Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Penicillin drug class?

A

beta lactam antibiotic

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2
Q

cephalosporin drug class?

A

beta lactam antibiotic

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3
Q

monobactam drug class?

A

beta lactam antibiotic

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4
Q

carbapenem drug class?

A

beta lactam antibiotic

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5
Q

what do all beta lactam antibiotics share?

A

the same beta lactam ring

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6
Q

penicillin VK drug class?

A

penicillin (beta lactam)

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7
Q

amoxicillin drug class?

A

penicillin (beta lactam)

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8
Q

amoxicillin/clavulanate drug class?

A

penicillin (beta lactam)

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9
Q

penicillins- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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10
Q

penicillins- mechanism of action?

A

prevents bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to and inhibiting cell wall transpeptidases

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11
Q

streptococcal infection, meningococcal infection, neurosyphilis- indications for what drug class?

A

penicillin (beta lactam)

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12
Q

cephalosporin- mechanism of action?

A

prevents bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to and inhibiting cell wall transpeptidases

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13
Q

cephalosporin- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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14
Q

example of 1st gen cephalosporin?

A

cephalexin

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15
Q

example of 2nd gen cephalosporin?

A

cefuroxime

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16
Q

example of 3rd gen cephalosporin?

A

ceftriaxone

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17
Q

example of 4th gen cephalosporin?

A

cefepime

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18
Q

example of 5th gen cephalosporin?

A

ceftaroline

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19
Q

soft tissue infections, UTI- indications for which gen cephalosporins?

A

1st gen cephalosporins

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20
Q

indications for 1st gen cephalosporins?

A

soft tissue infections, UTI

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21
Q

indications for 2nd gen cephalosporins?

A

improved acuity versus pneumococcus and H. influenzae

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22
Q

indications for 3rd gen cephalosporins?

A

pneumonia, meningitis, pyelonephritis, gonorrhea
PMPG

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23
Q

pneumonia, meningitis, pyelonephritis, gonorrhea- indications for what class? PMPG

A

3rd gen cephalosporins

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24
Q

indications for 4th gen cephalosporins?

A

broad activity, improved stability to chromosomal beta lactamases

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25
Q

indications for 5th gen cephalosporins?

A

methicillin-resistant staph, broad gram negative activity (not including p aeruginosa)

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26
Q

methicillin-resistant staph, broad gram negative activity not including p aeruginosa? Which gen cephalosporins

A

5th gen cephalosporins

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27
Q

example of a carbapenem drug?

A

imipenem

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28
Q

imipenem- drug class?

A

carbapenem

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29
Q

carbapenems- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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30
Q

carbanemens- broad drug class?

A

beta lactam antibiotic

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31
Q

carbapenem- mechanism of action?

A

prevents bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to and inhibiting cell wall transpeptidases

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32
Q

indications for carbapenems?

A

serious infections like pneumonia and sepsis

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33
Q

example of glycopeptide?

A

vancomycin

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34
Q

vancomycin- MOA?

A

inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

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35
Q

infections caused by gram positive bacteria; sepsis, endocarditis, meningitis, c diff colitis

A

glycopeptides

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36
Q

indication for oral vanc?

A

c diff colitis

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37
Q

example drug of monobactams?

A

aztreonam

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38
Q

aztreonam- drug class?

A

monobactam

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39
Q

monobactam drug class?

A

beta lactam antibiotic

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40
Q

monobactam- MOA?

A

prevents bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to and inhibiting cell wall transpeptidases

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41
Q

infections caused by aerobic, gram negative bacteria in patients with immediate hypersensitivity to PCNs

A

monobactam

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42
Q

indication for monobactams?

A

infections caused by aerobic, gram negative bacteria in patients with immediate hypersensitivity to penicillins

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43
Q

what does addition of clavulanate do?

A

broadens spectrum of coverage and reduces resistance

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44
Q

what causes resistance to penicillins?

A

resistance comes from bacteria that produce betalactamase as well as alterations in penicillin binding sites

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45
Q

penicillin spectrum of coverage?

A

gram positive, gram negative cocci, non beta lactactamase-producing anaerobes

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46
Q

are penicillins safe in pregnancy?

A

yes

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47
Q

when should oral penicillins be given?

A

1-2 hours before or after a meal (except amoxicillin)

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48
Q

why should oral pencillins be given 1-2 hours before or after a meal?

A

to minimize binding to food proteins and acid inactivation

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49
Q

large doses of pencillins may cause what?

A

GI upset, especially N/V/D

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50
Q

what two drugs can be associated with skin rashes when prescribed in viral illness? (From penicillin class)

A

ampicillin and amoxicillin

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51
Q

Epstein-barr virus infection and prescription of what drugs can cause rash?

A

ampicillin and amoxicillin

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52
Q

ampicillin and amoxicillin are associated with what adverse effect?

