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RUSVM Virology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

why are there only a few effective antiviral medication?

A

Viruses are intimately dependent on the metabolic pathways of their host cells for replication

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2
Q

Where in the life cycle are possible mechanisms of action of antivirals?

A

Receptor binding, uncoating, nucleic acid and protein synthesis, assembly, release and to modulate the immune system

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3
Q

Acyclovir is restricted to which virus?

A

Herpesvirus

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4
Q

What does acyclovir require to be activated?

A

virus enzymes in the infected host cell. They are necessary to convert the prodrug into active form, which then interferes with virus replication.

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5
Q

Acyclovir is the synthetic nucleoside analog of _________

A

Deoxyguanosine

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6
Q

Mechanism of antiviral effect of acyclovir?

A

Stop the growing viral DNA chain (due to lack of necessary attachment points) and Competitive inhibition of viral DNA Polymerase

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7
Q

why is acyclovir nontoxic to the unaffected host cells

A

the enzymes herpesvirus thymidine kinase and virus DNA polymerase are viral enzymes that are not found in host cells

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8
Q

how can herpesvirus develop resistance to acyclovir?

A

absence or lack of viral thymidine kinase

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9
Q

Amatadine inhibits replication of most strains of _________ by blocking _________of the virus

A

Influenza A; uncoating

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10
Q

The M2 ion channel is the target of ______

A

Amantadine

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11
Q

how does amantadine affect the M2 channels in a virus?

A

clog the channel and prevent it from pumping protons into the virion. (the protons lower the pH in the interior so that the viral RNA’s can be released)

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12
Q

Amatadine can also alter conformation of _______ and thus also blocks viral assembly

A

hemagglutinin

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13
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors enzymes are synthesized by _______

A

Influenza A and B

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14
Q

Neuraminidase is important is what activity of viruses?

A

Spreading

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15
Q

targets for Anti-Retroviral therapy

A

Inhibit fusion, inhibit integration, inhibit reverse transcriptase, inhibit protease

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16
Q

Zidovudine is a potent _____

A

antiviral (retroviruses)

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17
Q

AZT/ZDV resemble what?

A

thymine deoxyribonucleotide-triphosphate

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18
Q

Mechanisms of actions for AZT/ZDV?

A

Competitive inhibition of reverse transcriptase activity and inhibition of growth of the cDNA transcribed from the viral RNA

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19
Q

reverse transcription of virus genome takes place in the _____of a cell

A

cytoplasm

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20
Q

what are the four “W’s” of immunization?

A

Where, when, who, why

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21
Q

the original live-attentuated virus vaccine form naturally occurring attenuated viruses?

A

cowpox

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22
Q

Most of the live-attenuated virus vaccines in common use were derived by ___________________________

A

attenuation of viruses by serial passage of cluttered cells

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23
Q

__________ and _________ viruses were produced by attenuation of viruses by serial passage in heterologous hosts (specifically which host)

A

Rinderpest and classical swine fever; Rabbits

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24
Q

Vaccines produced by attenuation of viruses by selection of cold-adapted mutants and reassortments would be safer in what conditions?

A

lower temps such as nasal cavity bc they would replicate better.

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25
Q

Vaccines produced from inactivated whole virions.

A

infectivity destroyed while maintaining immunogenicity. Need a large amount of antigen to elicit immune response, usually formulated with chemical adjuvant to do so.

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26
Q

Vaccines produced from purified native viral proteins

A

the virion is soluble and its components released. Differential centrifugation

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27
Q

Vaccines produced by recombinant DNA and related technologies

A

things

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28
Q

What is DIVA used for?

A

differentiating between an animal that was live attenuated vaccinated or had a natural infection (due to the presence of antibodies). Using special “marked” vaccines

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29
Q

Vector Control consists of:

A

Source reduction, biological and chemical control.

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30
Q

Isolation:

A

applies to animals that are KNOWN to be ill with contagious disease

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31
Q

Quarantine:

A

applies to those who have been exposed to a contagious disease

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32
Q

When is isolation not effective?

A

if detectable pathogen shedding does not occur, as in carriers of incubation period

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33
Q

When does isolation not effective?

