Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology 1 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

metastases

A

spreading of tissue invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cancer

A

transformation or change in cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACS lifetime risk: men versus women

A

1 in 2 men

1 in 3 women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

estimated new cases of cancer: percentages of men

A

prostate 27%
lung and bronchus 14%
colon and rectum 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

estimated new cases of cancer: percentages of women

A

breast 29%
lung and bronchus 14%
colon and rectum 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

estimated deaths: % of men

A

lung and bronchus 28%
prostate 10%
colon and rectum 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

estimated deaths: % of women

A

lung and bronchus 26%
breast 15%
colon and rectum 9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

oncogenesis

A

process of formation of tumors or cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

study of formation of tumors has led to the understanding that:

A

oncogenes transform normal cells into malignant cells

can be independent or, current theory, is that this is done with a virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

oncogenes

A

CA causing genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tumor-suppressor genes

A

suppress oncogenes from causing transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

carcinogenesis

A

process of normal cell becoming malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

tumor (neoplasm)

A

abnormal mass of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

characteristics of a tumor (neoplasm)

A
  • no useful purpose
  • may harm host
  • growth usually exceeds normal tissue growth and continues after stimulus that triggered change has ceased
  • benign or malignant
  • primary or secondary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where do carcinomas arise from?

A

epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where do sarcomas arise from?

A

mesenchymal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where do lymphomas arise from?

A

lymph tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where do adenocarcinomas arise from?

A

glandular tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do benign differ from malignant?

A

differentiation and anaplasia
rate of growth
local invasion
metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is differentiation

A

process of cells changing as they develop into different tissues
-extent to which cells resemble normal cells

  • benign closely mimic
  • malignant cells differ widely in extent of differentiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is anaplasia

A

lack of differentiation

  • poor differentiation is hallmark of malignancy
  • poorly differentiated (anapestic) tumors show complete disarray of tissue architecture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is dysplasia

A

disorderly but non-neoplastic growth (may reverse or progress to malignancy)

highly marked lesion -> pre-invasive neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is metaplasia

A

mild or early dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is hyperplasia

A

increase in number of cells

normal or abnormal - e.g., breast tissue in pregnancy. bone healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is tumor grading?

A

degree of differentiation and number of mitoses in amor

how abnormal the tumor looks microscopically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is tumor staging?

A

anatomic extent of the tumor and its spread

  • size of primary
  • extent of local and distant spread

specific to type of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the TNM system?

A

Tumor, Node, Metastasis
detailed system that classifies tumors developed by AJCC (american joint committee on cancer)
-then often simplified to roman numerals I to IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the key elements of staging?

A 
location of the primary tumor
tumor size and number of tumors
lymph node involvement 
cell type and tumor grade
presence or absence of metastasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TNM Staging: T (primary tumor)

A

TX = primary tumor cannot be evaluated

T0 = no evidence of primary tumor

Tis = carcinoma in situ

T1-T4 = size and/or extent of the primary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

TNM Staging: N (regional lymph nodes

A

NX = regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated

N0 = no regional lymph node involvement (no cancer found in the lymph nodes)

N1-N3 = involvement of regional lymph nodes (number and/or extent of spread)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TNM Staging: M (distant metastasis)

A

MX = distant metastasis cannot be determined

M0 = no distant metastasis

M1 = distant metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Stages based on TNM combinations

A

0 = carcinoma in situ

I, II, III = higher numbers: more extensive disease with greater tumor size, and/or spread of the cancer to nearby lymph nodes and/or organs adjacent to the primary tumor

IV = cancer has spread to another organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

according to ACS, does a cancer stage ever change?

A

no - keep cancer stage as that at diagnosis, rather than change as condition progressive

if there is an “R” on the end of TNM (TNMR) then the person has been restaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is TNM NOT used for?

A

leukemia
lymphomas
brain tumors
female gynecologic system cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what type of staging system do lymphomas use?

A

Ann Arbor staging system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how does grading classify cells?

A

using abnormal appearance under a microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the key elements of grading?

A

differentiation/histologic grading

nuclear grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the nuclear grade

A

size and shape of nucleus and the % of tumor cells that are dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

differences between grades 1 and grades 2-4

A

1: resemble normal cells, tend to grow and multiple slowly, least aggressive

2-4: increasing lack of differentiation, tend to grow and multiply faster as grade number increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

AJC on Cancer grading guidelines:

A

GX = grade cannot be assessed (undetermined grade)

G1 = well-differentiated (low grade)

G2 = moderately differentiated (intermediate grade)

G3 = poorly differentiated (high grade)

G4 = undifferentiated (high grade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

why is grading an “imperfect system”?

