Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CVP > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What circulatory structures acts as a control valve to regulate flow?

A

Arterioles and pre capillary sphincters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: Pulmonary blood flow=venous return=cardiac output

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What 4 histologic materials are vessels made of?

A

Endothelium
Elastic tissue
Smooth muscle
Fibrous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What tissue is most prominant in the aorta?

A

Elastic, (then fibrous, then smooth muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In a typical artery, what tissue type dominates?

A

Smooth muscle (then elastic, then fibrous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What structure is only made of endothelium?

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The volume of blood that passes a certain point per unit time is what?

A

Flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At a given flow, the velocity is ________ to the cross-sectional area of a vessel.

A

Inversely proportional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the only organ to have flow in excess to the cardiac output (CO)?

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flow is ___ to change in pressure but ____ to resistance.

A

Proportional to chg P, but inversely proportional to resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is considered the driving force of blood movement.?

A

Pressure gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Systemic circulation is predominantly a ____circuit? Series, parallel, or series&parallel?

A

Parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 advantages of a parallel circuitry?

A
  1. Incr/decr flow to tissues independently
  2. Lowers total peripheral resistance (TPR)
  3. Oxygen rich blood to every tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Slower blood flow is associated with an increase or decrease in blood viscosity?

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What increases the flexibility of RBC’s?

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the normal range for hematocrit?

A

38%-45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What disorder is associated with less than 38% hematocrit?

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F: Both EPO and exercise stimulate RBC production

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What part of a vessel has the fastest velocity?

A

The center of the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the normal, silent, and efficient type of flow called?

A

Laminar flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does Turbulent flow differ from Laminar flow?

A

Turbulent is less efficient, creates vibrational noise, and is associated with vessel dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What location in the circulatory system is most likely to have turbulent flow?

A

Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If the Reynold’s # (R#) is less than 2000 flow is ____, and if the R# is greater than 3000 flow is ___.

A

3000=turbulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the only factor that is inversely proportional to Reynold’s #: velocity, viscosity, diameter, density

A

Viscosity, (all others are proportional)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F: Broad band Doppler reading is associated with laminar flow

A

False: Broad=turbulent…Narrow=laminar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F: Fick principal is associated with determination of cardiac output

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is distensibility?

A

the ability of a vessel to stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is compliance different from distensibility?

A

Compliance is the ability of a vessel to stretch AND hold volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which is more compliant: arteries or veins?

A

Veins…arteries can’t store much blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F: In systemic arteries, a small change in volume is associated with a small change in pressure?

A

False: small change in volume–>large change in pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In systemic veins, a large change in volume is associated with a ___ change in pressure

A

small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Veins are 8 times more ____ and 24 times more ____ than systemic arteries.

A

Distensible, compliant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T/F: The more wall tone present, the more distensible a vessel will be

A

False, incr wall tone–> decr in compliance and distensibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the determining factor of local blood flow to tissues?

A

Metabolic demand by tissues (more active tissues, more blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F: A method of short term control of blood flow includes vasodilation/vasoconstriction of arterioles

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the long-term control of blood flow solution?

A

Change tissue vascularity via angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Two factors important in long term control of blood flow?

A
  1. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor

2. Angiogenin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F: SNS vasoconstrictors have alpha receptors

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the local vasodilator theory?

A

Active tissues release local vasodilators that relax vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the older theory regarding local vasodilation?

A

Oxygen Demand Theory; tissues use up oxygen and can’t maintain vasoconstriction and defaults to vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the flaw with the Oxygen Demand Theory?

A

Tissues on the upstream end would theoretically never vasodilate b/c they have a surplus of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F: Adenosine, NO, CO2, and Histamine are all examples of local vasodilators

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the important concept regarding angiogenesis and cancer growth?

A

If we could block tumors block supply by inhibiting angiogenesis, we could ideally choke off the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the up-regulation of monocyte-chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1) associated with?

A

Following stress to endothelium–>attraction of monocytes–>inflammation and eventual angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hypoxia stimulates the release of ______factor, regarding potential angiogenesis.

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F: Neuropeptide Y from parasympathetic nervous system is angiogenic

A

False: NPY is from SNS to enable angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is vasculogenesis?

A

development of NEW blood vessels from mesenchyme cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the big difference between angiogenesis and arteriogenesis?

A

Both sprout from pre-existing vessels but arteriogenesis have fully developed tunica media whereas angiogenesis usually lacks the developed tunica media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3 methods of therapeutic angiogenesis?

