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Organ Systems III > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the structure of the external ear

A

Auricle made of of elastic cartilage with many regions (helix, antihelix, tragus, antitragus, concha, and lobule
There are also sebaceous glands associated with hairs on the external ear

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2
Q

What do ceruminous glands secrete? What is the function?

A

Cerumen - makes up ear wax along with sebaceous secretions and desquamated meatal cells - protects ear canal against pysical damage and microbial invasion

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3
Q

Which nerves provide sensory innervation to the external ear?

A 
Greater auricular
Lesser occipital
Auriculotemporal (V3)
Facial
Vagus
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4
Q

What nerve innervates the middle ear?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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5
Q

What structures are found in the middle ear?

A

Tympanic cavity, containing ossicles and their muscles

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6
Q

What are the ossicles? What is their function?

A

Malleus is vibrated by tympanic membrane
Incus transmits vibration from malleus to stapes
Stapes transmits vibrations through oval window into cochlea
*The tympanic membrane collects energy through vibration in a large area and transmits through ossicles to the smallest area of the stapes, ultimately transmitting that energy in the fluid of the inner ear to sense sound

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7
Q

What are the functions of the Tensor tympani and the stapedius muscles?`

A

They dampen ossicle movement to protect against loud noises - innverated by V3 and VII respectively

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8
Q

What is the chorda tympani?

A

Branch from fascial nerve (VII) in the tympanic cavity that joins V3, containing both sensory and autonomic neurons
Sensory neurons innervate anterior 2/3 of tongue
Parasympathetic neurons innervate submandibular and sublingual salivary glands
*Susceptible to infection (otitis media)

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9
Q

What is the umbo?

A

Central depression in the tympanic membrane created by tension of the malleus

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10
Q

What is otitis media?

A

Infection/inflammation of the middle ear - can spread to cause meningitis or brain abscess

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11
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

Skin cysts that migrate through ear canal and perforate tympanic membrane to damage middle ear

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12
Q

Describe the organization of the cochlea.

A

Helical bony canal, divided into 3 spaces - cochlear duct (scala media), scala vestibuli, and scala tympani

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13
Q

What is endolymph? Where is it found? What about Perilymph?

A

Endolymph is fluid (high K+) secreted by stria vascularis into the cochlear duct
Perilymph is fluid (high Na+) found is the surrounding scala vestibuli and scala tympani, separated by vestibular and basilar membranes

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14
Q

What is the oval window? What about the round window?

A

The oval window is at the base of the stapes and triggers fluid vibration of perilymph through scala vestibuli.
The round window absorbs fluid vibrations that are transmitted through the scala vestibuli and continuous scala tympani

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15
Q

What is the organ of corti?

A

Refers to the the inner and outer layers of non-neural receptor ‘hair cells’ covered by the tectorial membrane within the cochlear duct that activate sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve

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16
Q

How do hair cells of the organ of corti ultimately trigger sensory nerves?

A

Distortion of stereocilia due to movement of endolymph causes physically gated K channels to open leading to deplarization and release of transmitters that trigger sensory neurons (cochlear nerve)

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17
Q

How are different pitches perceived?

A

Frequency of incoming sound waves travels along length of basilar membrane, producing a maximal amplitude at the place on the membrane where vibratory resonance occurs (membrane stiffness + hair cell length)

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18
Q

How do inner hair cells differ from outer hair cells?

A

Inner hair cells respond to specific frequencies of sound and transmit information to the brain - fewer, but the primary cell innervated by cochlear nerve axons
Outer hair cells serve as mechanical amplifiers

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19
Q

What is a major mechanism for age-related hearing loss? Why is it primarily high frequency hearing that is lost?

A

Destruction of outer hair cells from loud noises - lack of amplification and sharpening of sound
Hair cells at the base of cochlea resonate with higher frequencies, and these are the cells that are first lost

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20
Q

Differentiate between the dorsal and ventral auditory path to the brain.

A

DORSAL registers the quality of sound (What is it?)
Dorsal cochlear nucleus of medulla –> lateral leminscus –> inferior colliculus –> medial geniculate –> primary auditory cortex (temporal lobe)
VENTRAL localizes the sound (Where is it?)
Ventral cochlear nucleus (medulla) –> superior olivary complex (medulla) –> lateral leminscus –> inferior colliculus –> medial geniculate –> primary auditory cortex (temporal lobe)

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21
Q

What is the main function of the inferior colliculus?

A

Receives auditory and somatosensory input so that the head/body can be oriented for sound localization

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22
Q

What is the difference between the ventral and dorsal stream for auditory association?

A

Ventral stream is for comprehension, through Wernicke’s area to integrate aspects of language
Dorsal stream is involved with sensory-motor integration for vocal articulation, through Broca’s area

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23
Q

What is auditory selective attention?

A

Efferent olivocochlear neurons from superior olive terminate on outer and inner hair cells to regulate their sensitivity to sound - gets rid of background noice

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24
Q

What are the two types of deafness?