A

different tumors and parts of tumors may be at different grades

grading may change as tumor grows

importance of grading in treatment and prognosis varies with specific cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the risk factors for CA?

A 
age
inactivity 
overweight/obese 
heredity 
viruses
race/ethnicity
geography 
presence of precancerous lesions
occupation 
behaviors (diet, nutrition, drugs, activity, sexual behaviors, etc.)
gender (hormones, etc.)
SES
stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the most important risk factor and why?

A

AGE

increase up to about age 84

  • longer exposure?
  • shifts in immune system?
  • genetic mutations with age?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what CAs are age risk increases greatest for?

A

leukemia’s, digestive system, cervical, breast, prostate and skin (especially basal and squamous cell carcinomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how is heredity a risk factor for CA?

A

(interacts with environment)

  • familial cancers
  • inherited cancer syndromes - single mutant genes in an autosomal dominant pattern
  • autosoma recessive syndromes of defective DNA repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are three common treatments of CA?

A

surgery
radiation
chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what types of surgeries are used to treat cancers

A

biopsies (bx)
-open, needle, stereotactic

resections
-partial or debulking, complete

treatment access (e.g., brachytherapy)

reconstruction

mohs surgery or chemosurgery for skin lesions
-inspection of each sequential microscopic layer of the tumor fills all layers removed

lymph node dissection
-traditional, sentinel node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the reasonings for radiation treatment?

A

curative or palliative
decreasing size of the tumor
decreasing metastasis risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the types of radiation treatment?

A

traditional telotherapy
brachiotherapy
gamma knife

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when is chemotherapy used as a CA treatment

A

for cancers that have spread or are unable to be treated by surgery

may be used with other treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

is chemotherapy a specific or systemic treatment?

A

systemic

tends to target more rapidly dividing cells
–this is why hair falls out and why people get nauseous (hair cells are rapidly dividing, and the cells on the lining of the GI tract are rapidly dividing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

alkylating (medication class)

A

directly damage DNA to stop cancer cells from reproducing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

antimetabolites (medication class)

A

interfere with DNA and RNA growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

anti-tumor antibiotics (medication class)

A

interfere with enzymes involved in cell replications

55
Q

topoisomerase inhibitors (medication class)

A

affect DNA copying

56
Q

mitotic inhibitors (medication class)

A

interfere with mitosis or enzymes needed for necessary replication proteins

57
Q

corticosteroids (medication class)

A

for edema, nausea, and sensitivity reactions

58
Q

hormone therapy (medication class)

A

alters specific hormonal actions (e.g., blocks hormones involved in hormone dependent tumors)

59
Q

immunotherapy (medication class)

A

stimulate immune system to identify and attack cells

  • also known as biological response modifiers - BRMs
  • relatively new and many still experimental stage
  • categories include interferon, interleukins, antibodies, hematopoietic agents, and stem cell replacement techniques
60
Q

what is the main function of the immune system?

A

to protect self from foreign substances and organisms
-the strategy it uses to differentiate self from non-self and remove non-self

uses complex network of specialized organs and cells to fight off invaders

61
Q

what is immunology

A

branch of medicine that studies the physiological mechanisms allowing the body to recognize foreign materials and neutralize them

62
Q

external protection (immune system)

A

skin, hair, mucus, ear wax, etc.

63
Q

internal protection (immune system)

A

primary and secondary organs of the immune system

64
Q

what are the primary organs of the immune system

A

leukocytes (white blood cells)

  • formed in bone marrow
  • all leukocytes start as stem cells

thymus
-T-lymphocytes mature here

65
Q

what are the secondary organs of the immune system?

A

where leukocytes are stored

  • lymph nodes
  • tonsils and adenoids
  • spleen
  • Peyer’s patch (small intestines)
66
Q

what are the 3 types of leukocytes?

A

granulocytes
lymphocytes
monocytes

67
Q

what are the 4 granulocytes

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
mast cells

68
Q

what are the 4 types of lymphocytes

A

b-lymphocytes
T4 - helper lymphocytes
T8 - killer lymphocytes
natural killer (NK)

69
Q

what are the 2 types of monocytes

A

macrophages

dendritic cells

70
Q

what is the turnover rate of granulocytes

A

2-3 days

71
Q

what is the turnover rate of monocytes

A

months to years

72
Q

what are some characteristics of neutrophils

A

come from the bone marrow
increase in the presence of infection (if someone has low immunity, they will have low neutrophils)
without a lot of neutrophils, immune system will be low

neutrophils are produced FAST, so they will be killed off by chemo (thats why chemo pt’s are given drugs to help with immunity)

73
Q

what does an elevated amount of eosinophils mean?