A

skin rash in setting of viral infection, esp with EBV

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53
Q

drugs that end in -icillin?

A

penicllins

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54
Q

what is a limiting factor in using a pencillin derivative to treat an infection?

A

bacterial production of beta lactamases

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55
Q

what drug is the exception to giving pencillins 1-2 hours before or after a meal?

A

amoxicillin

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56
Q

brand name for amoxicillin/clavulanate?

A

augmentin

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57
Q

generic name for augmentin?

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate

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58
Q

patient education for penicillins?

A

GI upset especially with high doses (pneumonia)

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59
Q

what percentage of the population will report a penicillin allergy?

A

0.1

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60
Q

how many generations of cephalosporins?

A

5

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61
Q

coverage of 1st gen cephalosporins?

A

gram positive- staph and strep

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62
Q

cephalexin and cephazolin- what generation?

A

1st gen cephalosporins

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63
Q

cefaclor and cefotetan- what generation?

A

2nd gen cephalosporins

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64
Q

cefdinir and ceftriaxone- what generation?

A

3rd gen cephalosporins

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65
Q

cefepime- what generation?

A

4th gen cephalosporins

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66
Q

ceftaroline- what generation?

A

5th gen cephalosporins

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67
Q

3rd gen cephalosporins?

A

more gram negative coverage

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68
Q

some of what generation of cephalosporins are able to cross BBB?

A

3rd gen cephalosporins

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69
Q

broad gram-negative coverage and effective against MRSA and enterococci? (ceph gen?)

A

5th gen cephalosporins

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70
Q

action of cephalosporins?

A

inhibits cell wall mucopeptide synthesis

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71
Q

cephalosporins- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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72
Q

what percentage of patients with pencillin allergy may have a cephalosporin allergy?

A

0.01

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73
Q

cephalosporins are more stable to what?

A

many beta lactamases

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74
Q

which has a better spectrum of coverage- penicillins or cephalosporins?

A

cephalosporins

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75
Q

cephalosporins- drug class?

A

beta lactam antibiotic

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76
Q

penicillins and cephalosporin cross-sensitivity, why?

A

same beta lactam ring

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77
Q

is a rash to penicillin ok to prescribe cephalosporin?

A

yes, just avoid if airway issues (anaphylaxis)

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78
Q

example of monobactam drug?

A

aztreonam

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79
Q

monobactams- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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80
Q

monobactam- spectrum of coverage?

A

aerobic, gram negative organisms

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81
Q

monobactam- covers aerobic or anaerobic?

A

aerobic

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82
Q

monobactam- covers gram positive or gram negative?

A

gram negative

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83
Q

monobactams have NO coverage against what?

A

gram positive orgs or anaerobes

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84
Q

monobactams- coverage against gram positive? Yes/no

A

no

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85
Q

monobactams- coverage against anaerobes? Yes/no

A

no

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86
Q

monobactams- stable to many beta lactamases? Yes/no

A

yes

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87
Q

do monobactams penetrate CSF? Yes/no

A

yes

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88
Q

monobactams- ok to give with pencillin allergy?

A

yes

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89
Q

do monobactams cross BBB?

A

yes

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90
Q

imipenem- drug class?

A

carbapenem

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91
Q

doripenem- drug class?

A

carbapenem

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92
Q

meropenem- drug class?

A

carbapenem

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93
Q

carbapenem- MOA- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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94
Q

imipenem- spectrum of coverage?

A

gram-negative rods, gram positive organisms, anarobes

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95
Q

doripenem and meropenem have slightly less what?

A

slightly less gram positive coverage and slightly more gram-negative aerobe coverage

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96
Q

do carbapenems penetrate CSF?

A

yes

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97
Q

when are carbapenems used?

A

difficult to treat infections

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98
Q

what lab should be monitored with carbapenem?

A

renal function

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99
Q

common side effects of carbapenems? (3)

A

nausea, vomiting, skin rash

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100
Q

what beta lactam class penetrates body fluids very well?

A

carbapenems

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101
Q
A
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102
Q
A
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103
Q
A
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104
Q
A
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105
Q

renal function should be monitored with which beta lactam?

A

carbapenems

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106
Q

glycopeptide- what class?

A

Inhibits cell wall and RNA synthesis

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107
Q

example of beta lactam glycopeptide?

A

vancomycin

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108
Q

vancomycin- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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109
Q

vancomycin- MOA?

A

inhibits cell wall and RNA synthesis

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110
Q

which antibiotic? Inhibits cell wall and RNA synthesis

A

vancomycin
Glycopeptide

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111
Q

when is vancomycin used?

A

difficult to treat infections including MRSA and c diff

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112
Q

monitoring for vancomycin?

