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PT 113 > Exam #2 > Flashcards

Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

PCP

A

Primary Care Physician

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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2
Q

CMV

A

Cytomegalovirus

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3
Q

HIV

A

Human Immunodeficiency virus

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4
Q

RBC

A

Red blood cell

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5
Q

WBC

A

White blood cell

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6
Q

Hg, HGB

A

Hemoglobin

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7
Q

CBC

A

Complete blood count

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8
Q

Decode: Vasodilator

A 
Vas/o = vessel
-dilator = expand
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9
Q

Decode: Erythromycin

A 
Erythr/o = red
myc/o = fungi
-in = pertaining to
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10
Q

Decode: Vasoconstriction

A

Vas/o = vessel

  • constrict = tighten
  • ion = process
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11
Q

Decode: Toxicology

A 
Tox/o = poison
-ology = the study of
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12
Q

Decode: Pharmacology

A 
Pharm/a = drug
-ology = the study of
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13
Q

Decode: Antihistamine

A 
Anti- = before
hist/a= tissue
-mine =  nitrogen compound
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14
Q

Decode: Narcotics

A 
Narc/o =  sleep
-ic = pertaining to
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15
Q

Decode: Carcinogen

A 
Carcin/o = cancer
-gen =  substance that produced
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16
Q

Decode: Chemotherapy

A 
Chem/o = drug
-therapy = treatment
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17
Q

Decode: Chemistry

A

Chem/I = chemical

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18
Q

Decode: Epidermis

A

Epi- = above

  • derm = skin
  • is = pertaining to
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19
Q

Decode: Bronchodilator

A 
Bronch/o = bronchial tube
-dilator = expand
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20
Q

Decode: Lymphadenopathy

A

Lymphaden/o = lymph node

  • path = disease
  • y = process or condition
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21
Q

Decode: Toxoplasmosis

A

Tox/o = poison

  • plasm = formation
  • osis = abnormal condition
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22
Q

Decode: Dermis

A 
Derm/o = skin
-is = pertaining to
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23
Q

Decode: Pharmacokinetics

A 
Pharm/a = drug
kin/e = movement
-ic = pertaining to
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24
Q

Pharmacology

A

The study of preparation, properties, uses, and actions of drugs

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25
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

the study of drug effects on the body

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26
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

The study of the distribution and removal of drugs in the body over a period of time

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27
Q

Toxicology

A

The study of harmful chemicals and the effects on the body

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28
Q

Bactericidal

A

Kills all bacteria

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29
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

Inhibits bacteria growth

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30
Q

Type A blood contains?

A

A antigen

anti-B antibody

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31
Q

Which blood type contains A and B antigens & no anti-A or anti-B antibodies?

A

Type AB

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32
Q

Type B blood contains?

A

B antigen

anti- A antibody

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33
Q

This type of blood contains NO A or B antigens & both anti- A and anti- B antibodies

A

Type O

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34
Q

Anisocytosis

A

-abnormal RBC condition in which cells are UNEQUAL SIZE

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35
Q

Hypochromia

A

-abnormal RBC condition in which cells have REDUCED COLOR (less hemoglobin)

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36
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

-abnormal RBC condition in which cells are IRREGULARLY SHAPED

poikil/o = varied, irregular

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37
Q

Spherocytosis

A

-abnormal RBC condition in which cells are ROUNDED

sphere/o = globe, round

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38
Q

bas/o

A

base

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39
Q

chrom/o

A

color

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40
Q

coagul/o

A

clotting

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41
Q

cyt/o

A

cell

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42
Q

eosin/o

A

red, rosy, dawn

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43
Q

erythr/o

A

red

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44
Q

granul/o

A

granules

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45
Q

hem/o

hemat/o

A

blood

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46
Q

hemoglobin/o

A

hemoglobin

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47
Q

is/o

A

same, equal

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48
Q

kary/o

A

nucleus

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49
Q

leuk/o

A

white

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50
Q

mon/o

A

one, single

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51
Q

morph/o

A

shape, form

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52
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

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53
Q

neutr/o

A

neutral

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54
Q

nucle/o

A

nucleus

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55
Q

phag/o

A

eat, swallow

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56
Q

sider/o

A

iron

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57
Q

thromb/o

A

clot

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58
Q

-apheresis

A

removal, carrying away

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59
Q

-blast

A

immature cell, embryonic

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60
Q

-cytosis

A

abnormal condition of cells

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61
Q

-emia

A

blood condition

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62
Q
  • globin

- globulin

A

protein

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63
Q

-lytic

A

pertaining to destruction

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64
Q

-oid

A

derived from

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65
Q

-osis

A

abnormal condition

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66
Q

-penia

A

deficiency

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67
Q

-phage

A

eat, swallow

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68
Q

-philia

A

attraction for (an increase number in cell numbers)

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69
Q

-phoresis

A

carrying transmission

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70
Q

-poiesis

A

formation

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71
Q

-stasis

A

stop, control

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72
Q

What is an anticoagulant substance found in liver cells, blood stream, and tissues?

A

heparin

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73
Q

What are protein threads that form the basis of a blood clot?

A

fibrin

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74
Q

Name the plasma protein that is converted to thrombin in the clotting process?

A

prothrombin

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75
Q

Plasma minus clotting proteins is?

A

serum

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76
Q

What is the process of clotting called?

A

coagulation

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77
Q

Name the enzyme that helps convert fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

thrombin

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78
Q

Decode: Anticoagulant

A

anti- = before
coagul/o = clotting
-ant = pertaining to
a substance that prevents blood clotting

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79
Q

Decode: Hemoglobinopathy

A

hemoglobin/o = hemoglobin
-pathy = disease
disease of hemoglobin

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80
Q

Deode: Cytology

A

cyt/o = cell
-ology = study of
study of cells

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81
Q

Decode: Leukocytopenia

A

Leuk/o = white
cyt/o = cell
-penia = deficiency
deficiency of WBC

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82
Q

Decode: Morphology

A

morph/o = shape, form
-ology = study of
study of the shape or form of cells

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83
Q

Decode: Megakaryocyte

A

mega- = large
kary/o = nucleus
-cyte = cell
cell with a large nucleus

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84
Q

Decode: sideropenia

A

sider/o = iron
-penia = deficiency
deficiency of iron

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85
Q

Decode: phagocyte

A

phag/o = eat, swallow
-cyte = cell
cells that eats or swallows other cells

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86
Q

Decode: myeloblast

A

myel/o = bone marrow
-blast = immature cell, embryonic
immature bone marrow cell

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87
Q

Decode: plateletpheresis

A

platelet
-pheresis = carrying transmission
separation of platelets from the rest of the blood

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88
Q

Decode: monoblast

A

mon/o = one, single
-blast = immature cell, embryonic
immature monoctye

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89
Q

Decode: myelopoiesis

A 
myel/o = bone marrow
-poiesis = formation
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90
Q

Decode: hemostasis

A

hem/o = blood
-stasis = stop, control
controlling or stopping the flow of blood

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91
Q

Decode: thrombolytic

A

thromb/o = clot
-lytic = pertaining to destructon
pertaining to the destruction of clots

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92
Q

Decode: hematopoiesis

A

hemat/o = blood
-poiesis = formation
formation of blood

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93
Q

Liquid portion of blood

A

plasma

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94
Q

What is the orange yellow pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed?

A

Bilirubin

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95
Q

Name the iron containing part of hemoglobin?

A

Heme

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96
Q

What hormone is secreted by kidneys to stimulate bone marrow to produce RBC?

A

erythropoietin

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97
Q

Proteins in plasma that are separated into alpha, beta, and gamma types?

A

Globulins

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98
Q

What is the name of the foreign material that stimulates the production of antibodies?

A

antigen

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99
Q

What plasma protein maintains the proper amount of water in the blood?

A

albumin

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100
Q

Proteins made by lymphocytes in response to antigens in the blood?

A

antibody

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101
Q

What is a thrombocyte that helps blood clot?

A

platelet

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102
Q

Which leukocyte contains dense reddish granules, associated with allergic reactions?

A

Eosinophils

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103
Q

Name the leukocyte responsible for releasing histamines and heparin

A

Basophil

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104
Q

Type of leukocyte that produces anitbodies?

A

lymphocyte

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105
Q

Which cell in bone marrow that gives rise to different types of blood cells?

A

hematopoietic stem cell

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106
Q

This phagocyte is a precursor of a macrophage

A

monocyte

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107
Q

Variation in the size of RBC

A

anisocytosis

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108
Q

A deficiency in the NUMBER of RBC?

A

erythrocytopenia

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109
Q

What pertains to reduction of hemoglobin in RBC?

A

hypochromic

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110
Q

Macrocytosis

A

increase in numbers of large RBC

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111
Q

Percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood

A

hematocrit

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112
Q

ABMT

A

autologous bone marrow transplant

*patient serves as his or her own donor for stem cells

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113
Q

diff.

A

differential count (WBCs)

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114
Q

GVHD

A

graft versus host disease

*reaction of donor’s cells to recipient’s tissue

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115
Q

EBV

A

Epstein- Barr virus

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116
Q

PTT

A

partial thromboplastin time

Test used to follow patients who are using anticoagulants

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117
Q

Name the test for the presence of antibodies that coat and damage erythrocytes?

A

antiglobulin (coombs) test

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118
Q

This test determines the number of clotting cells per mm3 of blood?

A

platelet count

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119
Q

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

A

malignant condition of WBCs in which IMMATURE granulocytes predominate
-CHILDREN are affected and onset is SUDDEN

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120
Q

Proteins containing antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

-IgA, IgE, IgD

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121
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

A

malignant condition of WBCs in which MATURE lymphocytes predominate in lymph nodes, spleen, and bone marrow
- usually seen in ELDERLY patients

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122
Q

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

A

malignant condition of WBCs in which IMMATURE granulocytes predominate
-normal bone marrow is replaced by myeloblasts (immature bone marrow cells)

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123
Q

Chronic myelogneous leukemia (CML)

A

malignant condition of WBCs in which both MATURE & IMMATURE are present
-a SLOWLY progressive illness

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124
Q

Palliative

A

relieving but not curing

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125
Q

Pancytopenia

A

deficiency of ALL blood cells

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126
Q

What is the separation of blood into its parts

A

apheresis

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127
Q

Large blue or purplish patches on the skin?

A

Ecchymoses

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128
Q

What is Bence Jones protein?

A

Immunoglobulin fragment found in the urine of patients with MULTIPLE MYELOMA

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129
Q

Petechaie

A

tiny purple or flat red spots on the skin as a result of small hemorrhages

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130
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

lack of iron

-leading to insufficient hemoglobin production

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131
Q

This type of anemia is characterized by an inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the blood stream resulting in reduced mature erythrocytes?

A

Pernicious anemia

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132
Q

Thalassemia

A

defect in the ability to produce hemoglobin

-leading to hypochromia

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133
Q

This type of anemia can be described as a lack of development of bone marrow cells CAUSING a lack of ALL types of blood cells

A

Aplastic anemia

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134
Q

Sickle Cell anemia

A

abnormal shape of erythrocyte caused by an abnormal type of hemoglobin

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135
Q

This is an abnormal condition of EXCESS number of granulocytes (eosinophils and basophils)

A

Granulocytosis

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136
Q

Excessive deposits of iron in the tissues of the body

A

Hemochromatosis

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137
Q

Hemophilia

A

excessive bleeding caused by a HEREDITARY lack of factor VIII & IX necessary for clotting

138
Q

This condition presents itself with multiple pinpoint hemorrhages due to a deficiency of platelets
(pt. makes antibodies that destroy their own platelets)

A

Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura

139
Q

BMT

A

bone marrow transplant

140
Q

CA

A

cancer

141
Q

RT

A

radiation therapy

-method of treating cancer using high energy radiation

142
Q

Name the surgical procedure in which you remove the entire tumor and regional lymph nodes?

A

en bloc resection

143
Q

The assessment of a tumor’s EXTENT OF SPREAD within the body is known as

A

Grading

144
Q

What is the transformation of tissue to a different type of tissue?

A

Metaplasia

145
Q

Freezing a lesion to kill tumor cells

A

cryosurgery

146
Q

What surgical procedure uses a high frequency current to destroy tissue?

A

fulguration

147
Q

Burning a lesion to destroy tumor cells

A

cauterization

148
Q

What surgical procedure is cutting into a tumor and removing a piece to establish a diagnosis?

A

incisional biospy

149
Q

The formation of new blood vessels?

A

angiogensis

150
Q

What surgical procedure involves removal of a tumor and a margin of normal tissue for diagnosis and possible cure of small tumors?

A

excisional biospy

151
Q

If a tumor requires large does of radiation to kill cells it is

A

a radioRESISTIVE tumor

152
Q

The assessment of a tumor’s degree or maturity

A

staging

153
Q

The use of two or more drugs to kill tumor cells

A

combination chemotherapy

154
Q

Implantation of seeds of radioactive material directly into a tumor is

A

brachy therapy

155
Q

What does TNM staging system stand for?

A 
T = size of TUMOR
N = lymph NODES involved
M =  presence of METASTASIS to classify stage of cancer
156
Q

A change in genetic material

A

mutation

157
Q

Anaplasia

A

loss of differentiation of cells and revision to a more primitive type of cell

158
Q

Metatasis

A

when a malignant tumor spreads to a secondary site

159
Q

Which tumor develops from a dyplastic nevus?

A

Melanoma (a nevus is a benign pigmented lesion or mole)

160
Q

Which tumor arises from an organ located in the mediastinum?

A

thymoma

161
Q

Which tumor arise from an organ in the RUQ of the abdomen?

A

hepatoma

-liver tumor

162
Q

What tumor has types called astrocytoma, ependymoma, and glioblastoma multiforme?

A

glioma

-brain tumor

163
Q

Hypernephroma

A

kidney tumor

-Known as a renal carcinoma

164
Q

Mutliple myeloma

A

A malignant tumor of plasma cells in bone marrow

-typically affects the elderly, also affects pts. with AIDS

165
Q

Which tumor arises from membrane cells surrounding the lungs?

A

mesothelioma

166
Q

Which tumor has a type known as Hodgkin disease?

A

lymphoma

167
Q

A region of genetic material found in tumor cells and in viruses that cause cancer

A

Oncogene

168
Q

Mitosis

A

replication of cells, two identical cells are produced from a parent cell

169
Q

An abnormal formation of cells

A

dysplastic

170
Q

This type of tumor growth looks like a mushrooming pattern as tumor cells pile on top of eachother

A

fungating

171
Q

This describes tumors that grow from large, open spaces filled with fluid
*serous and mucinous tumors are examples of this

A

Cystic

172
Q

When tumors are large, soft, and fleshy its called

A

Medullary

173
Q

When a tumor appears to have wart like growths its called

A

verrucous

174
Q

When a tumor has growths that are projections from a base they are called

A

polypoid

175
Q

The method of giving radiation in small, repeated doses

A

fractionation

176
Q

Chemotherapy

A

treatment of cancerous tumors with drugs

177
Q

Alkylating agents, antimetabolites, hormones, anitbiotics, antimitotics are all types of __________ agents

A

chemotherapeutic

178
Q

The technique in which a single large dose of radiation is delivered under 3D guidance to destroy vascular abnormalities and small brain tumors

A

stereotactic radiosurgery

179
Q

alveol/o

A

small sac

180
Q

cac/o

A

bad

181
Q

carcin/o

A

cancer, cancerous

182
Q

cauter/o

A

burn, heat

183
Q

chem/o

A

chemical, drug

184
Q

cry/o

A

cold

185
Q

cyst/o

A

sac of fluid

186
Q

fibr/o

A

fibers

187
Q

follicul/o

A

small glandular sacs

188
Q

fung/i

A

fungus, mushroom

189
Q

medull/o

A

soft, inner part

190
Q

mucos/o

A

mucous membrane

191
Q

mut/a

A

genetic change

192
Q

mutagen/o

A

causing genetic change

193
Q

papill/o

A

nipple like

194
Q

onc/o

A

tumor

195
Q

pharmac/o

A

drug

196
Q

plas/o

A

formation

197
Q

ple/o

A

many more

198
Q

polyp/o

A

polyp

199
Q

radi/o

A

rays, x-rays

200
Q

sarc/o

A

flesh, connective tissue

201
Q

scirrh/o

A

hard

202
Q

xer/o

A

dry

203
Q

-blastoma

A

immature tumor

204
Q

-genesis

A

formation

205
Q

-oma

A

mass, tumor

206
Q
  • plasia

- plasm

A

formation, growth

207
Q

-suppression

A

to stop

208
Q

-therapy

A

treatment

209
Q

ana-

A

backward

210
Q

apo-

A

off, away

211
Q

brachy-

A

short distance

212
Q

epi-

A

upon

213
Q

meta-

A

beyond, change

214
Q

prot/o

A

first

215
Q

tele-

A

far

216
Q

Proton therapy

A

Technique in which subatomic particles are produced by cyclotron deposit a focused dose at a finite point

217
Q

immune/o

A

protection

218
Q

lymph/o

A

lymph

219
Q

lymphaden/o

A

lymph node

220
Q

splen/o

A

spleen

221
Q

thym/o

A

thymus gland

222
Q

tox/o

A

poison

223
Q

ana-

A

again, new

224
Q

inter-

A

between

225
Q

What parts of the body are commonly affected by the AIDS virus?

A

Brain and spinal cord

226
Q

Which CNS condition often is seen in AIDS patients?

A

Inflammation of the brain and membranes around the brain

227
Q

Aside from delirium, what other psychiatric complications have been reported with AIDS patients?

A

loss of intellectual abilities

228
Q

ELISA

A

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

-test to detect anti-HIV antibodies

229
Q

What enzyme helps HIV infect new cells

A

protease

230
Q

CD4+ T cell counts can be increase by

A

protease inhibitors

231
Q

Metastatic carcinoma means

A

the tumor has spread to a secondary location

232
Q

Type of lymphoma that affects young adults

A

Hodgkin disease

233
Q

What condition may indicate an AIDS virus infection?

A

fungal infection of the mouth

234
Q

What is the large lymph vessel that drains lymph from the right upper part of the body?

A

right lymphatic duct

235
Q

What is the organ near the stomach that produces, stores, and eliminates blood cells?

A

spleen

236
Q

Adenoids

A

mass of lymphatic tissue in the nasopharynx

237
Q

Where are inguinal nodes located?

A

groin area

238
Q

What is an immune response in which B cells transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies?

A

humoral immunity

239
Q

T cells

A

are lymphocytes that act on anitgens

formed in the thymus

240
Q

Where are axillary nodes located?

A

armpit

241
Q

What is an immune response in which T cells destroy antigens?

A

cell-mediated immunity

242
Q

What cell originates from a B lymphocyte and secretes antibodies?

A

plasma cell

243
Q

Name the large phagocyte found in lymph nodes and other tissues of the body?

A

macrophage

244
Q

Where are cervical nodes located?

A

neck

245
Q

A cell that specialized in antigen presentation and destruction of antigens by T cells

A

dendrite cell

246
Q

What are lymph nodes located between the space of the lungs called?

A

mediastinal nodes

247
Q

What is a splenectomy?

A

removal of the spleen

248
Q

What do Helper T cells do?

A
  • aid B cells in recognizing antigens

- also called T4 or CD4+ cell

249
Q

Inflammation of lymph glands

A

lymphadenitis

250
Q

Toxins are

A

poisons

251
Q

T cell that inhibits the activity of B lymphocytes?

A

suppressor T cell

252
Q

Lymphocytes that directly kill foreign cells are?

A

cytotoxic T cells

253
Q

What is enlargement of the spleen called?

A

splenomegaly

254
Q

Lymphopoiesis means

A

formation of lymph

255
Q

What is a deficiency of lymph cells?

A

lymphocytopenia

256
Q

A tumor in the thymus is called

A

thymoma

257
Q

Anaphylaxis

A
  • an extraordinary hypersensitivity to a foreign protein

- marked by hypotension, shock, and respiratory distress

258
Q

Allergen

A

An antigen capable of causing an allergy

259
Q

What is the name for the swelling of tissues due to interstitial fluid accumulation?

A

lymphedema

260
Q

Removal of a mediastinal organ

A

thymectomy

261
Q

What is the malignant tumor of lymph nodes and spleen marked by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cell?

A

Hodgkin disease

262
Q

A malignant condition associated with AIDS in which bluish red skin nodules appear

A

Kaposi sarcoma

263
Q

What test measure the amount of HIV in blood?

A

viral load test

264
Q

Opportunistic infections

A 
are a group of infectious diseases associated with AIDS
-CMV
-Herpes simplex
-Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
-Tuberculosis 
just to name a few
265
Q

What test detects anti-HIV antibodies?

A

ELISA

266
Q

How does a protease inhibitor work?

A

Used to treat AIDS, it blocks the production of proteolytic enzyme

267
Q

Wasting syndrome

A

weight loss with decreased muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity

268
Q

HAART

A

highly active antiretroviral therapy

-uses combinations of drugs to treat AIDS

269
Q

RT (reverse transcriptase)

A

after invading helper T cells, HIV releases RT to help grow and multiply inside the cell

270
Q

RT inhibitor

A

blocks RT, essentially blocking the growth of HIV

271
Q

Atopy

A

a hypersensitive or allergic state with an inherited predisposition

272
Q

Name the test that separates immunoglobulins?

A

immunoelectrophoresis

273
Q

What type of diseases are chronic, disabling diseases caused by abnormal production of antibodies to normal tissue?

A

Autoimmune diseases

274
Q

Interstitial fluid

A

Lies between cells throughout the body

275
Q

non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • a group of malignant tumors involving lymphoid tissue

- ex: follicular lymphoma and large cell lymphoma

276
Q

What is the test for human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?

A

beta-HCG test

*a marker for testicular cancer

277
Q

Stem cell transplant

A

blood forming cells are infused intravenously

278
Q

Name the blood test for carcinoembryonic antigen?

A

CEA test

279
Q

Name the protein marker detected in the blood of ovarian cancer patients?

A

CA-125

280
Q

What does an estrogen receptor assay test for?

A

the presence of hormone receptors on breast cancer cells

281
Q

What does a PSA test look for?

A

the antigen related to prostate cancer

282
Q

Exfoliative cytology

A

cells are scraped off tissue and microscopically examined

283
Q

The process of visually examining the abdominal cavity?

A

laparoscopy

284
Q

aer/o

A

air

285
Q

alges/o

A

sensitivity to pain

286
Q

bronch/o

A

bronchial tube

287
Q

cras/o

A

mixture

288
Q

cutane/o

A

skin

289
Q

erg/o

A

work

290
Q

ethes/o

A

feeling, sensation

291
Q

hist/o

A

tissue

292
Q

hypn/o

A

sleep

293
Q

iatr/o

A

treatment

294
Q

lingu/o

A

tongue

295
Q

myc/o

A

mold fungus

296
Q

narc/o

A

stupor

297
Q

or/o

A

mouth

298
Q

prurit/o

A

itching

299
Q

pyret/o

A

fever

300
Q

thec/o

A

sheath of brain and spinal cord

301
Q

vas/o

A

vessel

302
Q

ven/o

A

vein

303
Q

vit/o

A

life

304
Q

ana-

A

upward, excessive, again

305
Q

anti-

A

before

306
Q

contra-

A

against, opposite

307
Q

par-

A

other than, apart from

308
Q

syn-

A

together, with

309
Q

ACE

A

angiotensin-converting enzyme

310
Q

HRT

A

hormone replacement therapy

311
Q

IM

A

intramuscular

312
Q

IV

A

intravenous

313
Q

FDA

A

food and drug administration

314
Q

NSAID

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

ex: advil

315
Q

PDR

A

physicians’ desk reference

316
Q

SERM

A

selective estrogen receptor modulator

ex: Evista- used to treat osteoporosis

317
Q

SL

A

sublingual

318
Q

SSRI

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

*antidepressant

319
Q

Antiseptic

A

an agent that works against INFECTION

320
Q

Antipruritic

A

an agent that works against ITCHING

321
Q

Aerosol

A

a solution of particles in air

322
Q

Intracavitary

A

with in a cavity

323
Q

Intrathecal

A

with in a sheath

324
Q

Name the reference book listing drug products?

A

Physicians’ desk reference

325
Q

Synergisms

A

combination of two drugs is greater than the total effects of each drug by itself

326
Q

An unexpected effect that may appear in a patient following administration of a drug

A

Idiosyncrasy

327
Q

What type of drug is given to patients with Epilepsy?

A

anticonvulsant

ex: Tegretol and phenytoin

328
Q

Anaphylactic shock is treated with?

A

an antihistamine drug

329
Q

For epigastric discomfort you would take?

A

antacid

330
Q

What do progestins treat?

A

abnormal uterine bleeding caused by hormonal imbalance

331
Q

ACE inhibitor works to treat

A

congestive heart failure and hypertension

ex: Vasotec and Zestril

332
Q

Asthma is treated with

A

a bronchodilator

333
Q

Myalgia and neuralgia can be treated with

A

an analgesic

334
Q

An anticoagulant is used to treat

A

a thrombosis and embolism

ex: heparin

335
Q

Give two examples of antibiotic medications?

A
  • penicillin

- erythromycin

336
Q

A factor in a patient’s condition that prevents the use of a particular drug is ___________.

A

contraindication

337
Q

What type of drug would you used to lower BP and reduce the amount of fluid in the blood?

A

diuretic

ex: Lasix and Aldactone

338
Q

Type A blood can receive?

A

Type A & O blood

339
Q

Type O blood can receive?

A

Only type O blood

340
Q

Type B blood can receive

A

Type B & O blood

341
Q

Type AB blood can receive

A

Type A, B, AB, O blood

PT 113 (2 decks)

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