A

Conductive deafness - due to mechanical damage

Sensorineural deafness - due to nerve/cochlea damage

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25
Q

What is subjective tinnitus?

A

Phantom auditory perception - abnormal neural activity, often as a result of hearing loss with an attempt to compensate through conditioning the dorsal cochlear nucleus

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26
Q

What is somatic tinnitus?

A

Form of subjective tinnitus, usually triggered by somatosensory stressors via trigeminal/dorsal ganglia

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27
Q

What are the structural components of the vestibular system?

A

Semicircular ducts within the semicircular canals + the saccule and utricle within the vestibule

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28
Q

Where does endolymph drain? What about perilymph?

A

Endolymph, secreted by cochlear ducts drains into the dural sinuses via endolymphatic duct
Perilymph, secreted by the periosteum and drains into CSF via the perilymphatic duct

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29
Q

What is Meniere’s disease?

A

Transient vertigo/dizziness due to excess endolymph/pressure affecting receptor functions

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30
Q

Describe the orientation of the 3 semicircular ducts.

A

Anterior, horizontal, and posterior - oriented to detect movement in 3 planes of space

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31
Q

What is the crista (ampullaris)?

A

A receptor in the ampulla (base) of each semicircular canal containing epithelium of receptor cells (hair cells) that contain sterocilia which project into the surrounding cupula

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32
Q

How does the macula detect movement information?

A

Macule of saccule and utricle are oriented in vertical and horizontal planes respectively, containing hair cells that optimally respond to acceleration in direction of alignment

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33
Q

What are otoliths? How are they involved with vestibular system?

A

Otoliths are calcium carbonate stones embedded in gelatinous layer of maculae and function to resist movement, causing bend of hair cells

34
Q

What information is carried in the vestibular nerve?

A

Sensory info from neurons of the semicircular canals, saccule, and utricle converge to form the vestibular nerve which converges with the cochlear to form CN VIII

35
Q

What is an acoustic neuroma? What can it potentially cause?

A

A benign tumor of myelin forming cells of the inferior vestibular nerve
Can cause ipsilateral deafness/tinitus and vestibular disturbance

36
Q

What causes benign paroxysamal positional vertigo?

A

Otoliths, dislodged from injury, infection, or age related degeneration fall into semicircular canals and trigger apparent motion from crista causing dizziness, vertigo, and nausea - can be put into place by quickly moving head/body side to side.

37
Q

Where does the vestibular nerve send info to in the brain?

A

Vestibular nuclei of brain stem and the vestibulo-cerebellum (flocculonodular lobe)

38
Q

Describe the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR).

A

Eye movements are adjusted to rotation of head to fix gaze - rightward rotation causes diversion of eyes to the left

39
Q

What is nystagmus?

A

Involuntary saccadic movements when the eyeball is moving - can be physiological (VOR) or pathological, from damaged vestibular system

40
Q

What is the vestibulo-sympathetic reflex (VSR)? What structure of the brain is involved?

A

Vestibular activity modulates autonomic/limbic activity in response to locomotion and postural changes
RVLM takes vestibular info and transmits info to sympathetic neurons of the intermediolateral cell column of the spinal cord to enhance vasoconstriction to protect against syncope

41
Q

What are the major components of the vestibular cortex?

A

Parietal and insula - TPJ and PIVC

TPJ reflects visuo-vestibular effects on self-location, embodiment, and first person perspective

42
Q

What is autoscopy?

A

Lack of congruence among sensory inputs, leading to seeing one’s own body separately in space
Autoscopic hallucination - seeing double of oneself
Heautosopy - seeing double, without certainty which is Self
Out of body experience - feeling self-center of awareness outside of physical body

43
Q

How does the vestibular system regulate cerebral blood flow?

A

When standing up, blood pressure drops - adequate cerebral blood flow is maintained as vestibular system acts via sympathetic inhibition and parasympathetic activation to dilate vessels while maintaining MAP via baroreceptor and vestibular mediated vasoconstriction

44
Q

What are filigorm papillae?

A

Not taste buds, but sense touch, pain, and temperature on the tongue

45
Q

What are fungiform papillae?

A

taste buds found on the anterior part of the tongue

46
Q

What are circumvallate papillae?

A

taste buds distributed in the shape of an inverted V near the back of the tongue

47
Q

What are foliate papillae?

A

taste buds located in small trenches on the sides of the posterior tongue

48
Q

What are the 5 main tastes that we sense?

A

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami - taste buds throughout tongue are tuned to a specific taste

49
Q

What are ‘supertasters’?

A

Those who have a heightened response to taste (usually women, asians, africans, and s. americans) likely due more, smaller, and closely arranged fungiform papillae

50
Q

How do tastants stimulate taste?

A

Tastants are molecules that interact with ionotropic or metabotropic receptors to stimulate depolarization and transmitter release to increase firing of afferent nerve

51
Q

Which tastes trigger ion channels and which trigger 2nd messengers?

A

Salt - triggers Na+ channel
Sour - triggers H+ channel
Sweet - triggers cAMP
Bitter/umami - trigger IP3

52
Q

How does GLP-1 affect taste reception?

