Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

does short term or long term memory remain more stable in older adults?

A

short term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T or F, personality changes significantly as one ages

A

F, it does not change very much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the response to demand or pressure

A

stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

negative effects of stress

A

sleep problems
chronic/high anxiety levels
use of alcohol or drugs
jumpiness/unable to sit still
new onset HTN, tachycardia, tremors, or irregular HR
depression, chronic fatigue, lack of pleasure in life
chronic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

delusion

A

false belief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hallucination

A

false perceptions and sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what age group has the highest rate of suicide?

A

ages 65 and older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

major risk factor for suicide in older adults

A

depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

significant wt loss/gain, changes in sleep patterns, agitation/slowness, fatigue/loss of energy, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, inability to concentrate and make decisions, recurrent thoughts of suicide or death

A

symptoms of depression–if 4 are identified that last at least 2 weeks and the person has changes in relationships and daily function, then they are in a major depressive state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how long does delirium usually last?

A

about a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

epilepsy

A

2 or more unprovoked seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

status epilepticus

A

a seizure that lasts more than 10 mins or groups of seizures that occur in rapid succession and last a combined time of 30 mins–neuro emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chorea

A

involuntary twitching of the limbs or facial muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dystonia

A

involuntary muscle contractions forcing unusual or painful positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a chronic, progressive disease characterized by abnormal movements and extrapyramidal sxs

A

parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the only way to definitively diagnose alzheimer’s

A

autopsy after death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stages of dementia

A

stage 1: early-mild
stage 2: middle-moderate
stage 3: late-severe
terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cholinesterase inhibitors

A

block the enzymes that destroy acetylcholine in dementia pts
donepezil (aricept)
rivastigmine (exelon)
galantamine (reminyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

major side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors

A

GI disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NMDA antagonist

A

memantine (namenda), works on glutamate to improve fxn in dementia pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

memory, personality, spatial, and disorientation: what stage of AD?

A

stage 1: mild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

aphasia, apraxia, confusion, agitation, insomnia: what stage of AD?

A

stage 2: moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

resistiveness, incontinence, eating difficulties, motor impairment: what stage of AD?

A

stage 3: severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

bedfast, mute, dysphagia, intercurrent infections: what stage of AD?

A

terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recognize objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

anomia

A

problems naming objects or finding words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

apraxia

A

inability to carry out learned and purposeful movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

frontal lobe

A

language, motor fxn, judgment, problem solving, impulse control, reasoning, memory, executive fxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

executive function

A

ability to plan and think abstractly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

temporal lobe

A

language, memory, hearing, perception, recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

occipital lobe

A

visual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

parietal

A

sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

neurons

A

communicate messages through neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

neurotransmitters

A

acetylcholine, dopamine, serotonin, norepinepherine

35
Q

consists of cranial nerves, spinal nerves, autonomic nervous system, somatic nervous system, and reflex arc

A

peripheral nervous system

36
Q

consists of cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, diencephalon, cerebellum, brain stem, and spinal cord

A

central nervous system

37
Q

link between the brain through the spinal cord to the muscles and sensory receptors: responsible for movement and receiving messages

A

somatic nervous system

38
Q

maintains homeostasis within the body and is divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic: controls HR, BP, and more

A

autonomic nervous system

39
Q

acute renal failure

A

sudden onset, can be cured

40
Q

chronic renal failure

A

irreversible damage occurs over time

41
Q

is acute or chronic renal failure more common?

A

chronic

42
Q

risk factors for chronic renal failure

A

DM, benign prostatic hyperplasia, HTN, long term use of NSAIDs

43
Q

presence of bacteria in the urethra, bladder or kidney

A

UTI

44
Q

urinary frequency

A

more than 7 voids per 24 hr period

45
Q

stress incontinence

A

involuntary loss of urine when intra-abdominal pressure is increased (coughing, laughing)

46
Q

urge incontinence

A

internal sphincter weakness, muscles contract forcefully and unexpectedly

47
Q

overflow incontinence

A

bladder gets overfilled and stretched over time (dribbling, enlarged prostate)

48
Q

functional incontinence

A

physical reason causing one to be unable to get to the toilet in time

49
Q

4 types of incontinence

A

stress, urge, overflow, functional

50
Q

primary HTN

A

cause is unknown

51
Q

secondary HTN

A

cause can be determined

52
Q

symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

difficulty starting urination, weak stream, straining to urinate, longer time needed to urinate, feeling of incomplete bladder emptying

53
Q

most common GU malignancies

A

bladder cancer–4x more likely in men

prostate cancer

54
Q

biggest risk factor for bladder cancer

A

smoking

55
Q

which cancer is more common in younger women?

A

cervical cancer

56
Q

most common symptom of uterine cancer

A

bleeding after menopause

57
Q

painful intercourse

A

dyspareunia

58
Q

type I bone loss

A

menopausal bone loss (no period for at least 1 year), occurs first 5-10 years after menopause, rapid

59
Q

type II bone loss

A

senescent bone loss, slower phase, affects men and women after midlife

60
Q

sarcopenia

A

loss of muscle mass, strength, and function that occurs in a progressive manner

61
Q

metabolic bone diseases

A

osteoporosis, osteomalacia, paget’s disease

62
Q

bone disease most common in women of an increased age

A

osteoporosis

63
Q

low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue that leads to compromised bone strength–increased risk for fracture

A

osteoporosis

64
Q

metabolic disease in which there is inadequate mineralization of newly formed bone matrix–usually results from vitamin D deficiency

A

osteomalacia

65
Q

results from vit D deficiency

A

osteomalacia

66
Q

chronic disorder in which normal bone is removed and replaced with abnormal bone

A

paget’s disease

67
Q

what is the 1st most common bone remodeling disease

A

osteoporosis

68
Q

what is the 2nd most common bone remodeling disease

A

paget’s disease

69
Q

most common form of arthritis in the US

A

osteoarthritis (DJD)

70
Q

a diet high in what can cause gout

A

purine

71
Q

meds used to treat osteoporosis

A

bisphosphonates: alendronate (fosamax) & ibandronate (boniva)

72
Q

which osteoporosis med allows for once a month dosing or IV dose every 3 months?

A

boniva

73
Q

what should not be taken with bisphosphonates?

A

calcium

74
Q

teaching when taking fosamax

A

take on empty stomach first thing in the morning with water, remain upright for 30 mins, don’t drink/eat anything else for 30 mins

75
Q

meds used to treat paget’s

A

bisphosphonates: alendronate (fosamax)

calcitonin (miacalcin)

76
Q

tx for osteomalacia

A

vitamin D replacement

77
Q

tx for osteoarthritis

A

pain relief measures, Capsaicin (topical cream), NSAIDs, intra-articular hyaluronic acid (supports lubrication of joints)

78
Q

tx for RA

A

prednisone, NSAIDs, DMARDs

79
Q

tx of gout

A

steroids

80
Q

difficulty in any part of the process of swallowing

A

dysphagia

81
Q

sxs of GERD

A

heartburn, indigestion, belching, hiccups, regurgitation

82
Q

complications of GERD

A

disturbed sleep, social isolation, Barrett’s esophagus, hemorrhage

83
Q

tx of c. diff

A

metronidazole