A 
Protein Therapy (GF proteins)
Gene Therapy (manipulate gene expression)
Cellular Therapy (cells that produce angiogenic factors introduced to ischemic tissue)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F: Prostacyclin promotes platelet aggreggation

A

False: promotes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggreggation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In response to shear stress, healthy endothelium releases ___, which acts as a vasodilator.

A

Nitric Oxide (NO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the vasoconstrictor released by damaged endothelium?

A

Endothelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the functional unit of the circulatory system?

A

Capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the intermittent contraction of metarterioles and pre capillary sphincters called?

A

Vasomotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Functional flow is associated with an increased ____?

A

oxygen uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

T/F: Non-nutritive flow increases are associated with shunting of blood thru a bed

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Starling forces consist are responsible for ultrafiltration by the means of which two pressure?

A

Hydrostatic P and Colloid Osmotic P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of molecules do capillaries utilize passive diffusion for?

A

Gases that meet permeability and concentration gradient standards use passive diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hydrostatic P gradient favors ___, whiles colloid osmotic P favors ___.

A

Hydrostatic-filtration (pushes fluid out)

Colloid Osmotic-reabsorption (draw fluid back in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T/F: Generally filtration rate=reabsorption rate

A

False: Filtration>Reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If filtration is more than reabsorption, why do we not end up with permanent edema?

A

Lymphatics manage the excess fluid pushed out of a vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the 3 main plasma proteins that assist with colloid osmotic pressure gradient?

A

Albumin (75%)
Globulins (25%)
Fibrinogen (<1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the Donnan Effect?

A

Increases colloid osmotic effect b/c large MW, negatively-charged plasma proteins attracting positive ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How much does the Donnan Effect increase the osmotic effect?

A

Increases by about 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where in the body would you find tight junctions on capillary wall? Discontinuous capillary walls? Fenestrated capillary walls?

A

Tight Junction=blood brain barrier
Discontinuous=liver
Fenestrations=glomerular capillaries of kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

T/F: Only proteins that cannot cross the capillary wall can exert osmotic pressure

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What would a reflection coefficient of 0 mean?

A

Proteins can readily cross capillary=no colloid effect

68
Q

Where in the body would the reflection coefficient be equal to 1?

A

Brain; all proteins reflected in capillary=full colloid effect

69
Q

T/F: There are no true lymphatics found in the superficial portions of skin

A

True: also none in CNS, bone, or endomysium of muscle

70
Q

What portion of the body does the right lymph duct drain? What drains the rest?

A

Right side of head, neck, and chest, and right arm. All else is thoracic duct’s responsibility

71
Q

What acts as the functional lymphatic system in CNS?

A

Perivascular spaces accumulate filtrate and send to dural venous sinuses via the arachnoid villi

72
Q

Where is 2/3 of all lymph derived from?

A

Liver and intestines

73
Q

T/F: Any factor that decreases filtration and increases reabsorption will increase lymph formation

A

False: INCR filtration and/or DECR reabsorption–>incr lymph formation

74
Q

What are lymph nodes?

A

Meshwork of sinuses lined with tissue macrophages serving as a defense function

75
Q

What is arterial blood pressure equal to?

A

volume of blood interacting with the wall

or (Art BP=CO-TPR)

76
Q

T/F: Greater that half of Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR) is at the level of the capillaries

A

False: …at the level of the systemic arterioles

77
Q

T/F: During systole, the left ventricular output is greater than peripheral runoff

A

True

78
Q

T/F: Falling systolic pressure during exercise is an ominous sign

A

True

79
Q

The recoil of arteries during ____ can act as a pump.

A

Diastole

80
Q

What is the phenomenon that converts an intermittent output by the heart to a steady delivery to the tissue?

A

Hydraulic filtering, (stretch of arteries during systole followed by the recoil during diastole)

81
Q

T/F: As age increases, hydraulic filtering decreases

A

True–> increased work load on the heart

82
Q

What is the maximum pressure in the systemic arteries?

A

Systolic Blood Pressure

83
Q

What 2 factors does diastolic BP depend on?

A

Cycle Length (CL) and Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR)

84
Q

Cycle length is_____ to diastolic BP, and TPR is ____to diastolic BP.

A

CL inversely proportional to DBP

TPR is proportional to DBP

85
Q

During exercise, DBP may not change much due to ___CL being offset by ___ in TPR.

A

Decreased CL, Decreased TPR

86
Q

If exercising and DBP increases, what factor is dominant?

And if DBP decreases?

A

Cycle Length dominant if DBP incr

TPR dominant if DBP decr

87
Q

Most post-ganglionic SNS terminals release what?

A

Norepinephrine

88
Q

What’s the primary receptor type for vascular smooth muscle: alpha, beta, gamma, delta?