A

allergic response to something

74
Q

characteristics of basophils

A

circulate in peripheral blood
antihistamines target mast cells
mast cells gone awry - cause anaphylaxis response

75
Q

what are monocytes critical for?

A

first response

will hang around for a while (while the response continues)

76
Q

what are the jobs of the immune system?

A
  1. to differentiate self from non-self

2. to remove the non-self

77
Q

what is an antigen

A

any substance or organism that is capable of setting off an immune response

process specific cell markers that identifies it as self or non-self

(major histocompatibility complex molecules MHC-Class 1)

78
Q

what are epitopes

A

identifying molecule of antigen (antigen determinant) that marks organism, tissue, or protein as either self or non-self

79
Q

major histocompatibility complex proteins

A

genes on chromosome 6
-unique fingerprint - cell markers identify self
produces tolerance of self

80
Q

human leukocyte antigen (HLA)

A

class I type A, B, C
class II type D (DP, DQ, DR)
discovered on leukocytes
inherited

81
Q

what are the two types of immunity?

A
  1. innate (natural) immunity

2. acquired (adaptive) immunity

82
Q

what is innate (natural) immunity

A

first line of defense

attack any non-self substance

83
Q

what is acquired (adaptive) immunity

A

learn to identify specific foreign antigens as non-self

then be able to make rapid response to destroy them when encountered later

84
Q

characteristics of innate immunity

A
  • non-specific
  • lacks memory
  • remain unchanged no matter how often the antigen is presented
  • fast response
  • both external and internal components
85
Q

purpose of innate immunity

A

external component - prevents access to environment by providing a physical or chemical barrier

internal component - uses a non-specific response to destroy any invaders that manage to enter internal environment

86
Q

components of external defense (innate immunity)

A

PASSIVE

  • skin, hair, nails
  • GI tract acid secretions
  • dendritic cells located in tissue with external environment contact, Langerhan’s cells

“border patrol”

87
Q

components of internal defense (innate immunity)

A

ACTIVE

-phagocytes
(neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, dendritic cells)
-natural killer cells
-complement

“state police”

88
Q

what are phagocytes

A

cell eaters
most important cells in INNATE immune system

engulf and digest microorganisms

antigen presenting cell

89
Q

what are the 3 antigen presenting cells?

A

phagocytes

natural killers (NK)

complement

90
Q

what are natural killers?

A

recognizes any non-self

important role in destroying virally infected cells and tumor cells

91
Q

what is complement?

A

plays role in destruction of foreign cells

20-25 proteins circulating in blood system

92
Q

what are the 3 actions that complement uses to destroy invaders

A

attract phagocytes (chemotaxis)

mark or tag cells for destruction

antigen-antibody complex sets off complement cascade which destroys cell

93
Q

what are the 2 purposes of acquired (adaptive) immunity?

A
  1. to eliminate any foreign antigens that have managed to slip by the external and internal Innate Barriers
    (Primary Immune Response)
  2. prepare the organism to be able to respond more quickly to future attacks from that particular bacteria or virus
    (Secondary Immune Response)
94
Q

characteristics of adaptive immunity

A

specific response to a particular antigen

slow to respond (initially) - primary immune

develops future immunity - secondary immune response

95
Q

what are the two types of acquired immunity?

A

humoral (immunoglobulin immunity) B-cell immunity. antigen/antibody complex

cell mediated (t-cell immunity)

96
Q

what is humoral acquired immunity?

A
  • mediated by antibodies present in body fluids or secretions
  • B-lymphocyte is main player
  • circulate in blood, lymphatic system, and other body secretions (body humors, hence the name humoral)
97
Q

what are b-lymphocytes?

A

produced in bone marrow

have immunoglobulins attached to its surface

main player in humoral immunity

98
Q

what are immunoglobulins?

A

antibodes

antigen recognition molecules

99
Q

what are the functions of immunoglobulins

A
  • directly attach antigens, destroy or neutralize them, neutralize the toxins and lyse the organisms cell
  • activate the compliment system
  • activate anaphylaxis via histamine release in tissue and blood
  • stimulate antibody-mediated hypersensitivity
100
Q

five classes of immunoglobulins

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE

101
Q

IgG

A

anti-bacterial and anti-viral (75%), complement, neutralize toxins

102
Q

IgM

A

initial response, antigen recognition, complement (10%)

103
Q

IgA

A

mucus membrane

104
Q

IgD

A

communication, antigen recognition

105
Q

IgE

A

parasites and allergic reactions

106
Q

what do plasma cells do in the humoral response

A

produce specific antibodies for immediate response to antigen

(primary immune response)

IgG, IgE, IgA

107
Q

what do memory cells do in the humoral response?

A

prepare body to respond quickly to specific antigen if it is introduced at a later time
(don’t need APC)

knows what to look for

(secondary immune response)

108
Q

antigen-antibody complex

destruction of antigen (5 things)

A
  1. neutralize toxins from bacterial infections (IgG)
  2. mark antigen for easy recognition by phagocytes and others
  3. agglutination (certain antibodies promote clumping)
  4. complement fixation (IgG, IgM) sets off a chain reaction
  5. initiate inflammation (all)

these all draw phagocytes and NK to the area to destroy the antigen

109
Q

what is the main player in cell-mediated immune response?

A

t-lymphocytes

110
Q

where are t-lymphocytes produced?

A

in the bone marrow, BUT they MATURE in the THYMUS

111
Q

two primary types of T-cells?

A

helper T-cells (T4, CD4, Th)

killer T cells (T8, CD8, Tc)

112
Q

where are T-cells found

A

in blood and lymph throughout the body

113
Q

what is an antigen presenting cell

A

APC is phagocyte that processes the antigen and exposes the epitope

114
Q

what does helper t-cell receptor do?

A

recognizes and attaches to the exposed epitope and becomes activated

will then multiply into specific active and memory cells

115
Q

helper t-cell roles

A
  1. though the release of cytokines stimulate the proliferation of B-cells and their release of antibodies
  2. plays a role in the activation of killer -cells
  3. simulates the activity of macrophages

THEY JUST HELP! - do not destroy or attack

they are the brains of the organization

116
Q

when are killer t cells activated

A

when exposed to antigen/epitope

117
Q

what is primary immunodeficiency (PID)

A

congenital

inherited deficiencies in the ability of the individual to produce one or more cells of the immune response
-relatively rare that can lead to increased risk of disease

118
Q

what is common variable immunodeficiency (CVI)

A

inability to produce sufficient antibodies

119
Q

what is secondary immunodeficiency

A

result of immune system compromised by disease or drug therapies

120
Q

iatrogenic secondary immunodeficiency

A

compromised immune system usually secondary to chemotherapy or immunosuppressive drug therapy

121
Q

acquired secondary immunodeficiency

A

can also be associated with a disease that affects th immune system such as leukemia, hodgkin’s disease, or HIV/AIDS

122
Q

what are problems of immunodeficiency

A

individual is more susceptible to opportunistic infections

decrease ability to protect self from the proliferation of cancer cells

123
Q

what are hypersensitivity disorders

A

exaggerated or inappropriate immune response

EX) allergic response

damage is from the RESPONSE, not the allergen

124
Q

what are the 4 classification of hypersensitivity classification

A

I - anaphylactic (allergies)

II - cytolytic/cytotoxic

III - immune complex

IV - cell-mediated/delayed

125
Q

what is anaphylactic hypersensitivity

A

hypersensitivity to a foreign substance causing body to overproduce antibody IgE

126
Q

what is cytolytic/cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A

IgG and IgM antibodies bind to self cells

127
Q

what is immune complex hypersensitivity

A

antigen-antibody accumulation

IgG and IgM

128
Q

what is cell-mediated/delayed hypersensitivity

A

t-cell response

129
Q

what type of allergy?

eczema, asthma, anaphylactic shock

A

type I

130
Q

what type of allergy?

blood incompatibility, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, myasthenia gravis, graves disease

A

type II

131
Q

what type of allergy?

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), hepatitis B, bacterial endocarditis, rheumatoid arthritis

A

type III

132
Q

what type of allergy?

graft vs host disease, contact dermatitis, poison ivy, diabetes, guillain-barre, MS, ulcerative colitis, crohn’s disease

A

type IV

133
Q

what is autoimmunity?

A

loss of tolerance for one’s own cells - attack cells

antibodies and t-cells can sometimes cross-react and attack cells that have markers that may resemble the epitope of the foreign antigen

can involve one specific organ or tissues of many parts of the body

correspond to type II, III, or IV hypersensitivity

134
Q

examples of autoimmune diseases

A 
addison disease, adrenal gland 
crowns disease, intestines 
DM, pancreas
polymyositis, muscle cells 
thyroiditis, thyroid 
ulcerative colitis, colon 
ankylosing spondylitis, spine 
MS, myelin
Myasthenia gravis, nerve/muscle synapse 
reiter's syndrome, ligaments and tendons 
RA, connective tissue 
sjogren's syndrome, glands 
SLE, skin, joints, organs, CNS

Pathophysiology 1 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions