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Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

basic emotion (shared by all animals) that involves the fight or flight response of ANS

A

fear

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2
Q

complex blend of unpleasant emotion and cognitions that is more oriented to the future and more diffuse than fear

A

anxiety

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3
Q

_______ and ________ conditioning play a role in developing anxiety disorders (life experiences)

A

classical and operant

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4
Q

fear response in absence of actual threats

A

panic attack

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5
Q

Anxiety can be ________ - a problem occurs when it is excessive (hinders ability to function properly)

A

adaptive

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6
Q

What 3 criteria define an anxiety disorder?

A
  1. out of proportion to dangers truly faced
  2. severe enough to cause distress and/or impairment
  3. fear response exists even when stimulus is not present
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7
Q

characterized by strongly persistent fear triggered by a specific object or situation plus avoidance of the object/situation

A

specific phobia

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8
Q

What is the core fear in a specific phobia?

A

situation/object

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9
Q

What kind of conditioning maintains a phobia?

A

operant conditioning

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10
Q

What are the 5 subtypes of specific phobias?

A
  1. animal
  2. natural disaster
  3. blood-injection-injury
  4. situational
  5. other
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11
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of specific phobias?

A

~12%

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12
Q

What is the overall gender ratio for specific phobias? What is the gender ratio for animal specific phobias? What about blood-injection-injury specific phobias?

A

Overall: varies
Animal: 90-90% women
BII: Less than 2:1 female to male

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13
Q

What is the comorbidity of specific phobias?

A

75% have at least one other specific phobia

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14
Q

What is the overall age of onset for specific phobias? What is the average age of onset for animal phobias? Other phobia categories?

A

Overall: varies
Animal: early childhood
Others: adolescence/early adulthood

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15
Q

What are the 4 (psychological) behaviorism causal factors of specific phobias?

A
  1. classical conditioning
  2. observational learning
  3. individual differences in life experiences
  4. operant conditioning
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16
Q

What are the 2 psychological causal factors of specific phobias?

A
  1. behaviorism (learning)

2. evolutionary preparedness

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17
Q

What are the 2 biological causal factors of specific phobias?

A
  1. temperment/personality

2. genetic contribution (modest)

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18
Q

What are the 5 different treatment options for specific phobias?

A
  1. cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
  2. gradual exposure
  3. flooding
  4. SUDs (subjective units of distress)
  5. Medications
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19
Q

What are the 2 processes involved in CBT for specific phobias?

A
  1. exposure therapy (behavioral technique)

2. cognitive restructuring (cognitive technique)

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20
Q

What are the 2 commonly used meds for treating specific phobias?

A
  1. Anti-anxiety meds (not very effective)

2. D-cycloserine (added to exposure therapy)

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21
Q

characterized by disabling fears of specific social situations (affects social interactions)

A

social anxiety disorder (social phobia)

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22
Q

What is the only subtype of social anxiety disorder?

A

performance only

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23
Q

What is the core fear for social anxiety disorder?

A

negative evaluation

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24
Q

What treatment is especially helpful for social anxiety disorder?

A

group therapy

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25
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of social anxiety disorder?

A

~12%

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26
Q

What is the gender ratio for social anxiety disorder?

A

3:1 to 2:1, female to male

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27
Q 
Comorbidity of social anxiety disorder:
\_\_\_\_\_\_% have another anxiety disorder
\_\_\_\_\_\_% have depression
\_\_\_\_\_\_% abuse alcohol
Higher rates of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, lower \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

> 50
~50%
~33%
unemployment; SES

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28
Q

What is the age of onset for social anxiety disorder?

A

mid to late adolescence, early adulthood

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29
Q

What are the 3 psychological causal factors of social anxiety disorder?

A
  1. behaviorism
  2. cognitive biases
  3. perceptions of uncontrollability/unpredictability
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30
Q

What are the 2 biological causal factors of social anxiety disorder?