A

Alpha

89
Q

T/F: Constriction of arterioles helps reduce blood flow and raise arteriole blood pressure

A

True

90
Q

What does constriction of veins do?

A

Mobilizes blood volume and increases venous return

91
Q

SNS stimulation causes widespread vasoconstriction to everywhere except?

A

Brain, Lungs, Heart

92
Q

Why does the heart not vasoconstrict upon SNS stimulation?

A

overridden by local vasodilators such as adenosine

93
Q

T/F: Brain and lungs receive only PNS stimulation

A

False: still weakly innervated by SNS

94
Q

What is the pressure below which flow ceases due to closure of arterioles: mean arterial BP, mean circulatory filling pressure, critical closing pressure?

A

Critical closing pressure

95
Q

T/F: An increase in wall tone will increase critical closing pressure

A

True

96
Q

If cardiac output stopped, arterial pressure will __, and venous pressure will __.

A

ABP will fall, VBP will rise

97
Q

T/F: if MCFP=Central Venous Pressure(CVP), then venous return goes to 0

A

True

98
Q

If central venous pressure increases, what happens to cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output increases

99
Q

A vascular function curve is comparing what two features?

A

Venous return to central venous pressure (inversely-proportional relationship)

100
Q

A cardiac function curve is comparing what two features?

A

Cardiac output to central venous pressure (proportional relationship)

101
Q

Where would you measure central venous pressure?

A

Right atrium

102
Q

T/F: The pressor center and the depressor center increase and decrease your blood pressure respectively.

A

True

103
Q

What does the sensory area of your vasomotor center mediate?

A

mediates baroreceptor reflex

104
Q

T/F: The cardioinhibitory area of the vasomotor center stimulates the phrenic nerve exclusively

A

False: stimulates Vagus Nerve (CNX)

105
Q

T/F: Increased baroreceptor input, increases SNS output

A

False: decreases SNS output

106
Q

Where is the pressor center and what does it cause?

A

anterolateral portion of upper medulla;

vasoconstriction and incr heart activity

107
Q

Where is the depressor center?

A

anterolateral portion of LOWER medulla

108
Q

Where is the sensory area of the vasomotor center?

A

Nucleus tractus solitaries of posterolateral portions of pons and medulla

109
Q

What 2 cranial nerves does the sensory area of the vasomotor center receive input from? Outputs to?

A

CN IX and CN X=input

pressor and depressor center=output

110
Q

Where is the cardioinhibitory area?

A

medially next to dorsal motor nucleus of vagus

111
Q

What’s considered the long term regulator of blood pressure?

A

Kidney’s system of renal-body fluid balance

112
Q

Where are baroreceptors especially abundant?

A

Carotid sinus

Arch of aorta

113
Q

Where do you find low pressure baroreceptors?

A

Atrial wall

Pulmonary arteries

114
Q

T/F: You could increase urine output as a way of lowering blood pressure

A

True

115
Q

What does the Bainbridge reflex do?

A

Increases heart rate

116
Q

T/F: Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) is a dirurectic, natriuretic, and a vasodilator

A

True

117
Q

Which arterioles of the kidney supply the glomerular capillaries: afferent or efferent?

A

Afferent supply GC, efferent drain GC

118
Q

What is the structure capable of concentrating urine?

A

Juxtamedullary nephrons

119
Q

Most autoregulation of the kidney occurs at the ___arterioles.

A

afferent arterioles

120
Q

T/F: Constriction of efferent arterioles will decrease both renal filtration and glomerular filtration

A

False: …will decrease renal F but will INCREASE glomerular F b/c of back pressure

121
Q

Normally, do we want an acute or a chronic renal output curve?

A

Chronic

122
Q

Who is more likely to have an acute renal output curve?

A

People w/ impaired kidney function

123
Q

Most elements of the chronic renal output curve work to lower blood pressure except ___ which promotes fluid and sodium loss to raise blood pressure.

A

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

124
Q

What 3 ‘hormones’ decrease renal blood flow via vasoconstriction?

A

Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Angiotensin II

125
Q

Prostaglandins do what to renal blood flow?

A

Increase RBF by vasodilating smooth muscle

126
Q

Decreased NaCl in macula densa of distal tubule, causes what 2 thing?

A
  1. stim renin release from juxtaglomerular cells (constrict efferent arterioles)
  2. dilation of afferent arterioles
127
Q

The combination of constricting efferent arterioles yet dilating afferent arterioles promotes what?

A

Filtration of kidney

128
Q

What is the major source of renin?

A

Smooth muscle cells in afferent arteriole

129
Q

T/F: Thyroid hormone secretion will decrease renin

A

False: Stimulates renin

130
Q

Describe Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System?