A

renal dosing, peak and trough levels

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113
Q

red man syndrome- which antibiotic?

A

vancomycin

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114
Q

refers to redness and flushing due to infusing too quickly?

A

red man syndrome

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115
Q

why is vancomycin usually given IV?

A

poor oral absorption

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116
Q

oral absorption of vancomycin?

A

poor

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117
Q

MRSA and cdiff- what antibiotic?

A

vancomycin

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118
Q

MRSA?

A

methicillin resistant staph aureus

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119
Q

oral versus IV for MRSA?

A

consider appropriate route based on severity of symptoms

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120
Q

most common folate antagonist?

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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121
Q

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin- drug class?

A

fluoroquinolones

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122
Q

tetracycline, doxycycline- drug class?

A

tetracyclines

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123
Q

doxycycline- drug class?

A

tetracyclines

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124
Q

erythromycin, drug class?

A

macrolides

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125
Q

azithromycin, drug class?

A

macrolides

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126
Q

clindamycin- drug class?

A

lincosamide

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127
Q

lincosamide- example?

A

clindamycin

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128
Q

tetracycline- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bacteriostatic

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129
Q

tetracycline- MOA?

A

inhibits protein synthesis

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130
Q

tetracyclines- spectrum of coverage?

A

gram positive and gram negative

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131
Q

do not give to children under 8 or in pregnancy- drug class?

A

tetracyclines

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132
Q

may affect tooth enamel or impair bone growth- drug class?

A

tetracyclines

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133
Q

tetracyclines safe in pregnancy?

A

no

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134
Q

tetracyclines safe in children?

A

no

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135
Q

tetracyclines and antacids?

A

do not given within 2 hours of antacids

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136
Q

doxycycline- common problem?

A

causes photosensitivity

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137
Q

three examples of macrolides?

A

erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

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138
Q

macrolides- MOA?

A

protein synthesis inhibitor

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139
Q

macrolides- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bacteriostatic; may be bactericidal at higher concentrations

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140
Q

macrolides- spectrum of coverage?

A

gram positive (pneumococci, strep, staph), gram negative (h influenzae) and atypical bacteria (mycoplasma)

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141
Q

risk with macrolides?

A

QT prolongation

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142
Q

what class has coverage against M pneumoniae?

A

macrolides

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143
Q

back up for strep in patients allergic to penicillin?

A

macrolides

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144
Q

erythromycin- common ADE?

A

diarrhea and cramping

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145
Q

why does erythromycin cause diarrhea and cramping?

A

stimulates the motilin receptors of the GI tract

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146
Q

why is erythromycin rarely used?

A

diarrhea and cramping; other macrolides are better tolerated

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147
Q

why is there increasing resistance to macrolides?

A

due to overuse of azithromycin

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148
Q

QT prolongation high risk antibiotic class?

A

macrolides (look at other meds the patient is on)

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149
Q

zofran risk?

A

QT prolongation

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150
Q

do SSRIs cause QT prolongation?

A

yes

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151
Q

clindamycin- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bacteriostatic; may be bactericidal at higher concentrations

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152
Q

clindamycin- MOA?

A

inhibits protein synthesis

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153
Q

clindamycin- spectrum of coverage?

A

gram positive (strep, staph, pneumococci), some MRSA coverage, some anaerobe coverage

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154
Q

used in treatment of severe infections like necrotizing fasciitis or toxic shock syndrome

A

clindamycin + penicillin

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155
Q

clindamycin + penicillin used when?

A

necrotizing fasciitis or toxic shock sydrome

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156
Q

high risk antibiotic for c diff?

A

clindamycin

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157
Q

clindamycin adverse effect?

A

GI upset; c diff colitis

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158
Q

oxazolidinones- example?

A

linezolid

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159
Q

linezolid- drug class?

A

oxazolidinones

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160
Q

linezolid- MOA?

A

inhibits protein synthesis

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161
Q

linezolid- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

can be bacteriostatic or bactericidal (Against strep)

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162
Q

linezolid- spectrum of coverage?

A

gram positive (staph, strep, enterococci), gram-positive anaerobes, MRSA

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163
Q

when is linezolid used?

A

very resistant infections such as vancomycin resistant

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164
Q

med for vent associated pneumonia?

A

linezolid

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165
Q

med used as part of anthrax regimen?

A

linezolid

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166
Q

off label use of linezolid?

A

tuberculosis

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167
Q

what antibiotic increases risk of serotonin syndrome?

A

linezolid

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168
Q

adverse effect of linezolid?

A

hematologic abnormalities- anemia, neutropenia

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169
Q

anemia, neutropenia, what antibiotic?

A

linezolid

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170
Q

what are the hematologic abnormalities with linezolid?

A

anemia, neutropenia

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171
Q

SNRIs and SSRIs, problem with linezolid?

