisense strand: also known as the ”template strand,” refers to the strand that is used as the source for the protein code. Complementary to the mRNA.
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20
Q

Where does energy for DNA replication come from?

A

the breaking of the triphosphate group on a nucleotide releases energy used to form covalent bond

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21
Q

What is the purpose of alternative splicing?

A

Different mRNAs and therefore different proteins are produced by splicing exons together in different combinations.

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22
Q

How is miRNA processed and what is it’s function?

A

1) Transcribed as a longer RNA in the form of a double-stranded stem with a loop, and a mismatched base pair on the stem
2) Processed in the nucleus to a smaller but not final form
3) In cytoplasm, binds to Dicer, which cleaves them into 22 nt products
4) RISC binds to short double stranded RNA and unwinds it into single-stranded miRNA
5) miRNA (still bound to RISC) binds to complimentary mRNAs, and represses translation or removes poly-A tail

The function is to regulate expression of genes.

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23
Q

How is siRNA different from miRNA?

A
  • Instead of regulating other genes, siRNA silences the gene that produces it.
  • function is to safeguard the genome from viruses and transposons

1) Antisense RNA is formed in response to the insertion of foreign DNA in the genome
2) DNA detects the double-stranded RNA that forms between antisense and sense RNA and processes it into short RNAs
3) RISC binds a short RNA and unwinds it to form siRNA
4) siRNA targets RISC to a perfectly complementary mRNA, which is degraded
5) Silences the foreign gene

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24
Q

What is the result of inserting either a dsRNA copy of a gene, or the gene itself, into embryos?

A

Transgene insertion leads to the synthesis of antisense RNA, which complements with sense RNA to form dsRNA. Therefore, in both instances, siRNA is formed and silences the expression of the gene in question.

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25
Q

List all of the nucleic acid signals you can think of.

A
  1. Promoter (TATA)
  2. Origins of Replication / Termination sequence (transcription)
  3. Splicing Signals
  4. Inverted Repeats (acted upon by transposase)
  5. Centromeres (part of chromosome that attaches to spindle proteins)
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26
Q

How is the structure of tRNA adaptive for its function?

A

tRNA has an anticodon which binds to the codon on the mRNA that specifies the amino acid the tRNA is carrying

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27
Q

Where does the energy for translation come from?

A

The energy for the ribosome movement, and keeping the tRNA close together comes from the hydrolysis of GTP attached to elongation factors.

The energy for the formation of covalent bonds comes from the breaking of the peptide bond between the “charged” tRNA and its attached amino acid.

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28
Q

What end of the polypeptide is synthesized first?

A

The N-terminus end is synthesized first, and new amino acids are added to the C-terminus end.

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29
Q

What is wobble?

A

Some tRNAs can bring their specific amino acids to any one of several codons through loose base-pairing at the 3’ end of the codon and the 5’ end of the anticodon.

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30
Q

What are the sites of the ribosome?

A

A site - binds an incoming aminoacyl tRNA
P site - the tRNA in this site binds the growing polypeptide chain
E site - contains a deacylated tRNA ready for release

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31
Q

How does initiation of translation in eukaryotes differ from in prokaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes:
Initiation codons are proceeded by Shine-Delgarno sequences that pair with the 3’ end of the rRNA in the small subunit, correctly pairing the initiator codon with the P site of the ribosome. Initiation factors bind, allowing only correct tRNA to bind. Then large subunit binds.

Eukaryotes:
Initiation factors associate with the 5’ cap , the small subunit, and the tRNA. The complex moves down the mRNA, unwinding any base paired regions and scanning for the initiator AUG sequence using energy from ATP.

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32
Q

What are the steps of elongation in translation?

A

1) An aminoacyl tRNA enters the A site
2) A peptide bond is formed between the amino acid in the P site and the amino acid in the A site
3) The large subunit of the ribosome moves 3 nucleotides toward the 3’ end of the mRNA
4) The tRNA now in the E site dissociates
5) The small subunit also moves toward the 3’ end.

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33
Q

How is translation terminated?

A

When a stop codon appears in the A site of the large subunit, release factors bind, causing the cleavage of the polypeptide chain and the dissociation of the ribosomal subunits.

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34
Q

What is a nonsense suppressor mutation?

A

A nonsense mutation changes a codon for an amino acid into a stop codon. A nonsense suppressor mutation is the mutation of a tRNA so that it can recognize this stop codon, and the translation isn’t prematurely terminated.

35
Q

Why isn’t it more harmful to have nonsense suppressor mutations?

A

One might think this would be very harmful because if tRNA can recognize stop codons (including ones that are meant to be there) then proteins might become excessively long.

However, there are often multiple stop codons in a row, giving release factors a better chance to stop translation.

36
Q

What is the function of rRNAs?

A

Make up the structure of the ribosome, catalyze the assembly of amino acids into protein chains, bind tRNAs and various accessory molecules necessary for protein synthesis.

37
Q

What were the genetic factors that McClintock discovered?

A

Ds - the factor located at the break site
Ac - the factor required to activate the breakage

Ac can jump around the genome, and helps Ds jump around.

38
Q

What is an unstable phenotype?

A

Occurs when a transposable element jumps out of a gene in only some cells of an organism; like the spotted maize

39
Q

What is the difference between autonomous and nonautonomous transposable elements?

A

Autonomous - requires no other elements for mobility; like Ac
Nonautonomous - requires an activator element for mobility; like Ds

40
Q

What is the difference between replicative and conservative transposable elements?

A

Replicative - a new copy of the element is generated during each transposition event
Conservative - the element is excised from the chromosome or plasmid and integrated into a new site

41
Q

What is the mechanism by which a transposable element is inserted into the genome?

A

1) Transposase cuts target site DNA (staggered)
2) Transposable element inserts
3) Host repair mechanisms kick in to fill in the missing nucleotides based on template
4) This insertion mechanism is responsible for the target-site duplication phenomenon.

42
Q

Describe the steps by which a retrotransposon is inserted into the genome.

A

1) RNA element in genome is transcribed.
2) In the cytoplasm, the element is translated, generating reverse transcriptase.
3) The element is then reverse transcribed into double stranded DNA by reverse transcriptase, and inserted at a new place in the genome.

43
Q

How does a DNA transposon differ from a retrotransposon?

A

Retrotransposons transpose through RNA intermediates by encoding a reverse transcriptase that produces a double stranded DNA copy capable of reintegrating into a new place in the genome.

DNA transposons insert themselves or a copy of themselves into a new place in the genome through a transposase gene.

44
Q

What are the types of elements most commonly found in humans?

A

LINEs - autonomous elements that move like retrotransposons
SINEs - nonautonomous elements that move with the help of reverse transcriptase encoded by LINEs residing in the genome
DNA transposons - both autonomous and nonautonomous

45
Q

How can the human genome have so many transposable elements in it and remain unaffected?

A

1) elements are largely in introns
2) elements have succumbed to mutations that incapacitate them
3) they are kept silent and immobile by host regulatory mechanisms

46
Q

How does siRNA defend a cell from transposons?

A

When an element inserts into the genome, it is transcribed to produce dsRNA, which is chopped by Dicer, and bound to RISC, to chop up all RNA from the element, silencing all copies of the element in the genome.

47
Q

How would one use an EP element to insert a gene into Drosophila?

A

Through the insertion of two plasmids (one with a deleted P element and a rosy gene instead surrounded by inverted repeats; one with the functional transposase, helper plasmid) into embryos when they are multinucleate with no membranes.

48
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

A DNA vehicle used to grow up lots of DNA sequence in bacteria; easily purifiable

49
Q

What is a restriction enzyme? What are they used for?

A

Naturally occurring enzymes found in bacteria; cut DNA at specific sites; some create “sticky ends” when the cut site on the palindrome are staggered, that can be used to form recombinant DNA molecules

50
Q

How would you amplify DNA in vitro?

A

PCR!

1) Combine primers, DNA, nucleotides, polymerase
2) Heat cycling - high temp to denature, cool temp to anneal primers, mid temp to allow DNA synthesis
3) Repeat

replicates the short DNA sequence of interest that is between the two primers.