A

Angiotensinogen from liver forms Angiotensin I (via renin).

Angiotensin I–> Angiotensin II (via angiotensin converting enzyme)

131
Q

What does angiotensin II stimulate?

A
  1. release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex
  2. release of ADH/vasopressin from post-pituitary
  3. stim kidney
    (overall effect of increasing BP)
132
Q

T/F: Angiotensin I stimulates thirst/drinking behavior at the level of they hypothalamus

A

False: Angiotensin II

133
Q

T/F: if you tie off 1 renal artery, you will develop systemic hypertension but don’t develop uremia

A

True

134
Q

T/F: if you tie off one renal artery and remove kidney, don’t develop hypertension or uremia

A

True

135
Q

What would cause one to develop both hypertension and uremia?

A

Tie off and removal of both kidneys

136
Q

What is the name for hypertension developed due to the tying off of a renal artery?

A

Goldblatt hypertensive model

137
Q

Does slow breathing play a role in BP control?

A

Yes, slow breathing–> decrease in both syst BP and diast BP

138
Q

How do antioxidants play a role in lowering BP?

A

Antioxidants bind to superoxide radical preventing it from inactivating nitric oxide, (a vasodilator)

139
Q

____ and ____ are humoral substances that promote bradycardia and hypotension by inhibiting SNS activity.

A

Serotonin and Nitric Oxide

140
Q

What is the site of gas exchange in a fetus?

A

Placenta

141
Q

Blood returns to the fetus from the placenta via what?

A

Umbilical veins

142
Q

What are the 2 means of bypassing the lungs in a fetus?

A

Ductus Arteriosus and Foramen Ovale

143
Q

The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the ___ ___ to the ____.

A

Pulmonary trunk–>DA–>aorta

144
Q

T/F: The ductus venosus shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium

A

False, that would be the foramen ovale

145
Q

What is the ductus venosus?

A

Shunts blood past liver;

Umbilical vein/portal vein–>DV–> Inferior Vena Cava

146
Q

T/F: Umbilical veins operate at 80% oxygen saturation, a much lower value than normal

A

True

147
Q

What causes the closure of the foramen ovale?

A

reversal of pressure gradient between RA and LA

148
Q

T/F: Closure of the ductus arteriosus is due to a reversal of flow from aorta to inferior vena cava

A

False: ..flow from aorta to PULMONARY ARTERY

149
Q

A left to right shunt, flowing from aorta to pulmonary trunk, creating a machinery murmur is called what?

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

150
Q

What is a ventricular septal defect?

A

membranous septum separating ventricles is not fully formed

151
Q

What is a transposition of great vessels?

A

RV–>systemic

LV–>lung

152
Q

How could a transposition of great vessels be fixed?

A

Create a ventricular septal defect, so blood could flow freely between ventricles

153
Q

4 factors of Tetrology of Fallot?

A
  1. RV hypertrophy
  2. Large Ventricular Septal Defect
  3. RV outflow obstruction
  4. Overriding aorta
154
Q

2 symptoms seen in children with Tetrology of Fallot?

A
  1. Cyanosis

2. Dyspnea relieved by squatting

155
Q

___ is the greatest stress you can put on the CV system.

A

Exercise

156
Q

T/F: During exercise, blood flow is shifted to active skeletal muscle

A

True

157
Q

Why would SNS stimulation vasoconstrict veins?

A

Incr MCFP and incr venous return

158
Q

T/F: TPR increases due to vasodilation in active muscle during exercise

A

False: vasodilation causes TPR decrease

159
Q

T/F: Exercise–> Incr O2 uptake–>decreased VO2–> incr AVO2 difference

A

True

160
Q

Does SNS affect both SV and HR or only one of the above?

A

SNS increases both

161
Q

What is Pulse Pressure?

A

Pulse Pressure= Sys BP- Diast BP

162
Q

What is the “venous pump” utilized during exercise?

A

Skeletal muscle of lower extremities contract pushing blood upstream and can’t flow back down with gravity b/c of presence of valves

163
Q

How does active muscle escape system-wide vasoconstriction of SNS?

A

Local vasodilators like adenosine, CO2, K+, Histamine, and Lactic acid

164
Q

Conditioning your body results in increased ____ ____.

A

Stroke volume

165
Q

Respiration remains high post-exercise; what is this extra O2 used for?

A

Restore metabolite levels, and metabolize lactate generated by glycolysis

166
Q

What system is utilized during the first 10 seconds of exercise?

A

Phosphocreatine-Creatine System

CVP (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions