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Epidemiology Exam 2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What Disease in swine can survive for long periods of time in the environment and resist heat up to 157 degrees, survivng for up to 2 years in dried, salted, or smoked meat

A

Swine Vesicular Disease

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1
Q

What three ways can Humans become infected with Anthrax?

A

Inhalation of spores

Ingestion of spores

Cutaneous route

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1
Q

Humans can get Toxoplasma via ingestion of tissue bradyzoites in undercooked meat, mainly _____

A

Pork

*Bradyzoites in the undercooked meat of the intermediate hosts- Mainly PORK

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1
Q

Women who are infected with _____ while they are pregnant can lead to still birth and miscarrages, as well as being transferred to the fetus leading to congential abnormalities

A

Toxoplasma

*Clinical signs in the baby are much worse the earlier the women is infected during pregnancy

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1
Q

True/False: Raccoons shed up to 45 million Roundworm eggs per day and a low infectious dose is needed to infect other species

A

True

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1
Q

Echinococcus Species that leads to Alveolar Cyst disease and leads to multilobular small cysts mainly in the liver and lungs

A

Echinococcus Multilocularis

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1
Q

Reservoirs for all species of Echinococcus are _____

A

Canids

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1
Q

Oriental Rat flea that is very important as Vector of the Plague

A

Xenopsylla Cheopis

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1
Q

Most Virulent Equine Encephalitis that begins with fever and lethargy that progresses to neurological disease including seizures

A

Eastern Equine Encephalitis

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1
Q

What are the three classically Milk-Borne Bacteria?

A

Brucella

Coxiella Burnetii

Mycobacterium Bovis

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1
Q

______ Protects urban populationf from Coxiella Burnetii, but not animal workers

A

Pasteurization

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2
Q

True/False: If a prengant woman wants to get a cat, you should suggest and adult cat rather than a kitten because the adult is less likely to be shedding Toxoplasma

A

True

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2
Q

What can humans get by ingesting an infected flea?

A

Dipylidium Caninum

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3
Q

Most Pathogenic in the US with regards to Spotted Fever Rickettsia

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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4
Q

How do Carnivores get Bacillus Anthracis?

A

Eat infected Herbivores

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5
Q

Disease in swine caused by Picornaviridae that can survive for long periods of time in the environment

A

Swine Vesicular Disease

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6
Q

Avian species are usually infected with _____ strains of Influenza

A

Low pathogenicity

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7
Q

Blood not clotted

Spores in blood on microscopy

Rapid Bloating

Lack of Rigor Mortis

Blood form Orifices

What disease do these clinical signs portray?

A

Anthrax in Cattle

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7
Q

In what three species can Q fever lead to Anorexia and Abortion

A

Cattle

Sheep

Goats

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7
Q

True/False: To prevent dog bites its best to spay/neuter virtually all dogs

A

True

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8
Q

When you suspect that an animal has died from ____ you do not open up the body, because when the blood is exposed to the air infectious spores will be formed

A

Anthrax

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8
Q

____% of emerging human infectious disease have originated in animals

A

75

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9
Q

How do cats usually acquire Francisella Tularensis?

A

Eating infected rodents

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9
Q

Equine Encephalitis virus that is cycles between birds and the Culex spp. of Mosquito

A

Western Equine Encephalitis

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9
Q

True/False: The AVMA supports breed bans

A

False

*Does not support Breed bans- Any breed can bite

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10
Q

In what species does Foot and Mouth disease have mild, if any, clinical signs including Fever, lameness and oral lesions

A

Sheep and goats

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10
Q

True/False: Rinderpest has a low mortality rate

A

False

*Very high mortality rate

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10
Q

True/False: Meat inspection serves to Protect public health, provide consumer confidence, surveillance for animal health problems, and improves access to international export markets

A

True

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11
Q

True/False: Rabies vaccines should be given under the supervision of a Licensed veterinarian

A

True

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12
Q

What two diseases cause Lymphadenopathy in the cervial region of cats?

A

Plague

Tularemia

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12
Q

What is the treatment for Oestrus Ovis?

A

Surgical removal of Larvae

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14
Q

Yersinia Pestis is rare so long as there is aggressive ____ control

A

Rodent

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14
Q

Step 7 of HACCP showing that recordkeeping is the cornerstone of HACCP when it comes to inspection time

A

Keep Records

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15
Q

Vets examining animals with potential Plague or Tularemia need to use _____, such as gloves and masks

A

PPE

*Personal protective equipment

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15
Q

In what Disease should you immediately seek medical attention if suspected and burn placentas and other reproductive discharges

A

Q fever

*Segregate Parturient Animals

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15
Q

Deworming Puppies and Covering sand boxes are common ways to prevent _____

A

Toxocariasis

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15
Q

Echinococcus species that causes Hydatid cyst disease in which large, individual cysts form in the Liver and sometimes the Brain of humans

A

Echinococcus granulosus

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15
Q

Plague is predominately found in the ______of the US

A

South West

*KNOW THIS

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15
Q

What disease does Coxiella Burnetii cause in People?

A

Q Fever

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15
Q

What Two fevers does Brucella cause in People?

A

Undulant Fever

Malta Fever

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15
Q

With Dog Bites there is about a ____% chance of the wounds getting infected

A

20

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15
Q

Process to ensure control of hazards that are significant for food safety in the segment of the food chain under consideration

A

HACCP

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16
Q

Approximately ____% of all human pathogens are zoonotic

A

60

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16
Q

In humans with Plague or Tularemia, _____ aspirates are highly infectious

A

Lymph Node

*Take precaution when taking lymph node aspirates

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16
Q

Term for diseases caused by Migrating Larvae in Paratenic hosts

A

Larval Migrans

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16
Q

True/False: Yersinia Pestis is reportable

A

True

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16
Q

Most important vectors of human disease worldwide

A

Mosquitoes

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17
Q

True/False: Cat bites occur more commonly than Dog bites

A

False

*Only 5-10% of animal bites are by Cats. Majority are dogs

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18
Q

Canine Hookworm that leads to Cutaneous Larval Migrans mainly in children that walk around Barefoot

A

Ancylostoma Caninum

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19
Q

Enzootic cycle of what virus occurs between Rodents and Culex spp. Mosquitoes

A

Venezualen EEV

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20
Q

What is the most Pathogenic and deadly strain of Equine Encephalitis virus?

A

Eastern EEV

*90% fatality. Venezuelan has 80% mortality

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21
Q

True/False: Coxiella Burnetii causes abortion in most mammals and large amounts of bacteria are present in the placenta and fetus

A

True

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22
Q

Highly infectious, often fatal, disease of swine caused by Flavivirus that leads to fever, weakness, and Erythematous lesions

A

Classical Swine Fever

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22
Q

What would be your plan of action in this case of Foot and Mouth disease?

A

Report to Government

*Cull and disopose of infection animals

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22
Q

Intracellular bacteria that affects both humans and animals, but primarily cats

A

Francisella Tularensis

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22
Q

True/False: Humans, dogs, cats ect. with a Fungal Pulmonary infections are infectious to others

A

False

*Body temperature is too high for sporulation of these fungi-

Blastomycoes, Coccidiodes, Histoplasma, Cryptococcus

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22
Q

What species is susceptible to both Human and Avian strains of Influenza?

A

Swine

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22
Q

While visceral larval Migrans is the most common with ______, sometimes humans can become infected with Ocular or neurological symptoms

A

Toxocariasis

*Unilateral blindness from the larvae of roundworm in children

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22
Q

Symptoms of Echinococcus in humans are caused by the ____, whether in the liver, lungs, or brain

A

cyst

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22
Q

This map represents the distribution of what Tick borne disease?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted Fever

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22
Q

Incidental hosts are usually dead end hosts in Equine Encephalitis, with exception to both horses and humans with _____

A

Venezualen Encephalitis

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22
Q

True/False: Most fatal dog bites are preventable, related to lack of supervision, and unrelated to dog breed

A

True

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22
Q

What concept described Animals, People and the Environment as one?

A

One Health

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22
Q

Government department in charge of Inspection services for Meat Safety

A

USDA

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24
Q

Subtypes of Avian Influenza that are Low Pathogenicity and cause mild disease in poultry

A

H subtypes 1-16

(includes non-HPAI H5 and H7)

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26
Q

What disease is this and What is your control plan?

A

African Swine Fever

*No vaccine is available- Report to government

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26
Q

Trypanosoma species are transmitted by _____ and _____

A

Tsetse Flies and Kissing bugs

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28
Q

Disease in which Horses are the most severe hosts with oral and coronary band vesicles, drooling, and rubbing mouths on objects

A

Vesicular Stomatitis

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29
Q

If a previously vaccinated animal is overdue for a Rabies booster, the animal should be ______

A

Revaccinated

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30
Q

Distribution of Hantavirus is based on the ____ of virus

A

Species

*Individual species of this virus are typically limited to a specific reservoir host and geographic region

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31
Q

What is the Roundworm species of Raccoons?

A

Baylisascaris Procyonis

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32
Q

Very zoonotic Mite that causes intense, itchy skin rashes

A

Sarcoptes

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34
Q

True/Fase: Foot and Mouth disease, Swine Vesicular Disease, Classical Swine Fever, Newcastle, Vesicular Stomatitis, African Swine Fever and Rinderpest are all notifiable to OIE

A

True

34
Q

Roundworm parasites have a very high prevalence in what species?

A

Raccoons

*70-90% of Raccoons have Round Worm

34
Q

What tick transmits Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Dermacentor

34
Q

60% of workmans comp claims made by veterinarians and veterinary staff are for ____

A

Bite Wounds

36
Q

List ___ Disease are notifiable to OIE

A

A

36
Q

20-40% of soil samples from parks or childrens sand pits may have ______ eggs

A

Toxocara

36
Q

True/False: In Venezualen EEV, levels in Human and Horse blood are high enough to infect mosquitoes

A

True

36
Q

Venezualen Equine Encephalitis is _____ in the USA

A

REPORTABLE

39
Q

Milk Borne bacteria that has No eradication program in the USA and is present in 90% of dairy herds

A

Coxiella Burnetii- Q fever

40
Q

Western Equine encephalitis is a more _____ disease than Eastern Equine Encephalitis

A

Sporadic

*Usually occus at low levels

40
Q

Most common cause of rabies virus exposure in which post-exposure prophylaxis should be used is via a _____

A

Bite

42
Q

Rabies virus is present in ____ and is transmitted to humans by the bite of disease animals

A

Saliva

43
Q

True/False: Many mites prefer to bite one type of animal or small group of animals

A

True

44
Q

Important tick borne disease of Rickettsia that is transmitted by both species of Dermacentor in the US

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

*Rickettsia Rickettsii

46
Q

How is Chlamydophilia transmitted to humans?

A

Direct Handling of Infected birds

48
Q

In what species will Foot and Mouth disease cause Oral Vesicles on the tongue, dental pad, gums ect. as well as excessive salivation and drooling, lethargy and loss of body condition

A

Cattle

49
Q

True/False: After an animal bites a human, confirmation of diagnosis of rabies is not needed if a dog, cat or ferret shows no signs of rabies at the end of the 10 day obseravtion period

A

True

50
Q

True/False: Humans become infected with Echinococcus Granulosus via ingestion of infected meat

A

False

*Ingestions of eggs

50
Q

Rabies virus is _____-trophic, it enters peripheral nerves and replicates in the brain while also spreading to the salivary glands

A

Neurotrophic

50
Q

_____ Meat inspection ensures that animals used for food products are free of foodborne pathogens, Clearly label foods that pass inpection, minimize containation during food processing, and monitors for drug residues and pathogens

A

Federal

51
Q

Equine Encephalitis virus where Horses and Mosquitoes are the main cycle

A

Epizootic Venezualen EEV

52
Q

What disease is this?

A

Avian Influenza

*Report it and Inform the farmer

52
Q

Bats, skunks, canids, raccoons, and mongooses are the most common ____ of rabies

A

Reservoirs

53
Q

True/False: Animals that bite humans are re-examined frequently during the 10 day observation period for rabies

A

True

54
Q

A food safety management system is a program based on the prinicples of safe produce/ process design, prerqeuisite programs and _____ system that is supported by essential managment practices

A

HACCP

*Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point

56
Q

What disease is this?

A

Giardia

*No treatment for Crytpo

57
Q

Etiologial agent of the Plague

A

Yersinia Pestis

57
Q

Screwworms like _____ climates and are exotic to the US

A

Tropical

58
Q

What are the two forms of Chlamydophylia?

A

Elemtary body- Environment

Reticulate Body- In host tissue

59
Q

Who is in charge of the Management, On Farm Food Safety programs, Meat inspection Programs and Certification of products for international trade in Meat Safety

A

USDA- FSIF

61
Q

Screwworms have been _____ from the USA

A

Eradicated

64
Q

What form of Enchiococcus leads to small cysts in the liver with secondary metastasis to the lungs

A

Alveolar Cyst Disease

*Echinococcus Multilocularis

66
Q

What three Bacterial Agents are potential bioweapons due to their ability to spread via the Aerosol route?

A

Bacillus Anthracis

Yersinia pestis

Francisella Tularensis

*Category A diseases

66
Q

What Disease is this?

A

Leptospirosis

*Know this- damage to liver and animals can have Jaundice

66
Q

Rabies leads to paralysis of muscles in the _____, known as dysphagia which leads to salivation and choke

A

Throat

68
Q

What disease is this?

A

Foot and Mouth Disease

*Affects both sheep and pigs

68
Q

True/False: Mosquitoes that feed on infected horses with EEEV and WEEV do not acquire the virus

A

True

70
Q

Raccoon roundworm ( Baylisascaris Procyonis) Is very neuro-invasive and likes to go into what tissue?

A

Ocular and Brain tissue

71
Q

Ixodes Ticks transmit what three diseases?

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

Anaplasma Phagocytophilum

Babesia Microti

72
Q

True/False: the AVMA is a huge supporter of One Health

A

True

73
Q

Protozal organism transmitted by Kissing Bugs in which they feed on blood and defecate into the puncture wound on the host

A

Trypanosoma Cruzi

73
Q

What are the three routes of Transmission for Mycobacterium Bovis

A

Aerosol

Oral exposure- to milk, feces or LN contents

Percutaneous

74
Q

Enzootic cycle of what virus includes cycling between birds and Culiseta species mosquitoes

A

Eastern Equine Encephalitis virus

*Enzootic cycle

76
Q

Mite that is also known as Walking Dandruff that easily passes to humans because the mite is superficially on the hair of animals

A

Cheyletiella

78
Q

Humans are usually infected by Echinococcus by ____ larvated eggs

A

Eating

79
Q

What are the two main ways that Humans are exposed to Toxoplasma

A

Oocysts in soil

Ingestion of Tissue Bradyzoites

80
Q

Plague and Tularemia are diseases of _____

A

Cats

83
Q

What two fleas are the big concerns for owners of Dogs and Cats?

A

Ctenocephalides Felis

Ctenocephalides Canis

*Felis is the most common in both dogs and cats

83
Q

What diease is transferred to humans via ingestion of contaminated water, broken skin contact with contaminated water, and contact with infected animal urine

A

Leptospirosis

*In animals urine

86
Q

______ Myiasis- when flies are attracted to open wounds but are not obligatory parasites

A

Facultative

87
Q

What People are at the highest Risk for Chlamydophilia?

A

Bird owners

Pet Store workers

88
Q

Influenza is known for having ____ reassortment

A

Genetic

91
Q

Washing hands, Cleaning Litter box daily, keeping Cats inside to avoid foraging, and keeping cats from deficating in the garden and sand box are all ways to avoid _____ exposure

A

Toxoplasma

92
Q

Swine Influenza virus that contains genes of Avian and Human origin

A

H1N1

93
Q

Amplifying Hosts in Foot and Mouth disease that develop severe hoof lesions and sloughing, as well as snout vesicles

A

Pigs

94
Q

What are the two most common Roundworms of Pets?

A

Toxacara Canis

Toxacara Cati

96
Q

Maintenance Hosts for Foot and Mouth disease that develop mild clinical signs

A

Sheep and Goats

96
Q

Protozoal organism tranasmitted by Feces of Kissing Bugs in the Americas

A

Trypanosoma Cruzi

*Chagas Disease

97
Q

____% of Cat Bites become infected

A

80%

*Huge number of cat bites will become infectious

99
Q

True/False: Horses are affected by Foot and Mouth disease

A

False

*Horses are not affected

99
Q

Disease that causes morbidity and mortality in Pstittacine birds

A

Chlamydophilia

100
Q

What does HACCP stand for?

A

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point

103
Q

HACCP uses a ____ step program

A

7

104
Q

Slaughterhouse inspection, Routine TB testing of cattle, and Milk pastuerization are three ways of controlling ____

A

Mycobacterium Bovis

105
Q

Key Reservoir and Amplifying species in Venezualen EEV

A

Horses

108
Q

True/False: Rabies virus may be shed in saliva for a few days prior to clinical signs in the animal

A

True

109
Q

What type of influenza is known for using Genetic Reassortment?

A

Influenza A

110
Q

Acute highly infectious viral disease of cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats characterized by the formation of vesicular eruptions in the mouth and on the feet, especially around the hoofs

A

Foot and Mouth disease

113
Q

Chronic manifestations of what disease in Humans and Dogs is cardiovascular, neurological and joint problems

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi- Lyme disease

114
Q

The majority of human rabies in the USA is cased by ____ variants of rabies virus

A

Bat

115
Q

Equine Encephalitis that is foreign to the US and is reportable

A

Venezualen EEV

117
Q

Sheep nasal bot that lives in the nasal passages

A

Oestrus Ovis

118
Q

Most common dermatophytosis in the World

A

Microsporum Canis

119
Q

True/False: In foot and mouth disease, cattle present with lesions around the interdigital space and coronary bands leading to Lameness and Reluctance to move

A

True

121
Q

Waterborne disease that infects the kidneys and is excreted in urine

A

Leptospirosis

*Animals have bacteria in urine for over 1 year

123
Q

Approximately ___% of recently emerging infectious diseases affecting humans are disease of animal origin

A

75

124
Q

This map shows the distribution of what Disease in the US

A

Yersinia Pestis

125
Q

What subtypes of Avian influenza are of High Pathogenicity and casue severe disease and mortality in poultry

A

H5 or H7

*High Pathogenicity Avian Influenza

126
Q

Small changes in Influenza virus due to point mutations accumulated during virus replication

A

Antigenic drift

127
Q

This map shows the Geographical prevalance of which tick in the US?

A

Ixodes Scapularis

128
Q

Humans with Circulatory collapse and blackened extremities are characteristic for what two diseases?

A

Plague

Tularemia

129
Q

True/False: Rinderpest is eradicated worldwide

A

True

130
Q

When larvae infest dead flesh or open wounds it is known as fly ____

A

Strike

131
Q

What are Four causes of Bovine Abortion that are zoonotic?

A

Brucella Abortus

Leptospira

Coxiella Burnetii

Listeria Monocytogenes

135
Q

What Bacteria is this?

A

Mycobacterium Bovis

*Reportable Disease

137
Q

What three diseases do Ixodes Ticks transfer

A

Anaplasma

Borellia

Babesia

138
Q

Disease caused by Trematodes where snails are the intermediate hosts which is the 2nd most important human parasite after Malaria

A

Schistosomiasis

141
Q

What disesae in swine is characterized by high fever, Erythema, Cyanosis, Bloody diarrhea, ABORTION, and death

A

African Swine fever

143
Q

Disease in swine characterized by fever, huddling, conjunctivits, cyanosis, skin hemorrhages and death

A

Classical Swine Fever

145
Q

Rabies virus is transmitted primarily via ____

A

Bite

*Viral excretion in Saliva

150
Q

Category ____ diseases kill people and can be disseminated and spread easily

A

A

152
Q

management system in which food safety is addressed through the analysis and control of biological, chemical, and physical hazards from raw material production, procurement and handling, to manufacturing, distribution and consumption of the finished product

A

HACCP

157
Q

What Disease is occuring in this scenerio

A

Giardia

*Intermittent shedding and Metronidazole is not affective against Crypto

159
Q

What species are the sentinals for Eastern Equine Encephalitis

A

Horses

160
Q

True/False: Toxoplasma Gondii causes severe problems in AIDS patients and pregnant women

A

True

163
Q

Acute highly contagious, fatal, disease of swine that is caused by Asfivirus that resembles Classical Swine Fever but is indigenous to Africa

A

African Swine Fever

164
Q

Infestation of tissue with Fly Larvae

A

Myiasis

165
Q

Cyptosporidium and Giardia are hard to kill with chlorine, therefore water must be ____

A

Filtered

167
Q

To minimize the Risk of Toxoplasma Gondii, Litter boxes should be cleaned ____

A

Daily

*Prevent Oocyst sporulation

168
Q

Leishmania species are transmitted by ____

A

Sandflies

170
Q

Borrelia Burgdorferi, which causes Lyme disease, is vectored by ____ hard ticks

A

Ixodes

171
Q

Modern Pasteurization is based on what Bacteria?

A

Coxiella Burnetti

173
Q

True/False: While Sarcoptes Scabiei mites can bite many hosts, they tend to have specific species that they perfer

A

True

*Unable to complete life cycle on the “wrong” host

174
Q

What parasite is in the eye of this dog?

A

Thelazia

*Transmitted by flied

176
Q

_____ is manadtory for all meats, seafoods, and juice processing facilities

A

HACCP

177
Q

Disease caused by Borrelia Burgordorferi characterized by Bullseye rash in humans

A

Lyme Disease

178
Q

True/False: Humans become exposed to Toxoplasma Oocysts in Soil via gardening, cleaning cat litter boxes, and Sand boxes for Children

A

True

180
Q

True/False: Sarcoptes Scabiei mites are adapted to their preferred host

A

True

181
Q

Rodent and Rabbit Botfly that is enzootic to parts of the USA

A

Cuterebra

182
Q

Abrupt changes in virus subtype characterized by genetic reassortment between subtypes

A

Antigenic Shift

Epidemiology Exam 2 (1 decks)

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