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Science of Nursing > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What Is Confidential information?

A
  • All information about patients written on paper, spoken aloud, saved on computer
  • Name, address, phone, fax, social security
  • Reason the person is sick
  • Treatments patient receives
  • Information about past health conditions
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2
Q

Chart only things ___ do

A

you

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3
Q

Do Not Chart

A
  • Administrative problems like “short of staff” etc.
  • Equipment problems (“glucometer display hard to read”)
  • Judgmental words “has an abrasive voice” “obnoxious and manipulative”
  • Meaningless expressions like “pt had a good night” use specific examples.
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4
Q

Institute of Medicine (2004) indicates that ___ deaths occur each year to hospitalized patients that are not attributed to the disease process but due to health care errors.

A

98,000

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5
Q

What is SBAR?

A
  • S = Situation
  • B = Background
  • A = Assessment
  • R = Recommendation
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6
Q

Acronym for documentation: FACT

A
  • F - factual
  • A - accurate
  • C - complete
  • T - timely
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7
Q

SOAP: for problem-oriented medical records

A
  • subjective
  • objective
  • assessment
  • plan
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8
Q

PIE charting:

A
  • Problem, Intervention, Evaluation are planned and charted
  • You state the problem, you do an intervention, and then evaluate
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9
Q

Focus charting:

A
  • brings care back to patient, incorporates many aspects of patient care
  • Three columns are usually used in Focus Charting for documentation:
    • Date and Hour
    • Focus
    • Progress Notes
      • The progress notes are organized into:
        • (D) data, (A) action, and (R) response, referred to as DAR (third column).
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10
Q

With regards to patient teaching: essential component of the process that needs to be documented is ___

A

TEACHBACK - returned demonstration, verbalized understanding

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11
Q

majority of patient errors occur because of

A

ineffective communication between providers or shift change, or transitions of care

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12
Q

Working with interdisciplinary teams, communication needs to be ____, NOT aggressive

A

assertive

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13
Q

Non-verbal Communication (5)

A
  1. Facial Expressions
  2. Posture and gait
  3. Personal appearance
  4. Gestures
  5. Touch
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14
Q

Verbal communication

A
  • Vocabulary
  • Pace
  • Tone of voice
  • Timing
  • Humor
  • Be credible
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15
Q

Using silence allows the client to

A

take control of the discussion, if he or she so desires.

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16
Q

“Accepting” as a Therapeutic Communication Technique, conveys

A

positive regard

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17
Q

Giving broad openings allows the client to

A

select the topic

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18
Q

Offering general leads encourages the client to

A

continue speaking

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19
Q

Restating lets the patient know

A

whether an expressed statement has been understood or not

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20
Q

Reflecting questions or feelings are referred back to the pt so they may

A

be recognized

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21
Q

Requesting an explanation is a non-therapeutic communication technique because asking “Why?” implies that

A

the client must defend his or her behavior or feelings

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22
Q

The _________ is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidneys.

A

nephron

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23
Q

Nocturnal ___________, known as nighttime bedwetting, usually subsides by 6 years of age.

A

enuresis

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24
Q

Incontinence that results from weakness of the pelvic floor muscles can be treated by teaching the patient to perform ___________ exercises.

A

Kegel

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25
Q

A urinary _________ involves the surgical creation of an alternative route for excretion of urine.

A

diversion

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26
Q

The specific __________ of urine is a measure of the density of urine compared with the density of water.

A

gravity

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27
Q

A nurse documents that a patient has anuria when the 24-hour urine output is less than 400 mL. True or False?

A

False - that’s oliguria

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28
Q

Nephrons remove the

A

end products of metabolism – urea, uric acid, creatinine from the blood and regulate fluid balance through the mechanism of reabsorptions and secretion of water and electrolytes

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29
Q

What is the function of the nephrons?