51
Q

What is cDNA?

A

A DNA version of an mRNA molecule; made from reverse transcriptase isolated from retroviruses

1) purified mRNA, with reverse transcriptase, nucleotides, primers, and DNA polymerase = cDNA

52
Q

What are the steps in inserting a gene into a recombinant plasmid?

A

1) Both donor DNA and plasmid are digested by restriction enzyme
2) Fragments mixed in test tube and allowed to hybridize, ligase included to allow formation of covalent bonds

53
Q

What are the minimal selection criteria for cloning vectors?

A

1) ampicillin resistance gene, so that only bacteria with the plasmid survive when grown on medium with ampicillin.
2) multicloning site which interrupts the lacZ gene, preventing plasmid bacteria from turning blue on X-Gal medium.
3) origin of replication
4) must have a restriction enzyme site not in the origin of replication, amp. resistance, or multicloning site.

54
Q

How is DNA amplified in vivo?

A

Bacteria!

1) Recombinant plasmids is inserted into bacterial host cells
2) Bacteria placed on medium with ampicillin and X-Gal
3) Only cells receiving the plasmid will grow, due to amp. resistance.
4) Only cells receiving a recombinant plasmid will be white, because the insert is interrupting the lacZ gene.

55
Q

What is a probe?

A

A reagent that allows you to detect a specific sequence (nucleic acid or protein) you are looking for; must be labelled in some way, usually by modified nucleotides (radioactive, antibodies against chemical groups in modified nucleotides)

56
Q

How do you use a DNA probe to find a clone of interest?

A

1) Transfer bacteria containing plasmid library to an absorbent membrane.
2) Incubate membrane with fluorescent or radioactive probe.
3) Autoradiograph or expose to correct wavelength of light to detect the clones you are looking for.
4) Remove desired clone from petri dish and amplify.

57
Q

Where can a DNA probe come from?

A

1) Homologous gene in a related organism
2) Use the protein product of the gene of interest to back translate and synthesize the DNA strand that would have made that particular protein product.

58
Q

How do you use a probe to find a protein clone of interest?

A

1) Synthesize cDNA using mRNA that codes for the proteins of interest.
2) Insert cDNA molecules into bacterial vector, and then into bacteria.
3) Transfer bacteria to an absorbent membrane.
4) Incubate membrane with primary antibody.
5) Wash, and incubate again with radio-labelled secondary antibody.
6) Audioradiograph to find protein of interest.

59
Q

How would you prepare an RNA-seq library?

A

1) Purify RNA
2) Bind out fraction with Poly-A tails (mRNA)
3) Digest/fragment RNA into 200bp segments
4) Convert to cDNA by random priming (hexamers, every unique 6 bp combination, one binds per fragment)
5) Use reverse transcriptase to extend hexamers to get cDNA fragments.
6) Ligate and sequence.
7) End up with millions of unique 25bp sequences (odds of a 25 bp sequence occurring more than once is low)
8) Scan through with a program that compares to known genome sequences.
9) How frequently find a read that corresponds to certain gene = estimate of how frequently that gene was transcribed. RNA-Seq library is extremely effective/best way of getting RNA sequences for a cell. Genes can be alternatively spliced so have in RNA-Seq. figuring what sequence information is in a sample = this works very well.

60
Q

What is one function of RNA-seq?

A

Can be used to compare mRNA from two different sources.
Ex. Protein expression may differ between a normal cell and a cancer cell.

Give information on which version of transcript is expressed in cells.

61
Q

What is the difference between southern, northern, and western blotting?

A

Southern - DNA (look at person-to-person variation with DNA, if similar gene present in genome of a related organism. Is DNA sequence present? Used in DNA forensics, paternity testing, etc.

Northern - RNA (is a gene being expressed, size of RNA, how much RNA is expressed (if can compare to different tissues). If use right probe, Northern Blot will also tell you if multiple different alternatively spliced mRNAs are made that share the same exon, for example. Sometimes this is faster than RNA-seq.

Western - Protein (Uses antibodies instead of probe, tells you if proteins there or not, will tell you size of protein and if protein modified after translation (because will alter its size and can detect that from antibodies as well). What’s being translated or not.)

62
Q

What is the basic procedure for blotting?

A

1) Run gel electrophoresis with substance(s) of interest
2) Place gel in buffer, cover by membrane and a stack of paper towels
3) Denature DNA fragments (to stick to membrane)
4) Membrane is removed and incubated with labelled probe

63
Q

What reagents are required to sequence DNA?

A

Nucleotides, primer, polymerase, ddNTPs, PCR products/DNA to replicate

64
Q

How can DNA be used in criminal investigations and paternity tests?

A

Variable nucleotide tandem repeats are a chromosomal locus at which a particular repetitive sequence is present in different numbers in different individuals or in the two different homologs in one diploid individual

VNTRs occur in everyones genome, at variable places in the genome. By southern blot analysis of suspects’ DNA using probes for VNTRs, you can tell if the suspect has the same banding patterns as DNA from the crime scene.

VNTRs are also heritable, so by looking at a child and parents’ banding patterns, you may be able to guess at paternity.

65
Q

What is the process of gene insertion by homologous recombination?

A

1) A plasmid with the gene is transformed into yeast or stem cells.
2) Homologous recombination occurs, and the plasmid is inserted into the chromosomes, either by single or double crossover.

66
Q

Why is gene insertion through homologous recombination only possible in yeast and mice?

A

It has a very low success rate, so you need to be able to grow up many cells (as in yeast). We have isolated stem cells from mice, that can be used in this process and then used to inseminate females.

67
Q

How would you produce a line of mice with a gene knockout?

A

1) Create the targeting vector by cloning the gene to be knocked out, inserting a neomyocin-resistance gene into the exon, and adding a herpes tk+ gene as another marker.
2) Introduce the vector into embryonic stem cells of mice, wait for homologous recombination.
3) To detect which cells carry the targeted gene knockout,, transfer cells to a medium containing neomyocin and ganciclovir (kills tk+).
- Cells with an ectopic (random) insertion) will be neomyocin resistant, but will be killed by ganciclovir.
- Cells with no insertion will be killed by neomyocin.
- Cells with the target insertion will survive
4) Inseminate black mouse with cells.
5) Chimeric male offspring are mated to black females, and progeny are genetically screened for mutation.
6) Progeny with mutation are mated.

68
Q

What is CRISPR/Cas9 and how does it work?

A

1) Transfection of a circular DNA plasmid into the cell.
2) Plasmid contains guide RNA, DNA sequence, and Cas9.
3) Cas9 complexes with guide RNA, binds to specific site in the genome and cleaves (double stranded breaks).
4a) Cell engages in error-prone repair pathway, producing indels/frameshift mutations, and premature stop codons.
4b) If add donor DNA that has homologies to site where DNA is cut, then this new gene will be repaired (integrated into genome) by homology directed repair (jump starts homologous recombination by getting dsDNA trim to happen specifically and then homologous recombination used to repair endogenous gene and insert new DNA)

69
Q

Rank the types of mutations from most harmful to least harmful.

A
  1. Indels in non multiples of 3 → frameshift mutation
  2. Nonsense mutation → premature stop codon
  3. Missense mutation (nonconservative)
  4. Missense mutation (conservative)
  5. Synonymous
70
Q

What causes mutations?

A
  1. Chemicals that can insert into a DNA helix (in between NTs) can cause replication error because deforms DNA helix and makes it harder for DNA polymerase to read template accurately. Chemicals that bind to DNA structure = mutagens.
  2. Radiation, UV light, or any form of energy that causes rearrangements of covalent bonds.
  3. Act of replication itself. Mistakes made by DNA polymerase that are not caught by the proofreading function of DNA polymerase and thus become part of genome.
71
Q

What is the Ames Test used to detect?

A

To see how mutagenic a compound is and see if its hazardous or not. Use to see if new compounds might be mutagens. Can get a sense of if compound is mutagenic and more importantly how mutagenic.

72
Q

How does the Ames test work?