A

with diseases involving chronically infected healthy shedders

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34
Q

Decontamination:

A

general term that ranges from sterilization to simple cleaning; renders a medical tool safe to handle

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35
Q

Sterilization:

A

eliminates ALL forms of microbial life

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36
Q

Disinfection:

A

eliminates all forms of microbial life except bacterial spores

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37
Q

Antisepsis:

A

application of a liquid microbial chemical to skin or living tissue to inhibit or destroy microorganisms.

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38
Q

Moist heat method of sterilization:

A

autoclave; 121 degrees for 15 mins

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39
Q

Dry heat method of sterilization:

A

160 for 2 hours

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40
Q

chemical methods of sterilization

A

h2o2, ehtylene oxide, ozone

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41
Q

Radiation method of sterilization

A

UV radiation or Gamma or X rays

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42
Q

Sterile filtration:

A

microfiltration

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43
Q

2 subfamilies of poxviridae?

A

Chordopoxvirinae and entomopoxvirinae

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44
Q

Two infectious poxvirus particles: _______ and _________

A

intracellular mature viruses and extracellular enveloped virus

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45
Q

The genome of poxvirus consists of ________

A

a single molecule of linear double stranded DNA

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46
Q

Even though Poxviruses are DNA viruses, they replicate in the ______

A

cytoplasm

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47
Q

Unlike other enveloped viruses, poxviruses show a ____ environmental stability.

A

high

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48
Q

Poxvirus are less sensitive to organic solvents due to their_______

A

low lipid content

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49
Q

Pox Virus can be transmitted via:

A

broken skin, respiratory route, mechanically transmitted via arthropod

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50
Q

T/F. Poxviruses are highly epitheliotropic?

A

TRUE

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51
Q

poxviruses are _____, while orthopoxviruses infect a wide range of species

A

Host specific

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52
Q

T/F. Poxviruses can survive in the dried scabs for many months to years?

A

TRUE

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53
Q

Cowpox is under what Genus?

A

Orthopoxvirus

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54
Q

cowpox affects which animals?

A

cattle, cats and humans (rodents are reservoirs)

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55
Q

Cowpox in cattle: how is it transmitted? clinical findings?

A

milker hands or teat cups, farm cats, rats; papillose on teat and sucking calves may get lesions in mouth

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56
Q

cowpox in cats: transmission? clinical signs?

A

skin inoculations, nasal passages; skin lesions in head neck and forelimb, widespread secondary lesions may occur

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57
Q

cowpox in humans: transmission? clinical signs?

A

from cats usually; lesions on hands or face, enlarges lymph nodes, general symptoms.

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58
Q

Monkeypox: possible hosts?

A

monkeys and humans

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59
Q

Clinical signs of monkeypox in humans? monkeys?

A

similar to smallpox; generalized skin eruptions, then papules spread elsewhere.

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60
Q

Other orthopoxviruses:

A

variola, camelpox, extromelia virus, horsepox, rabbitpox, vaccinia virus,

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61
Q

What Genus is pseudo cowpox, Orf virus and bovine papular stomatitis virus under?

A

Parapoxviruses

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62
Q

Psuedocowpox is referred to as ______ because it can infect humans as well.

A

milker’s nodule

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63
Q

Psudocowpox transmission?

A

milker’s hand, teat cup, biting insect, calves from suckling, semen of bulls

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64
Q

Lesions from this virus are characterized by hyperplasia of squamous epithelium?

A

pseudocowpox

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65
Q

_______ of pseudo cowpox begin with a thick scab and then drop off leaving a horseshoe shaped ring of scabs around a wart-like granuloma.

A

Acute lesions

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66
Q

________ of pseudo cowpox commences as Erythema with soft scabs that are rubbed off during milking.

A

Chronic lesion

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67
Q

What is the order that an acute pseudo cowpox lesions develops

A

Erythema, papule, vesicle, rupture, scab

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68
Q

Contagious ecthyma is the Orf virus

A

True statement

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69
Q

What are the hosts that are affected by contagious ecthyma?

A

sheep and goats and humans

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70
Q

Contagious ecthyma transmission?

A

animal to animal (fallen scab contains virus), contaminated instruments; primarily though damaged skin; oral lesions in nursing lambs or kids

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71
Q

The evolution of contagious ecthyma lesions is…?

A

Macule, papule, vesicle, pustule, ulcer, then scab formation

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72
Q

Contagious ecthyma clinical signs?