A
  • Remove end products of metabolism
  • Regulate fluid balance
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30
Q

Kidneys and Ureters maintain composition and volume of body fluids by _____

A

Filter and excrete blood constituents not needed and retain those that are

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31
Q

The urinary bladder is composed of three layers of muscle tissue called

A

detrusor muscle

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32
Q

The sphincter guards opening between the

A

urinary bladder and urethra

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33
Q

Urethra conveys urine from

A

bladder to exterior of body

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34
Q

The Formation of Urine (5 steps)

A
  1. Urine is made in the kidneys
  2. Urine is stored in the bladder
  3. The sphincter muscles relax
  4. The bladder muscle (detrusor) contracts
  5. The bladder is emptied through the urethra and urine is removed from the body.
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35
Q

Specific Gravity should be between

A

1.015 – 1.025

hi=dehydration,

low=over hydration

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36
Q

pH of urine should be between

A

4.6 – 8.0 ~6

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37
Q

Organic constituents of urine

A

urea, uric acid, creatinine, nitrogen

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38
Q

Inorganic constituents of urine

A

ammonia, sodium chloride, traces of iron

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39
Q

Normal volume urinary output in 24hrs

A

1,200-1,500 ml in 24hours

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40
Q

adult kidney continuously produces urine at the rate of

A

50 – 120ml/hr

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41
Q

What is the normal volume of urine output in 24hrs?

A

1.2 – 1.5 liters

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42
Q

Anuria

A
  • failure of the kidneys to produce urine.
  • less than 50 milliliters of urine in a day
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43
Q

Oliguria

A
  • the production of abnormally small amounts of urine.
  • urine output that is less than 1 mL/kg/h in infants, less than 0.5 mL/kg/h in children, and less than 400 mL daily in adults
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44
Q

Glycosuria

A

sugar in the urine

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45
Q

Dysuria

A

painful or difficult urination

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46
Q

Nocturia

A

awakening at night to urinate.

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47
Q

Polyuria

A

excessive urine output.

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48
Q

Incontinence

A

involuntary loss of urine

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49
Q

Proteinuria

A

the presence of abnormal quantities of protein in the urine, which may indicate damage to the kidneys.

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50
Q

Pyuria

A

pus

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51
Q

Stress incontinence

A

involuntary loss of urine when coughing etc

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52
Q

Which term describes a condition in which 24-hour urine output is less than 50 mL?

A. Dysuria

B. Glycosuria

C. Pyuria

D. Anuria

A

D

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53
Q

Color variations in urine

A
  • Anticoagulants: red urine
  • Diuretics: pale yellow urine
  • Pyridium: orange to orange-red urine
  • Elavil: green or blue-green urine
  • Levodopa: brown or black urine
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54
Q

Your patient’s urine is blue-green in color. What action may you the nursing student take to determine the cause?

A
  • Review the patient’s current medications
  • Because you know that Elavil causes the urine to become blue-green.
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55
Q

Transient urinary incontinence:

A

appears suddenly and lasts 6 months or less

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56
Q

Mixed urinary incontinence:

A

urine loss with features of two or more types of incontinence

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57
Q

Overflow urinary incontinence:

A

over distention and overflow of bladder

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58
Q

Functional urinary incontinence:

A

caused by factors outside the urinary tract

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59
Q

Reflex urinary incontinence:

A

emptying of the bladder without sensation of need to void

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60
Q

Total urinary incontinence:

A

continuous, unpredictable loss of urine

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61
Q

Interventions for Age-Related Incontinence

A
  • Fluid intake should be 1,500 -2,000ml daily
  • Avoid or limit caffeine, alcohol, sweeteners
  • Ensure safe and easy access to bathroom
  • Use assistive devices- raised toilet seat, grab bars, bedside commode, urinal
  • Remove throw rugs in bed and bathroom
  • Wear non slip footwear
  • Practice Kegel exercises several times per day
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62
Q

Urinary tract infections are the leading cause of

A

morbidity and healthcare expenditure in persons of all ages.

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63
Q

____ bladder is not palpable.

A

empty

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64
Q

Why to use Catheterization: Indwelling/Straight

A
  • Emptying bladder before, during, or after surgery
  • Monitoring critically ill patients
  • Increasing comfort for terminally ill patients
  • Relieving urinary retention
  • Obtaining a sterile urine specimen
  • Obtaining a urine specimen when usual methods can’t be used
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65
Q

Managing Chronic Renal Failure (3)

A
  1. Hemodialysis
  2. Peritoneal Dialysis
  3. Renal Transplant
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66
Q

A-V Fistula is an abnormal connection or passageway between

A

an artery and a vein.

It may be congenital, surgically created for hemodialysis treatments, or acquired due to pathologic process, such as trauma or erosion of an arterial aneurysm

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67
Q

Rights of medication administration

A
  • Right medication
  • Right patient
  • Right dosage
  • Right route
  • Right time
  • Right reason
  • Right assessment data
  • Right documentation
  • Right response
  • Right to education
  • Right to refuse
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68
Q

Chemical name identifies

A

drug’s atomic and molecular structure

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69
Q

Trade name is

A

brand name copyrighted by the company that sells the drug

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70
Q

Generic name is

A

assigned by the manufacturer that first develops the drug

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71
Q

official name is

A

name by which the drug is identified in official publications USP and NF

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72
Q

1 milligram (mg) = ___ micrograms (mcg)

A

1000

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73
Q

Reconstitution

A

adding a specific amount of diluent to the vial to change a power to a liquid


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74
Q

Six Steps of dimensional analysis

A
  1. What is ordered?
  2. What is the question asking?
  3. What do you have on hand?
  4. Establish the unit path or conversion factors needed
  5. Set up the problem to allow for cancellation of unwanted units
  6. Multiply the numerators, multiply the denominators, and divide the numerator by the denominator.
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75
Q

1 gram (g) = ____ milligrams (mg)

A

1000

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76
Q

1 kilogram (kg) = ____ grams (g)

A

1000

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77
Q

1 kilogram (kg) = ____ pounds (lbs)

A

2.2

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78
Q

1 milliliter (mL) = ____ cc

A

1

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79
Q

1 liter (l) = ____ milliliters (mL)

A

1000

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80
Q

rounding up heuristics for dosage

A

.5 and above = round up .4 and below = round down

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81
Q

1 liter (l) = ___ quart or ___ ounces (oz)

A

1 quart or 32 ounces

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82
Q

1 teaspoon (tsp) = ___ milliliters (mL)

A

5

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83
Q

3 teaspoons (tsp) = ___ tablespoons (tblsp or tbsp)

A

1

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84
Q

1 tablespoon (tbsp) = ___ milliliters (mL)

A

15

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85
Q

1 ounce (oz) = ___ milliliters (mL)

A

30

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86
Q

1 grain (gr) = ___ milligrams (mg)

A

65

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87
Q

in 3 factor med dose problems, the numerator is

A

dosage of the medication

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88
Q

in 3 factor med dose problems, the denominator is

A

weight of the patient AND time required to administer the medication

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89
Q

1000 mcg = __ mg

A

1

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90
Q

1000 mg = ___ g

A

1

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91
Q

1000 grams = ___ kg

A

1

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92
Q

2.2 pounds = __ kg

A

1

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93
Q

1 cc = ___ mL

A

1

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94
Q

1000 mL = __ L

A

1

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95
Q

1 quart or 32 oz = ___ L

A

1

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96
Q

5 mL = ___ tsp

A

1

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97
Q

1 tbsp = ___ tsp

A

3

98
Q

15 mL = ___ tbsp

A

1

99
Q

30 mL = ___ oz

A

1

100
Q

65 mg = ___gr

A

1

101
Q

Chemical name of a drug identifies

A

drug’s atomic and molecular structure

102
Q

Trade name of a drug is the

A

brand name copyrighted by the company that sells the drug

103
Q

Generic name of a drug is

A

assigned by the manufacturer that first develops the drug

104
Q

Official name of a drug is

A

name by which the drug is identified in official publications USP and NF

105
Q

The prescriber conveys medication plans to others by an order called a prescription. After the pharmacist prepares the medication, the nurse

A

administers the medication to the patient.

106
Q

If an error is made when the order is written, the ___ or ____ administering the medication has the opportunity to note the discrepancy

A

pharmacist ; nurse

107
Q

Types of orally administered medications

A
  • Capsule
  • pill
  • tablet
  • extended release
  • elixir
  • suspension
  • syrup
108
Q

Types of topically administered medications

A
  • Liniment
  • lotion
  • ointment
  • suppository
  • transdermal patch
109
Q

3 top methods of administration

A
  1. oral
  2. topical
  3. injectable
110
Q

What are the first and second identifiers for checking the identity of a patient?

A
  • First: Validating the patient’s name
  • Second: Validating the patient’s identification number, medical record number, and/or birth date
111
Q

6 factors affecting drug absorption

A
  1. Route of administration
  2. Lipid solubility
  3. pH
  4. Blood flow
  5. Local conditions at site of administration
  6. Drug dosage
112
Q

teratogenic

A

developmental considerations - means it may be passed from mother to fetus and cause a birth defect

113
Q

Therapeutic range

A

the concentration of a drug within the blood stream that does not produce toxicity

114
Q

Peak level

A

highest concentration of a drug within the plasma when absorption is complete

115
Q

Trough level

A

when the drug is at its lowest concentration

116
Q

Adverse drug effect

A

undesirable effect other than the intended therapeutic effect. i.e. constipation 2/2 morphine use

117
Q

Allergic effect

A

an immune system response that occurs when the body interprets the administered medication as a foreign substance and forms antibodies against the drug

118
Q

Idiosyncratic effect

A

Also known as paradoxical effect is any unusual or peculiar response to a drug that may manifest itself by over response, under response, or even opposite of the expected response.

119
Q

PRN order

A

as needed

120
Q

Stat order

A

carried out immediately

121
Q

Standing order (routine order)

A

carried out until cancelled by another order

122
Q

Antagonist effect of drug interactions (example)

A
  • A drug-drug interaction is one that the combined effect of the two drugs is less than the effect of the one drug alone.
  • Example: tetracycline and calcium supplements or calcium products. (calcium chelates)
123
Q

Synergistic effect (example)

A
  • A drug-drug interaction that the combined effect of the two drugs are greater than that of the two drugs alone.
  • Example: alcohol and barbiturates when taken together have a unbeneficial synergistic effect for increased nervous system depression
124
Q

True or false: Only pain medications may be give to patients without a medication order from a licensed practitioner.

A

False

125
Q

PRN

A

Pro Re Nata- : as the circumstances arises. More commonly “as needed”

126
Q

PR

A

per rectum

127
Q

NPO

A

Nil Per Os: nothing through the mouth

128
Q

Medication Types

A
  • Oral (PO tablets, capsules, liquid)
  • Enteral- NGT/PEG (liquids, check crushability of meds, warm oil based liquids.)
  • Intramuscular (IM), Subcutaneous (SQ), Intradermal (skin prep, location, rotation)
129
Q

Oral administration of meds means that they are intended for absorption in the

A

stomach and small intestine

130
Q

Why would oral meds be contraindicated?

A

ex. NPO, difficulty swallowing, patient is comatose, actively vomiting, trach

131
Q

Hard-coated pills don’t release until

A

after they pass through the stomach — going to have some type of substance that may irritate the stomach muscoa

132
Q

Buccal administration

A

placing drug between tongue and cheek

133
Q

Enteral route

A
  • involves the esophagus, stomach, and small and large intestines (i.e., the gastrointestinal tract).
  • Methods of administration include oral, sublingual (dissolving the drug under the tongue), and rectal
  • Parenteral routes do not involve the gastrointestinal tract.
134
Q

Medications via tube

A
  • stop feeding
  • bring patient’s head up to semi-fowler’s
  • insert medication premixed with 15-30mL water
  • then insert more water through after administration
  • if multiple medications, flush every time, document Ins and Outs is very important
  • After you give medication, you don’t want to connect them to suction or feeding for about 30 min so that medication is absorbed
  • ALWAYS remember to go back and turn on the feeding
135
Q

Parenteral means

A
  • “Outside of intestines or alimentary canal”
  • Ex:
  • Intradermal injection- administered into dermis
  • Subcutaneous injection—administered into adipose tissue
  • Intramuscular injection—administered through skin and subcutaneous tissue into certain muscles
136
Q