A
  1. temperment/personality (timid/shy)

2. genetic contribution (some)

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31
Q

What are the 2 common treatments for social anxiety disorder?

A

CBT and medications

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32
Q

what are the two processes involved in CBT for social anxiety disorder?

A

exposure therapy

cognitive restructuring

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33
Q

What are the 2 common meds used in treatment for social anxiety disorder?

A

antidepressants and D-cycloserine (paired with CBT)

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34
Q

characterized by recurrent panic attacks that come out of the blue and fears about having additional panic attacks

A

panic disorder

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35
Q

What is the core fear of panic disorder?

A

fear itself (fear of fear)

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36
Q

characterized by fear of situations in which escape might be difficult if you have a panic attack (or other embarrassing symptoms)

A

agoraphobia

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37
Q

discrete period of intense fear in which 4 of 10 symptoms develop abruptly and peak within 10 minutes

A

panic attack

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38
Q

characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and at least one month of persistent concern about additional panic attacks, worry about implications of attacks, and/or significant change of behavior

A

panic disorder

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39
Q

What is the typical timing of a person’s first panic attack?

A

frequently follows feelings of stress or highly stressful life circumstances

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40
Q

characterized by anxiety about being in precesses where escape may be difficult/embarrassing or where help may not be available if a panic attack (or other situation) occurs; situations are avoided word endured with distress of having a panic attack

A

agoraphobia

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41
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of panic disorder?

A

4.7%

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42
Q

What is the gender ratio of panic disorder?

A

2:1 female to male

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43
Q

What is the comorbidity of panic disorder?

A

83% will experience at least one other disorder; other anxiety disorders or 50-70% experience major depression

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44
Q

What is the age of onset for panic disorder?

A

early adulthood

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45
Q

What is the course of panic disorder?

A

chronic, often disabling, symptoms wax and wane

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46
Q

What are the 3 biological causal factors of panic disorder?

A
  1. genetic influence (moderate)
  2. increased activity in amygdala
  3. biochemical abnormalities (dysfunction in noradrenergic and seratonergic activity)
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47
Q

What are the 6 psychological causal factors of panic disorder?

A
  1. comprehensive theory of learning (interoceptive/exteroceptive conditioning)
  2. cognitive theory
  3. anxiety sensitivity
  4. perceived control
  5. safety behaviors
  6. cognitive biases that maintain
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48
Q

What are the 2 common treatment methods for panic disorder?

A
  1. medications

2. CBT (panic control treatment)

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49
Q

What are the 2 common meds used to treat panic disorder?

A
  1. benxodiazepines (Xanex, Klonopin)

2. antidepressants (Tricyclics, SSRIs)

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50
Q

characterized by excessive and unreasonable anxiety or worry about many different aspects

A

generalized anxiety disorder

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51
Q

What is the core fear for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

everything (characterized by worry)

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52
Q

What is the lifetime and one year prevalence rate for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

1 year: 3%

Lifetime: 5.7%

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53
Q

What is the gender difference for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

2:1 female to male

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54
Q

What is the age of onset for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

varies

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55
Q

What is the comorbidity of generalized anxiety disorder?

A

often occurs with other mood/anxiety disorders

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56
Q

What is the course for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

tends to be chronic

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57
Q

What are the 4 psychological causal factors of generalized anxiety disorder?

A
  1. perceptions of uncontrollability/unpredictibility
  2. role of worry
  3. worry makes negative experience better
  4. cognitive biases for threat
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58
Q

What are the 2 biological causal factors of generalized anxiety disorder?

A
  1. genetics (some heritability, predisposition with depression)
  2. neurotransmitter and neuro-hormonal abnormalities
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59
Q

What are the 2 treatments for generalized anxiety disorder?

A
  1. medications

2. CBT

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60
Q

What 2 medications are used for generalized anxiety disorder?

A
  1. benzodiaxepines

2. antidepressants

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61
Q

What are the 2 components of CBT for generalized anxiety disorder?

A
  1. muscle relaxation (meditation)

2. cognitive restructuring

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62
Q

characterized by unwanted intrusive obsessive thoughts or distressing images; often accompanied by compulsive behaviors to cope with thoughts

A

obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)

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63
Q

recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are intrusive/inappropriate and cause marked anxiety or distress

A

obsessions

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64
Q

repetitive behaviors or mental acts the individual feels driven to perform, usually in response to an obsession; aimed at preventing or reducing distress or some dreaded event or situation

A

compulsions

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65
Q

What is the one year and lifetime prevalence of OCD?

A

1 year: 1%

Lifetime: 2%

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66
Q

What is the gender difference for OCD?

A

1.4 to 1 female to male

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67
Q

What is the age of onset for OCD?

A

late adolescence, early adulthood

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68
Q

What is the course of OCD?

A

gradual onset, chronic, symptom severity waxes and wanes

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69
Q

What is the comorbidity of OCD?

A

frequently co-occurs with mood/anxiety disorders; higher rates of unemployment and divorce

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70
Q

What are the 2 psychological causal factors of OCD?

A
  1. learning (Mowrer’s 2 process theory of avoidance learning)
  2. cognitive factors
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71
Q

What are the 3 cognitive factors of OCD?

A
  1. thought suppression
  2. appraisals of responsibility for intrusive thoughts
  3. cognitive biases/distortions
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72
Q

What are the 2 biological causal factors of OCD?

A
  1. genetic

2. brain and neurotransmitter abnormalities

73
Q

What are the 2 brain and neurotransmitter abnormalities of OCD?

A
  1. cortico-basal-ganglionic-thalamic circuit (orbitofrontal cortex out of wack)
  2. serotonin
74
Q

What are the 2 treatments for OCD?

A
  1. behavioral and cognitive behavioral therapy

2. medication

75
Q

What are the 2 components of behavioral and cognitive behavioral therapy for OCD?

A
  1. exposure

2. response prevention

76
Q

What kind of medication is used for treatment of OCD?

A

meds that affect SSRIs

77
Q

characterized by obsessions about perceived/imagined flaws in one’s appearance to the point one firmly believes one is disfigured or ugly; usually focused on one particular body area

A

body dismorphic disorder

78
Q

What are the most common body areas focused on for people with body dismorphic disorder?

A
  1. Hair
  2. Nose
  3. Skin
79
Q

What is the prevalence of body dimorphic disorder?

A

1-2% of general population

80
Q

What is the gender ratio for body dismorphic disorder?

A

men = women

81
Q

What is the age of onset for body dismorphic disorder?

A

usually adolescence

82
Q

What is the comorbidity of body dismorphic disorder?

A

depression (50%), suicidal behavior, eating disorders, OCD, psychosis (delusions)

83
Q

What are the 3 causal factors of body dismorphic disorder?

A
  1. personality (neuroticism)
  2. difference in visual processing of faces (detail)
  3. sociocultural context
  4. cognitive style
84
Q

What are the 2 treatments for body dismorphic disorder?

A
  1. antidepressants (SSRIs)

2. CBT (focus on distorted perceptions)

85
Q

What are the 2 components of CBT for body dismorphic disorder?

A
  1. exposure

2. response prevention

86
Q

How long does the normal grieving process last?

A

2-6 months

87
Q

At what point do DSM 4 and DSM 5 diagnose someone with depression in relation to the grieving process?

A

DSM 4: no diagnosis within the first 2 months

DSM 5: allows depression diagnosis even within first 2 months if criteria are met

88
Q

Is giving birth a risk factor for major depression?

89
Q

Is postpartum blues a positive or negative stressor?

90
Q

What are the 4 symptoms of postpartum blues?

A
  1. emotional lability
  2. crying easily
  3. irritability
  4. intermixed happiness
91
Q

50-70% of mothers with postpartum blues experience symptoms within _____ days of giving birth

92
Q

What are the 2 types of moods in mood disorders?

A

mania and depression

93
Q

extreme sadness/gloominess

A

depressive episodes

94
Q

intense/unrealistic feelings of euphoria

A

manic/hypomanic episodes

95
Q

disorder in which the person experiences only depressive episodes

A

unipolar depressive disorder

96
Q

disorder in which the person (usually) experiences both manic and depressive episodes

A

bipolar disorder

97
Q

characterized by a persistent down/depressed mood occurring often; intense and episodic

A

major depressive disorder (MDD)

98
Q

What are the 3 categories of symptoms for a major depressive episode (MDE)?

A
  1. emotional
  2. physiological/behavioral
  3. cognitive
99
Q

In order to be diagnosed with MDD, a person must have experienced at least ____ major depressive episode(s) that cause(s) clinically significant distress and impairment

100
Q

MDD characterized by one depressive episode and then a return to normal mood

A

single episode MDD

101
Q

MDD characterized by two or more MDEs

A

recurrent MDD

102
Q

How long does a typical MDE last?

A

6-9 months

103
Q

What is it called when someone with MDD goes more than two months without having a MDE?

A

remission of symptoms

104
Q

return of MDE symptoms within a short period of time (often happens when meds are discontinued early)

105
Q

new occurrence of MDD after remission (40-50% of MDD patients)

A

recurrence

106
Q

The likelihood of recurrence in MDD _____ with the number of MDEs.

107
Q

What are the 5 MDD specifiers?

A
  1. melancholic features
  2. psychotic features
  3. atypical features
  4. catatonic features
  5. seasonal pattern
108
Q

What is the 1 year and lifetime prevalence of MDD?

A

1 year: 7%

Lifetime: 17%

109
Q

What is the gender ratio of MDD?

A

2: 1 female to male in adolescence/adulthood
1: 1 male to female in childhood

110
Q

What is the age of onset for MDD?

A

late adolescence/early adulthood, sometimes childhood and sometimes later adulthood

111
Q

What is the comorbidity for MDD?

A

relationship with anxiety disorders, substance abuse, eating disorders, personality disorders

112
Q

characterized by chronicity; some have mild depressive mood, some meet criteria for MDD the whole time; intermittent normal moods appear briefly but never more than two months; never really reach normal mood, but may never reach severity of MDD

A

Persistant Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)

113
Q

In order to be diagnosed with Persistent Depressive Disorder, the symptoms must last for at least _______, or _____ in children

A

2 years; 1 year

114
Q

What are the 5 biological causal factors for unipolar mood disorders?

A
  1. genetics (seratonin-transporter gene)
  2. Neurochemical factors (monoamine theory of depression, dopamine)
  3. Hormonal abnormalities (HPA, HPT axis)
  4. neurophysiological factors (asymmetry in prefrontal cortex activity)
  5. biological rhythms (sleep, sunlight/seasons)
115
Q

may be related to anhedonia and low positive affect, responsible for pleasure sensation

116
Q

What is the HPA axis associated with in depressed patients?

A

increased cortisol levels; dexamethasone non-suppression

117
Q

What is the HPT axis associated with in depressed patients?

A

hyperthyroidism associated with depressive symptoms, disturbances associated with mood disorders

118
Q

The ______ prefrontal cortex is associated with positive emotions and approach motivation while the _____ prefrontal cortex is associated with negative emotions. In depressed patients, the _____ prefrontal cortex is larger than the ______ prefrontal cortex. This can be improved with treatment.

A

left; right; right; left

119
Q

MDD specifier associated with loss of interest in activities, loss of appetite, less sleep, excessive guilt

A

melancholic features

120
Q

MDD specifier associated with hallucinations and delusions only during a MDE

A

psychotic features

121
Q

MDD specifier associated with more sleep, increased appetite, sensitivity to rejection by others, coincides with social anxiety disorder

A

atypical features

122
Q

MDD specifier associated with psychomotor (bodily movement) and pronounced agitation/muscle rigidity

A

catatonic features

123
Q

MDD specifier associated with symptoms that happen with the seasons

A

seasonal pattern

124
Q

What two neurotransmitters are involved in the monoamine theory of depression?

A

norepinephrine and serotonin (not enough)

125
Q

People with depression typically experience more ____ sleep and less ___ sleep

126
Q

What are the 6 psychological causal factors of unipolar mood disorders?

A
  1. stressful life events
  2. personality
  3. Beck’s Cognitive Model
  4. helplessness theory
  5. Hopelessness theory
  6. Ruminative response styles theory
127
Q

stressful life events that have nothing to do with behavior and personality

A

independent life events

128
Q

stressful life events that are at least partially generated by behavior or personality

A

dependent life events

129
Q

______ life events have a stronger association with depression

130
Q

What personality and trait is associated with depression?

A

neuroticism; low positive affectivity (lack of positive mood)

131
Q

states that depressogenic schemas (dysfunctional beliefs) lead to negative automatic thoughts; negative cognitive triad (self, future, world) - automatic thoughts revolve around these

A

Beck’s Cognitive Model

132
Q

states that depressed people use internal, stable, and global attributions for everything that happens to them (pessimistic attributional style)

A

helplessness theory

133
Q

states that helplessness leads to hopelessness; perception that one has no control over what is going to happen and certainty that bad outcomes will occur (hopelessness expectancy)

A

hopelessness theory

134
Q

people with depression focus intensely on how they feel and why

A

ruminative response styles theory

135
Q

What are the 5 treatments for MDD?

A
  1. medication
  2. ECT
  3. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
  4. psychotherapy
  5. bright light therapy
136
Q

What 3 drugs are used to treat MDD?

A
  1. MAOIs (used for atypical depression)
  2. TCAs (high doses can lead to death)
  3. SSRIs (takes 3-4 weeks to take effect)
137
Q

What 3 psychotherapy techniques are used to treat someone with MDD?

A
  1. CBT
  2. Behavioral Activation (BA)
  3. Interpersonal Therapy (IT)
138
Q

elevated, expansive, irritable mood lasting at least one week with at least 3 of the 7 symptoms; causing clinically significant distress, impairment, hospitalization, and/or psychotic features

A

manic episode

139
Q

follows same criteria as manic episode except it lasts for at least 4 days and is noticeable by others, but not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning

A

hypomanic episode

140
Q

characterized by the presence or history of one or more manic episodes and clinically significant distress or impairment; history of MDE is not required but is usually present; back and forth in extremes of moods

A

Bipolar I Disorder

141
Q

characterized by the presence or history of one or more MDEs and one or more hypomanic episodes; no history of manic episode; clinically significant distress/impairment

A

Bipolar II Disorder

142
Q

characterized by numerous periods of hypomania symptoms and sub-clinical depressive symptoms for two years; no symptom-free periods of two months; no MDE or manic episodes; clinically significant distress/impairment

A

cyclothymic disorder

143
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of bipolar disorders?

144
Q

What is the gender ratio of bipolar disorder?

A

1:1 male to female

145
Q

What is the age of onset for bipolar disorder?

A

late adolescence/early adulthood (avg. 22)

146
Q

What is the course of bipolar disorder?

147
Q

What is the comorbidity of bipolar disorder?

A

substance abuse

148
Q

______ episodes are much shorter than _______ episodes

A

manic; depressive

149
Q

Depressive episodes of bipolar disorder are (more/less) severe than in unipolar depression.

150
Q

Depressive episodes in bipolar disorder are ______ than MDD, but there are a ______ number of episodes during the lifetime of the patient (rapid cycling)

A

shorter; greater

151
Q

What is the prognosis for bipolar disorder?

A

multiple episodes likely for recurrence

152
Q

What are the 4 biological causal factors for bipolar disorder?

A
  1. genetic factors (one of the most heritable disorders)
  2. neurochemical factors (elevated NE and dopamine during manic phases)
  3. Hormonal factors (elevated cortisol during depressive episodes, thyroid hormone can precipitate manic episodes)
  4. Biological rhythms (sleep pattern disruption can trigger manic episodes)
153
Q

What are the 4 psychological causal factors for bipolar disorder?

A
  1. stressful life events
  2. personality (neurotic and risk seeking)
  3. cognitive variables (pessimistic attributes)
  4. interpersonal processes important (dysfunctional family interactions linked to manic episodes)
154
Q

Prevalence rates of unipolar depression often _____ across countries. There is _____ variability in rates of bipolar disorder. Symptom expression differs across countries.

A

differ; less

155
Q

What are the 4 treatments for bipolar disorder?

A
  1. medications
  2. ECT
  3. CBT
  4. Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy (add on to meds)
156
Q

What are the 2 major medications given to patients with bipolar disorder?

A
  1. mood stabilizers (lithium, anticonvulsants)

2. antidepressants (SSRIs)

157
Q

thoughts about suicide without harming oneself (52 million each year)

A

suicide ideation

158
Q

non-fatal injury that is self-inflicted with some degree of intent to die (over 1 million each year)

A

suicide attempt

159
Q

self-inflicted death (over 40,000 each year; 13 in 100,000 people in US; for every 2 homicide deaths there are 3 suicide deaths; for every 1 AIDS/HIV death there are 2 suicide deaths)

160
Q

What is the gender ratio of suicide attempts? deaths?

A

attempts: 3:1 female to male
deaths: 4:1 male to female

161
Q

What age group has more likelihood of death by suicide? 16th leading cause of death; 1 suicide every 97 minutes; 4 attempts for every death

A

older adults (85+)

162
Q

age group with the highest suicide attempt rates; suicide is 3rd leading cause of death; 1 suicide every 131 minutes; 100-200 suicide attempts for every death

A

adolescents (teenagers)

163
Q

What are the 3 components of the interpersonal-psychological theory of suicide?

A
  1. thwarted belongingness
  2. perceived burdensomeness
  3. acquired capability
164
Q

loneliness and lack of reciprocal care

A

thwarted belongingness

165
Q

self-hate and liability on others

A

perceived burdensomeness

166
Q

high pain tolerance and fearlessness about death

A

acquired capability

167
Q

(men/women) have higher acquired capability

168
Q

____% of people that die by suicide were not seen by a mental health professional in the year before death

169
Q

What are the 2 general suicide prevention strategies?

A
  1. high risk

2. universal

170
Q

suicide prevention strategy focused on just the people who are already known to be at risk

171
Q

suicide prevention strategy focused on preventing the onset of the disease/condition in everyone

172
Q

Few if any forms of depression occur without _______

173
Q

GAD and MDD appear to share ________

A

genetic diathesis

174
Q

Anxiety more often than not ________ depression

175
Q

What are the 3 components of the Tripartite Model of Anxiety and Depression?

A
  1. high negative affect (neuroticism) (both anxiety and depression)
  2. low positive affect (unique to depression)
  3. physiological hyperarousal (unique to anxiety)
176
Q

Anxiety and depression share _________ but differ in ________

A

helplessness (uncontrollability)

hopelessness (negative outcome expectancy - only depression)

177
Q

oversensitivity to criticism, social distress, feelings of inferiority and rejection

A

high negative affect

178
Q

anhedonia, appetite disturbance, crying spells, loneliness, suicidal ideation

A

low positive affect

179
Q

tension, nervousness, shakiness, panic

A

physiological hyperarousal

Abnormal Psychology (2 decks)

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