A

1) Start with mutant bacteria that can’t synthesize amino acid histidine due to a single NT change
2) Looking for bacteria that have a reversion (aka mutation is reverted by a second mutation that converts sequence back to WT)
3) Screen bacteria by incubating some in presence of compound on medium that lacks histidine, and also with liver extract to see how the compound is effected by liver enzymes
4) Will be able to identify bacteria that have reverted (undergone second mutational event) by their ability to grow. Bacteria can only grow if they can make their own histidine, and can only make their own histidine if they have been able to revert the mutation that they have started with.

73
Q

What is the case in which reversal repair is useful and how does it work?

A

When pyrmidines become covalently linked to each other from UV light damage and cause buckle in helix.

1) Enzyme photolyse uses photon to break the covalent bond between two fused pyrimidines and have them go back to being normal NTs. Uses energy (>300nm of light).
2) Breaks improper bond between two bases/NTs that are bonded to each other and not the opposite NT.

74
Q

What is the case in which excision repair is useful?

A

Removal of NT that’s been modified to the point that it’s not recognizable as normal NT anymore. Base-excision repair handles nonbulky damage and can’t correct damage to more than one base.

  • Base excision: Useful for nonbulky (minor) base damage
  • Nucleotide Excision: Useful for base damage so severe that replication is blocked, ie. damage to more than one base, distortion of the DNA helix.
75
Q

What is the mechanism of base excision repair?

A

1) DNA glycosylases remove incorrect or damaged bases by cleaving base off the sugar, generating AP site.
2) An AP endonuclease (can cut in the middle of sequence) nicks the damaged strand upstream of the AP site.
3) Deoxyribophosphodiesterase (dRpase) removes a stretch of neighboring sugar-phosphate residue
4) DNA pol. fills the gap with nucleotides complimentary to the other strand
5) DNA ligase then seals the new NT into the backbone

76
Q

What is the mechanism of nucleotide excision repair?

A

1) Triggered when DNA or RNA polymerase get stuck and can’t move forward with transcription or replication
2) Protein complex is assembled at the site of damage and DNA unwound
3) Damaged strand is cut several NTs up and downstream of the damage
4) The undamaged strand is used as a template for DNA polymerase to synthesize a new strand.

77
Q

What is the difference between spontaneous and induced mutations?

A

Spontaneous - naturally occurring in the organisms course of life
Induced - through the action of mutagens

78
Q

What can the effects of a mutation in an exon look like?

A

Changed amino acid, premature stop codon, frame shift by insertion or deletion of amino acids in multiples of 3

79
Q

What can the effects of a mutation in an intron look like?

A

If in promoter, gene is not expressed; if disrupts a binding site then the gene can either be underexpressed or not expressed, depending on which one.

80
Q

How might spontaneous mutations arise?

A

During mistakes in DNA replication, due to energy from UV light

81
Q

How might induced mutations arise?

A

Chemical agents → can cause incorrect base pairing, frameshifts thru indels
Ionizing radiation → dsDNA breaks and damage to nucleotides

82
Q

When is a post-replication DNA mismatch repair performed? What is the mechanism?

A

Mismatch repair is used to correct the remaining mutations following from DNA replication, after proofreading.

1) MutS recognizes a mismatched pair of bases.
2) MutH recognizes the daughter strand as the unmethylated strand and nicks the daughter strand upstream of mismatch
3) Strand is excised and replaced between nick and mismatched pair.

83
Q

When is an error-prone double-stranded break repair performed? What is the mechanism?

A

When there is a double stranded break in DNA, and there is no template to fill in the missing nucleotides, it is better to do this repair than nothing, in order to prevent the further erosion of genetic material.

1) Proteins trim ends of double stranded break, losing nucleotides
2) Ends are ligated back together

84
Q

When is an homology directed repair performed? What is the mechanism?

A

When a double stranded break occurs after replication of a chromosomal region in a dividing cell, using sister chromatids as templates to ensure correct repair.

1) Proteins trim ends at the double stranded break, exposing single stranded regions
2) Strand invasion, similar to crossing over → use sister chromatids as templates
3) DNA strands are untangled, and ligated back together