A

Glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1) is released from taste cells in response to food, acting to alter cell responsiveness to taste - associated with intestinal activity

53
Q

Which cranial nerves provide sensation of the tongue?

A

Facial (VII) - anterior 2/3
Glossopharyngeal (IX) - posterior 1/3
Vagus (X) - palate/epiglottis

54
Q

What is the pathway for taste sensation to the primary gustatory cortex?

A

Taste neurons –> solitary nucleus of medulla –> ventral posterior medial nucleus (VPL) of thalamus –> primary gustatory cortex of the insula –> secondary gustatory cortex (orbitofrontal cortex) - appreciation/reward/decisions

55
Q

How do odorants activate receptor cells?

A

Mucus-soluble odorants bind to specific olfactory receptor cell (1 of 300) in the nasal cavity which lead to Na/Ca and Cl channels to open, depolarization, and AP generation

56
Q

What is meant by sensory adaptation?

A

Decreased activity with prolonged stimulation - inhibition closes ion channels

57
Q

What are mitral cells?

A

Mitral cells are neurons located in the olfactory bulb that synapse with olfactory receptor cells that carry sensory info through cribiform plate of ethmoid to CN I

58
Q

Where does the olfactory bulb take sensory information to be processed?

A

Piriform cortex on the medial surface of the temporal lobe processes consciousness, singularity, and habituation of odors
From the piriform cortex, info is transmitted to the amygdala, hippocampus, and prefrontal cortex

59
Q

What does the amygdala do with olfactory information? What about the hippocampus?

A

Amygdala generates emotion and associative learning which influences cognition
Hippocampus forms long term memory associated with smell

60
Q

What does the orbitofrontal cortex do with olfactory information?

A

Orbitofrontal cortex receives info from piriform and amygdala, creating subjective pleasantness of odors in association to taste, texture, and visual inputs to produce valuation

61
Q

How can pathogens potentially infect the CNS through the olfaction?

A

Olfactory receptors make direct contact with external environment and the brain (olfactory bulb) - pathogens can transported along axons to limbic system, inducing behavioral disturbances or meningitis

62
Q

How does insulin delivered to the CNS through the nose?

A

Insulin can be strayed into nasal mucosa, transported extracellularly along axons and into brain - doesn’t involve crossing BBB

63
Q

What bones of the neurocranium and viscerocranium are membranous? Which are cartilagenous?

A

The cranial vault and face bones are membranous bones

The cranial base, ossicles, and hyoid are cartilagenous bones

64
Q

How are cartilagenous bones formed? What about membranous?

A

Cartilagenous bones are formed through endochondral ossification
Membranous bones are formed through intramembranous ossification

65
Q

What is the spenooccipital and spheno-ethmoidal synchondrosis joints?

A

These joints are the source of longitudinal and lateral growth of the skull, which close in mid-teens

66
Q

What is the cranial base angle, and how does it affect the shape of the face?

A

Angle between occipital and sphenoid bones predicts the position of the mandible
Large angle is associated with square jaw and overbite
Small angle is associated with wide angle mandibles and mandibular protrusion (underbite)

67
Q

What cells form the pharyngeal arches?

A

Mesenchyme and neural crest cells

68
Q

What structures are formed from the pharyngeal arches?

A

Anterior neck and face (viscerocranium)

69
Q

What nerve, bones/cartilage, and muscles are associated with the mandibular arch?

A

Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Mandible, maxilla, zygomatic, malleus, incus, temporal
Masticators, ant. digastric, tensor tympani, palati

70
Q

What nerve, bones/cartilage, and muscles are associated with the hyoid arch?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)
Styloid process, hyoid, stapes
Muscles of facial expression, post. digastric, sylohyoid, stapedius

71
Q

What nerve, bones/cartilage, and muscles are associated with the 3rd arch?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Hyoid bone
Stylopharyngeus

72
Q

What nerve, bones/cartilage, and muscles are associated with the 4th/6th arch?

A

Vagus nerve (CN X)
Larynx
Muscles of pharynx/larynx

73
Q

What develops from the pharyngeal (hyomandibular) groove?

A

External acoustic meatus

74
Q

What develops from the first pharyngeal pouch?

A

Tympanic cavity/auditory tube

75
Q

What develops from the second pharyngeal pouch?

A

Palatine tonsil

76
Q

What develops from the third pharyngeal pouch?

A

Thymus and parathyroud

77
Q

What develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch?

A

Parathyroid and thyroid C cells

Thyroid descends from base of tongue through foramen cecum, thyroglossal duct, anterior to hyoid bone and larynx

78
Q

What causes a cleft lip?

A

Maxillary and medial nasal prominance fail to fuse due to issues with signaling factors

79
Q

What causes a cleft palate?

A

Palatine processes of maxella do not fuse with septum to separate oral from nasal cavities

80
Q

What physical features are associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, and eyes wide apart

Organ Systems III (5 decks)

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