Luer lock on the syringe is

A

a screw connection on a syringe that creates a leak-free seal

137
Q

Always want to have the Bevel ___ when giving medications

A

UP

138
Q

SQ (subcutaneous) needle and syringe size:

A

26-30G, 3/8inch-1 inch needle, 1-3mL syringe

139
Q

IM (intramuscular) needle and syringe size:

A

20-25G, 1-3 inch needle, 3-5mL syringe

140
Q

Longer needle required for IM injection than for

A

intradermal or SQ injection

141
Q

Large-lumen needle required for

A

higher viscous drugs

142
Q

Larger amount of medication requires greater capacity of

A

syringe

143
Q

Ampule

A
  • usually glass, contains a single dose of medication
  • to access it you have to break it
  • would typically use a filter needle to obtain the medication from the ampule itself
  • then would switch needle and put in one that you would use to administer it to a patient
144
Q

Vial

A
  • must be cleaned with an alcohol swab every time after using and before (if it has multiple doses) - must be labeled with date and time that you used it
  • you can mix multiple medications into a syringe at a time, this comes into play with Insulin
145
Q

Intramuscular injection angles:

A

72, 90

146
Q

subcutaneous injection angles:

A

90, 45

147
Q

Intradermal injection angles:

A

5-15 degrees

148
Q

vaccines are an example of when the deposit of medication creates a depot that’s designed to be delivered over

A

days, weeks, months

149
Q

Examples of Intramuscular injections

A

vaccines, hormones and antibiotics

150
Q

Volume of medication varies with injection site. Generally

A

1-4mL

151
Q

Ventrogluteal site is recommended for

A

adults

152
Q

Vastus lateralis site is recommended for

A

infants, toddlers, and children

153
Q

Deltoid muscle site can take __ mL max

A

1 mL

154
Q

For the Deltoid injection site, use the ___ as your landmark

A

acronmium process

155
Q

For the Ventrogluteal injection site, put your left palm over the

A

greater trochanter and have tip of fingers touching over iliac spine

156
Q

Z-track Method of IM Injections is recommended for

A

all intramuscular injections

157
Q

Z-track method for IM injections: steps

A
  1. Fill syringe with medication
  2. Attach clean needle to syringe
  3. Pull skin down or to one side about 1 inch with non-dominant hand
  4. While holding position, insert needle and inject medication slowly
  5. Withdraw needle steadily and release displaced tissue
  6. DO NOT massage site
158
Q

Possible complications of IM injections

A
  • Abscesses
  • Cellulitis
  • Injury to blood vessels, bones, and nerves
  • Lingering pain
  • Tissue necrosis
  • Periostitis
159
Q

For intradermal injections, medication is administered into the

A

dermis just below the epidermis

160
Q

The intradermal route has the longest ____ of all parenteral routes

A

absorption time

161
Q

Sites used for intradermal injections

A

forearm, upper back, under scapula

162
Q

What size/gauge needle and syringe is for intradermal injections? what’s the normal dosage?

A

25-27 G, ¼-1/2 inch needle

normal dose: Small dosage, usually

163
Q

Examples of subcutaneous injections

A

Insulin, Heparin, Lovenox

164
Q

Process of Bowel Elimination (5 steps)

A
  1. Fecal material reaches rectum
  2. Stretch receptors initiate contraction of sigmoid colon/rectal muscles
  3. Internal anal sphincter relaxes
  4. Sensory impulses cause voluntary “bearing down”
  5. External sphincter relaxes
165
Q

Type I feces on the Bristol Stool Chart, separate hard lumps, indicates

A

Very constipated

166
Q

Type II feces on the Bristol Stool Chart, lumpy and sausage-like, indicates

A

Slightly constipated

167
Q

Type 3 feces on the Bristol Stool Chart, a sausage shape with cracks in the surface, indicates

A

Normal

168
Q

Type 4 feces on the Bristol Stool Chart, like a smooth soft sausage or snake, indicates

A

normal

169
Q

Type 5 feces on the Bristol Stool Chart, soft blobs with clear-cut edges, indicates