A

initial mucucutaneous lesions, then spread to muzzle and nostrils. anorexia; severe cases is in genitals, ears, feet

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73
Q

Usually contagious ecthyma resolves in 1-4 weeks when scabs fall off, but complications can result from ________ or _______

A

secondary bacterial infections, fly invasion

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74
Q

Contagious Ecthyma vaccines: origin? when do you use it?what determines viability? immunity?

A

from prepared suspension of scabs, ONLY in herds with a problem with ORF, look for local reaction to confirm viability, short term: 1-2 years

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75
Q

Sheep pox, goat pox and lump skin disease belong to which genus?

A

Capripoxvirus

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76
Q

T/F? Sheep pox is a not a systemic disease?

A

False

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77
Q

Two forms of sheep pox disease:

A

Malignant and benign form

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78
Q

Malignant form of sheep pox is found in what animals?

A

lambs usually

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79
Q

T/F? Sheep pox is a reportable disease?

A

TRUE

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80
Q

Goatpox is reportable?

A

Yes

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81
Q

A ________ of capripox is seen in some European goats and this has a high case fatality.

A

flat hemorrhagic form

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82
Q

Goat pox clinical signs (general)?

A

young kids suffer systemic disease with lesions on skin, respiratory, and alimentary mucosa. Milder form of disease in adults.

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83
Q

Lumpy skin disease in what host?

A

cattle

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84
Q

Lumpy skin disease is transmitted how?

A

arthropod, also direct contact

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85
Q

lumpy skin findings?

A

fever, lumpy skin, lymphadenopathy

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86
Q

What genus is swinepox under?

A

suipoxvirus

87
Q

Swinepox transmission?

A

through damaged skin, heamatopinus suis (pig lice), flies and insects, transplacental infection

88
Q

Development of swine pox lesion?

A

erythematous macule, papule, vesicle, pustule, ulcers, scab

89
Q

Which genus does fowlpox and other avian poxviruses belong to?

A

avipoxvirus

90
Q

Host of fowl pox?

A

poultry and turkeys

91
Q

The three forms of fowlpox disease?

A

Cutaneous form (dry), Diphtheritic form (wet), and Ocular form

92
Q

Which form of fowlpox disease is more common?

A

Cutaneous form

93
Q

Cutaneous form of fowlpox usually a result of arthropod or mechanical transmission to broken skin?

A

Yes

94
Q

Diphtheritic form is probably caused by ______

A

droplet infection

95
Q

Diphtheritic form of fowlpox results in _______________.

A

infectious of mouth, pharynx, larynx and trachea. Death by asphyxiation

96
Q

Ocular form of fowl pox results in __________.

A

conjuctivitis (cheesy exudate over eyelids)

97
Q

Turkey pox and canary pox result in cutaneous lesions?

A

yes

98
Q

Histologically, what is characteristic of avipoxvirus?

A

Bollinger and Borrel Bodies

99
Q

Ulcerative Dermatosis of sheep is a _____ poxvirus.

A

Unclassified

100
Q

Ulcerative Dermatosis of sheep is transmitted by?

A

infection through skin or coitus

101
Q

Two forms of Ulcerative dermatosis of sheep:

A

Lip and leg ulceration AND Venereal form

102
Q

The Poxvirus characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies:

A

Guarnieri inclusion bodies and ATI inclusion bodies; Bollinger and Borrel bodies in avipoxvirus

103
Q

T/F? parapoxviruses do not multiply in chicken embryo?

A

TRUE

104
Q

Circoviridae have _____-stranded DNA genomes.

A

Single

105
Q

Genus circovirus (under circoviridae family) have what type of DNA?

A

Circular, single-stranded ambisense DNA

106
Q

Genus Gyrovirus (under circoviridae family) have what type of DNA?

A

Circular, single-stranded negative sense DNA

107
Q

Circoviridae are enveloped or non-enveloped?

A

non-enveloped

108
Q

What is characteristic of the chicken infectious anemia virus?

A

they have 12 trumpet like structures protruding from the capsid

109
Q

Where do circoviridae DNA replication occur?

A

Nucleus

110
Q

Post-weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome is caused by?

A

Porcine circovirus 2

111
Q

PMWS is characterized by ? (histologically)

A

botroid intra cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in infected macrophages

112
Q

Pathogenesis of PMWS?

A

lymphoid depletion and lymphopenia in peripheral blood

113
Q

Transplacental infection of PMWS: 1st and 2nd trimester, and 3rd trimester.

A

fetal death and abortion; minimal effects during last trimester

114
Q

Post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome can be co-infected with?

A

Porcine parvovirus, porcine arterivirus, mycoplasma hyopneumoniea.

115
Q

two kinds of vaccines against porcine circovirus (PMWS)

A

chimeric vaccines using non-pathogenic PCV-1 AND inactivated or baculovirus-expressed vaccines- include capsid proteins of PCV-2.

116
Q

Along with post weaning multi systemic wasting syndrome, Porcine circovirus 2 can also lead to..?

A

Porcine dermatitis and Nephropathy syndrome (PDNS)

117
Q

PDNS: clinical findings? hosts?

A

necrotizing skin lesions, necrotizing vasculitis, necrotizing and fibrinous glomerulonephritis; older piglets.

118
Q

Chicken anemia virus is a member of what genus?

A

gyrovirus

119
Q

Chicken anemia virus affect which hosts?

A

chickens; mostly young chickens 2-4 weeks of age

120
Q

Where are principal sites of chicken anemia replication?

A

hemocytoblasts in bone marrow, precursor T cells in thymus, and dividing CD4 and CD8 cells in the spleen.

121
Q

replication of CAV in the hemocytoblasts leads to ______, while replication in the T cells causes _______

A

anemia, immunosuppression

122
Q

The ______ protein of CAV induces apoptosis and causes destruction of infected lymphocytes.

A

apoptin

123
Q

How is Porcine Circovirus 2 transmitted?

A

Blood, urine, feces and mucous

124
Q

The order Herpesvirales has three families; which are?

A

Herperviridae, alloherpesviridae, malacoherpesviridae

125
Q

Mardivirus (gallid herpesvirus 2- Marek’s disease) and Iltovirus (galled herpesvirus 1-infectious laryngotracheitis virus) belong to which Genus

A

Herpesviridae

126
Q

Proboscivirus- elephantid herpesvirus belong to which genus?

A

Betaherpesvirinae

127
Q

Virus from the Gammaherpesvirinae can become ______in lymphocytes.

A

latent

128
Q

where does synthesis of viral DNA and capsid assembly occur in herpesviruses?

A

Nucleus

129
Q

where does processing of herpesviruses occur?

A

cytoplasm

130
Q

Visions are (enveloped or non enveloped) with a simple linear (single or double) stranded DNA.

A

enveloped; double stranded

131
Q

Early genes=?

A

regulatory functions and virus replication

132
Q

late genes=?

A

structural proteins

133
Q

Alpha proteins (herpesvirus) have what function?

A

transactivate beta gene transcription

134
Q

beta proteins (herpesvirus) have what function?

A

involved in replicating the viral DNA

135
Q

gamma gene expression is stimulated by what activity? (herpesvirus)

A

DNA synthesis

136
Q

gamme proteins are involved in what function?

A

capsid assembly and modifying membranes for virion formation

137
Q

Transmission of herpesvirus?

A

mucosal contact or droplet or aerosol transmission

138
Q

T/F? latent infections of herpesvirus is common?

A

TRUE

139
Q

Rhinotracheitis, vulvovaginitis, Balanoposthitis, conjuctivitus, enteritis and abortion in cattle can be caused by…?

A

Bovine herpesvirus 1

140
Q

T/F? BHV-1 has a high morbidity but low mortality?

A

True

141
Q

Clinical signs of IBR (rhinotracheitis) caused by BHV-1 is

A

general symptoms with profuse nasal discharge that is serous at first and then mucopurulent; nasal mucosa becomes hyperemic with ulcerations present and a deep cough; conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis, abortion

142
Q

Clinical signs of IPV (vulvovaginitis)

A

general symptoms with painful micturition and tail held away from vulvar area (swollen, reddened, pustules/ulceration)

143
Q

vulvovaginitis (IPV) results from _____ and occurs mostly in ______cattle.

A

coitus; dairy

144
Q

Balanoposthitis virus can remain latent in which nerves?

A

sciatic and trigeminal ganglia

145
Q

the Eliza test specifically for BHV1 detection in cattle?

A

pulmotest

146
Q

T/F? The vaccination against BHV-1 prevents infection?

A

False; just reduces severity and incidence

147
Q

T/F? Equine herpesvirus 1 is the most important viral cause of abortion in horses?

A

True; if mare is infected in last trimester abortion may occur

148
Q

EHV-1 can also cause respiratory disease and encephalomyelitis?

A

Yes

149
Q

Encephalomyelitis in horses infected with EHV-1 is due to…?

A

destruction of endothelial cells of arterioles of the brain and spinal cord.

150
Q

Aborted fetuses in EHV-1 have what characteristic lesions?

A

advanced icterus

151
Q

Herpesvirus belong to which order?

A

herpesvirales

152
Q

Acute disease of EHV-1 has what clinical signs?

A

mild serous or seromucous nasal discharge with ocular discharge and conjunctivitis.

153
Q

what organs would you sample for EHV-1 since it is a systemic disease?

A

lungs, spleen, thymus

154
Q

Equid herpesvirus 3 results in the the formation of pustules on….?

A

vaginal mucosa and penis

155
Q

EHV-3 is systemic and can cause abortions?

A

NEGATIVE

156
Q

EHV-3 transmission?

A

coitus, nasogenital transmission, flies?

157
Q

Gallid Herpesvirus 2 (Marek’s disease) belongs to which order?

A

alphaherpesvirus

158
Q

Marek’s disease is what kind of disease in chickens?

A

lymphoproliferative

159
Q

Clinical signs of galled Herpesvirus 2?

A

paralysis of wings or legs, incoordination, wing drooping

160
Q

three variations of Marek’s disease:

A

acute, ocular lymphomatous, and cutaneous mark’s disease

161
Q

Suid herpes virus 1 is also referred to as Pseudorabies?

A

Yep

162
Q

Suid Herpes Virus 1 manifests in three different ways. what are they?

A

Neurological, respiratory, or reproductive failure

163
Q

Suid herpes virus 1 transmission?

A

nose to nose contact, feed and contaminated water

164
Q

Suid Herpes Virus 1 Clinical signs?

A

sudden death in young piglets; older pigs= general symptoms, tremors, vomiting, foaming at mouth, convulsions; sows can absorb fetus in 1st trimester and abort in later trimesters

165
Q

Clinical signs in secondary hosts of Suid herpes virus 1?

A

intense pruritis in cattle, dogs and humans

166
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever is caused by which viruses?

A

Alcelaphine herpesvirus and ovine herpesvirus 2

167
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever is a generalized lymphoproliferative disease of _______.

A

cattle and some wild ruminants

168
Q

Clinical signs of Malignant catarrhal fever?

A

fever, depression, profuse nasal discharge, ocular discharge and salivation; corneal opacity; nasal and Gi mucosal erosion

169
Q

Histological findings of Malignant catarrhal fever?

A

proliferation of lymphocytes

170
Q

African swine fever virus is the sole member of which family?

A

asfarviridae

171
Q

African Swine fever virus is the only ______ arbovirus of animals.

A

DNA

172
Q

African Swine fever isn’t very resistant at all?

A

False

173
Q

African swine fever transmission?

A

soft ticks ( sylvatic cycle); direct contact, secretions, blood loss

174
Q

The effects of African Swine fever is:

A

hemorrhages, apoptosis, leukopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia

175
Q

Peracute African Swine Fever clinical signs?

A

sudden death or 1-3 days of high fever, hyperpnea hyperemia before death

176
Q

Acute African Swine Fever clinical signs?

A

general symptoms, erythema, cyanotic skin blotching, respiratory distress, nasal discharge, abortion, death

177
Q

Chronic African Swine fever clinical signs?

A

Stunted growth, swollen joints, ulcers and reddened or raised necrotic skin foci, pneumonia

178
Q

“Blackberry jam spleen” characteristics to which disease?

A

African swine fever

179
Q

You can treat African Swine Fever yourself as a veterinarian?

A

NOPE, it is reportable!!

180
Q

African Swine fever is only found in african countries?

A

Negative, eastern Europe and Russia.

181
Q

T/F? Papiloma viruses can transform cultured cells?

A

True

182
Q

Papillomaviruses infect which cells in the basal layer of the epithelium after micro-wounds occur?

A

Keratinocytes

183
Q

In benign/malignant warts, the papillomavirus DNA is episomal.

A

Benign

184
Q

In benign/malignant warts are integrated into the host cell.

A

Malignant

185
Q

Papillomavirus (example HPV) produces two proteins. which are they?

A

E6 and E7

186
Q

Function of the E6 protein produced by HPV

A

prevents p53 from making damaged cells commit suicide

187
Q

Function of the E7 protein produced by HPV:

A

bind to RB and prevents it from stopping damaged cells from growing

188
Q

Bovine papillomatosis transmission?

A

contaminated fomites or sexual intercourse

189
Q

Fibropapilloma in cattle is caused by which viruses?

A

Bovine papillomavirus type 1, 2, or 5*

190
Q

Cutaneous papillomas in cattle is caused by which virus?

A

Bovine Papillomaviruses type 3

191
Q

T/F? When cattle ingest the plant, Break Fern, it can cause a transition to an invasive carcinoma of the alimentary trect?

A

Yes, BPV 4 can cause transient papilloma in the Gi tract and the plant contains mutagens, carcinogen and immunosuppresive chemicals.

Also, if with Papilloma type 1 or 2 is can contribute to enzootic hematuria or bladder cancer

192
Q

T/F? Canine oral papillomatosis is warts that can start on lips and spread down to the esophagus?

A

False, the warts stop before the epiglottis and esophagus.

193
Q

Epithelial hyperplasia and cytoplasmic vacuolization are histological characteristics of ________

A

Canine oral papillomatosis

194
Q

Canine oral Papillomatosis often doesn’t resolve and can progress to squamous cell carcinoma?

A

False, self-limiting and malignant progression is rare

195
Q

Feline papillomatosis is a thing

A

In the pics there are warty plaque-y crustiness in ears

196
Q

Equine Sarcoids are associated with what viruses?

A

Bovine papilomaviruses 1 and 2

197
Q

The exact transmission of equine sarcoids isn’t confirmed but there are susceptible breeds?

A

True

198
Q

T/F? Lesions of equine sarcoid commonly occur in traumatized areas.

A

True

199
Q

Virus replication occurs only in cells that pass through ______

A

mitotic S phase

200
Q

Viruses in the ________ genus, like parvovirus B19, causes mild rash illness, aplastic anemia and painful joints in children

A

Erythrovirus

201
Q

Viruses in the _______ genus cannon replicate on their own and depend on a helper virus to do so.

A

Dependovirus

202
Q

Viruses in the ________ genus contain a third ORF (open reading frame) between the nonstructural and structural coding regions. Infect GI and respiratory tract.

A

Bocaviruses

203
Q

Feline Parvovirus transmission?

A

oro-nasally, feces, secretions, contaminated fomites, in-utero transmission, fly transmission.

204
Q

Hallmarks of panleukopenia?

A

leukopenia (cells in circulation and in lymphoid tissues destroyed). Thrombocytopenia may also occur.

205
Q

pathogenesis of enteritis

A

destroys deep crypt cells. the surface cells are constantly being replaced, but due to parvo they are not. this results in short villi, malabsorption and diarrhea.

206
Q

Pathogenesis of in-utero infection

A

early gestation infection=fetal death and absorption

late gestation infection= varying damage to neural tissue; cerebellar hypoplasia, retina damage as well

207
Q

T/F? Canine Parvovirus 1 is often fatal.

A

False; mild to inapparent illness. Not Important

208
Q

Canine Parvovirus 2 transmission?

A

oro-fecal, in-utero infection, contaminated fomites

209
Q

Porcine parvovirus disease is an infectious cause of _____________ in swine throughout the world.

A

Reproductive failure; predilection for mitotically active cells in fetal tissues

210
Q

Porcine parvovirus transmission?

A

oronasal, transplacental transmission, veneral transmission is possible

211
Q

What is the hallmark clinical sign for Porcine parvovirus?

A

increase in mummified fetuses after a normal gestation period.

212
Q

Porcine parvovirus is major cause of SMEDI. What does that stand for?

A

Stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, infertility

213
Q

T/F? Like most other parvovirus, Porcine Parvovirus cannot cause persistent infection with periodical shedding.

A

False, it can cause persistent shedding unlike the other parvoviruses

RUSVM Virology (1 decks)

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