A

Lacking fibre

170
Q

Type 6 feces on the Bristol Stool Chart, mushy consistency with ragged edges, indicates

A

inflammation

171
Q

Type 7 feces on the Bristol Stool Chart, liquid consistency with no solid pieces, indicates

A

inflammation

172
Q

Direct visualization diagnostic tests for bowel include (2)

A
  1. Colonoscopy
  2. Sigmoidoscopy
173
Q

BRAT diet for managing Diarrhea

A

Bananas, rice, applesauce, toast

174
Q

Antidiarrheal medications are ___ recommended for acute diarrhea

A

not

175
Q

Fleet enemas

A

saline enema

176
Q

Ostomy is

A

surgery to create an opening (stoma) from an area inside the body to the outside

177
Q

The ____, with their larger lumina, are the most likely sites for perforation of the colon

A

cecum and ascending colon

178
Q

The RN takes responsibility and accountability for the provision of

A

nursing practice.

179
Q

The RN directs care and determines the appropriate utilization of any assistant involved in providing

A

direct patient care.

180
Q

The RN may delegate components of care but does not delegate the

A

nursing process itself

181
Q

The practice pervasive functions of assessment, planning, evaluation and nursing judgment cannot be

A

delegated

182
Q

Chief Nursing Officers are accountable for

A

establishing systems to assess, monitor, verify and communicate ongoing competence requirements in areas related to delegation.

183
Q

The RN uses critical thinking and professional judgment when following the Five Rights of Delegation, to be sure that the delegation or assignment is:

A
  1. The right task
  2. Under the right circumstances
  3. To the right person
  4. With the right directions and communication; and
  5. Under the right supervision and evaluation.
184
Q

4 Steps of Delegation:

A
  1. Assessment and Planning
  2. Communication
  3. Surveillance and Supervision
  4. Evaluation and Feedback
185
Q

Intravenous Route goes ____ and has an ____ effect. It’s most commonly used in ___

A

directly into the bloodstream; immediate; emergency situations

186
Q

Intravenous Bolus

A

a relatively large volume of fluid or dose of a drug or test substance given intravenously and rapidly to hasten or magnify a response

187
Q

With IV push or bolus, a syringe is connected to the ____ and the medication is injected ___

A

IV access device; directly (slowly, if it might irritate the vein or cause a too-rapid effect)

188
Q

PCA

A

Patient controlled anaesthesia

189
Q

minimum assessment of IV is

A

once every hour

190
Q

potassium can cause a ___ in an IV

A

really bad infiltrate

191
Q

phlebitis

A

inflammation of the vein

192
Q

Nebulizer is a way to deliver an

A

aerosolized medication

193
Q

Spacers

A
  • Also known as aerosol-holding chambers, add-on devices and spacing devices,
  • spacers are long tubes that slow the delivery of medication from pressurized MDIs.
194
Q

Examples of controlled substances

A

Heroin, Opium, Oxycontin, Oxycodone, Hydrocodone, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl

195
Q

urea, uric acid, creatinine, nitrogen

A

Organic constituents of urine

196
Q

ammonia, sodium chloride, traces of iron

A

Inorganic constituents of urine

197
Q
  • failure of the kidneys to produce urine.
  • less than 50 milliliters of urine in a day
A

Anuria

198
Q
  • the production of abnormally small amounts of urine.
  • urine output that is less than 1 mL/kg/h in infants, less than 0.5 mL/kg/h in children, and less than 400 mL daily in adults
A

Oliguria

199
Q

sugar in the urine

A

Glycosuria

200
Q

painful or difficult urination

A

Dysuria

201
Q

awakening at night to urinate.

A

Nocturia

202
Q

excessive urine output.

A

Polyuria

203
Q

involuntary loss of urine

A

Incontinence

204
Q

the presence of abnormal quantities of protein in the urine, which may indicate damage to the kidneys.

A

Proteinuria

205
Q

pus

A

Pyuria

206
Q

involuntary loss of urine when coughing etc

A

Stress incontinence

207
Q

appears suddenly and lasts 6 months or less

A

Transient urinary incontinence:

208
Q

urine loss with features of two or more types of incontinence

A

Mixed urinary incontinence:

209
Q

over distention and overflow of bladder

A

Overflow urinary incontinence:

210
Q

caused by factors outside the urinary tract

A

Functional urinary incontinence:

211
Q

emptying of the bladder without sensation of need to void

A

Reflex urinary incontinence:

212
Q

continuous, unpredictable loss of urine

A

Total urinary incontinence:

213
Q

an artery and a vein.

It may be congenital, surgically created for hemodialysis treatments, or acquired due to pathologic process, such as trauma or erosion of an arterial aneurysm

A

A-V Fistula is an abnormal connection or passageway between

214
Q

drug’s atomic and molecular structure

A

Chemical name of a drug identifies

215
Q

brand name copyrighted by the company that sells the drug

A

Trade name of a drug is the

216
Q

assigned by the manufacturer that first develops the drug

A

Generic name of a drug is

217
Q

name by which the drug is identified in official publications USP and NF

A

Official name of a drug is

218
Q

the concentration of a drug within the blood stream that does not produce toxicity

A

Therapeutic range

219
Q

highest concentration of a drug within the plasma when absorption is complete

A

Peak level

220
Q
  • A drug-drug interaction is one that the combined effect of the two drugs is less than the effect of the one drug alone.
  • Example: tetracycline and calcium supplements or calcium products. (calcium chelates)
A

Antagonist effect of drug interactions (example)

221
Q
  • A drug-drug interaction that the combined effect of the two drugs are greater than that of the two drugs alone.
  • Example: alcohol and barbiturates when taken together have a unbeneficial synergistic effect for increased nervous system depression
A

Synergistic effect (example)

222
Q

Pro Re Nata- : as the circumstances arises. More commonly “as needed”

A

PRN

223
Q

per rectum

A

PR

224
Q

Nil Per Os: nothing through the mouth

A

NPO

225
Q
  • usually glass, contains a single dose of medication
  • to access it you have to break it
  • would typically use a filter needle to obtain the medication from the ampule itself
  • then would switch needle and put in one that you would use to administer it to a patient
A

Ampule

226
Q
  • must be cleaned with an alcohol swab every time after using and before (if it has multiple doses) - must be labeled with date and time that you used it
  • you can mix multiple medications into a syringe at a time, this comes into play with Insulin
A

Vial

227
Q

72, 90

A

Intramuscular injection angles:

228
Q

90, 45

A

subcutaneous injection angles:

229
Q

5-15 degrees

A

Intradermal injection angles:

230
Q

25-27 G, ¼-1/2 inch needle

normal dose: Small dosage, usually

A

What size/gauge needle and syringe is for intradermal injections? what’s the normal dosage?

231
Q

Insulin, Heparin, Lovenox

A

Examples of subcutaneous injections

232
Q

Bananas, rice, applesauce, toast

A

BRAT diet for managing Diarrhea

233
Q

saline enema

A

Fleet enemas

234
Q

surgery to create an opening (stoma) from an area inside the body to the outside

A

Ostomy is

235
Q
  1. Assessment and Planning
  2. Communication
  3. Surveillance and Supervision
  4. Evaluation and Feedback
A

4 Steps of Delegation:

236
Q

a relatively large volume of fluid or dose of a drug or test substance given intravenously and rapidly to hasten or magnify a response

A

Intravenous Bolus

237
Q

IV access device; directly (slowly, if it might irritate the vein or cause a too-rapid effect)

A

With IV push or bolus, a syringe is connected to the ____ and the medication is injected ___

238
Q

Patient controlled anaesthesia

A

PCA

239
Q

inflammation of the vein

A

phlebitis

240
Q

aerosolized medication

A

Nebulizer is a way to deliver an

241
Q
  • Also known as aerosol-holding chambers, add-on devices and spacing devices,
  • spacers are long tubes that slow the delivery of medication from pressurized MDIs.
A

Spacers

242
Q

Heroin, Opium, Oxycontin, Oxycodone, Hydrocodone, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl

A

Examples of controlled substances

Science of Nursing (2 decks)

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