A

risk for serotonin syndrome

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172
Q

lab monitoring- linezolid?

A

heme abnormalities

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173
Q

examples of folate antagonists?

A

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

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174
Q

drug class- sulfonamides, trimethoprim?

A

folate antagonists

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175
Q

sulfonamides and trimethoprim- bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal when used together

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176
Q

sulfonamides and trimethoprim- MOA?

A

inhibits folic acid synthesis

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177
Q

sulfonamides and trimethoprim- spectrum of coverage?

A

gram positive, gram negative, and MRSA

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178
Q

skin infection, UTI- indications for what drug?

A

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

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179
Q

contraindication for sulfa/trimethoprim? (Drug interaction)

A

do not use with coumadin

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180
Q

coumadin should not be used with which antibiotic?

A

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

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181
Q

common side effect of sulfa/trimethoprim?

A

sun sensitivity

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182
Q

high risk of rash/SJS- which antibiotic?

A

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

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183
Q

severe skin reaction to antibiotics, life-threatening complications? Skin slough

A

stevens johnsons syndrome

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184
Q

SJS- blistering around mouth, eyes, mucosal membranes- which antibiotic?

A

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

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185
Q

rash on bactrim?

A

SJS- can present late in course of treatment, STOP THE DRUG

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186
Q

levofloxacin- drug class?

A

fluoroquinolones

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187
Q

ciprofloxacin, drug class?

A

fluoroquinolones

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188
Q

fluoroquinolones- MOA?

A

DNA synthesis inhibitor

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189
Q

spectrum of coverage- fluoroquinolones?

A

excellent gram-negative coverage, moderate gram-positive coverage, atypical bacteria

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190
Q

UTI, soft tissue, bones, joints, respiratory tract- indications for what class?

A

fluoroquinolones

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191
Q

effective against multi-drug resistance organisms?

A

fluoroquinolones

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192
Q

puncture wounds?

A

fluoroquinolones

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193
Q

cipro interactions with what drug?

A

warfarin

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194
Q

cipro interaction with warfarin?

A

increased INR

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195
Q

pseudomonas and enterobacter- what class?

A

fluoroquinolones

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196
Q

respiratory tract infections/pneumonia, which fluoroquinolones?

A

levofloxacin

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197
Q

antibiotic class with high risk of tendon rupture?

A

fluoroquinolones

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198
Q

fluoroquinolones- safe in pregnancy?

A

no

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199
Q

fluoroquinolones- safe in children?

A

no

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200
Q

fluoroquinolones- QT prolongation? Yes/no

A

yes

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201
Q

four classes of antibiotics with prolonged QT interval?

A

macrolides, fluoroquinolones, clindamycin, TMP-SMX

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202
Q

age risk for antibiotic QT prolongation?

A

> 65

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203
Q

gender risk for antibiotic QT prolongation?

A

women

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204
Q

bradycardia or tachycardia- risk for antibiotic QT prolongation?

A

bradycardia

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205
Q

left ventricular failure- risk for what with antibiotics?

A

QT prolongation

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206
Q

electrolyte abnormalities- risk for what with antibiotics?

A

QT prolongation

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207
Q

hepatic dysfunction- risk for what adverse effect of antibiotics?

A

QT prolongation

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208
Q

congenital prolonged QT- risk for what with antibiotics?

A

further QT prolongation

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209
Q

polypharmacy- risk for what with antibiotics?

A

QT prolongation

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210
Q

less EPS with typical or atypical Aps?

A

atypical Aps

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211
Q

anticholinergic effects, less with typical or atypical AP?

A

atypical AP

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212
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome, less with typical or atypical AP?

A

atypical AP

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213
Q

do EPS always resolve with typical AP?

A

no

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214
Q

OCD off label use for what class?

A

atypical AP

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215
Q

psychosis associated with dementia- off label use for what class?

A

atypical AP

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216
Q

schizophrenia and other causes of psychosis- indication for what class?

A

atypical AP

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217
Q

bipolar, mania- indication for what class?

A

atypical AP

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218
Q

atypical AP- MOA?

A

cortical blockade of serotonin receptors, serotonin not blocking dopamine release, more dopamine sent to prefrontal cortex

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219
Q

weight gain, diabetes mellitus, dyslipidemia, cardiovascular disease predisposition- what class?

A

atypical AP

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220
Q

insulin resistance- what class?

A

atypical AP

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221
Q

adverse effect profile- worse with what atypical AP?

A

olanzapine

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222
Q

EPS, TD, NMS- worse with which AP?

A

typical

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223
Q

increased risk of mortality in patients with dementia-related psychosis- what class

A

atypical AP

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224
Q

orthostatic hypotension, syncope, falls with head injury- what class?

A

atypical AP

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225
Q

hyperprolactinemia- what class?

A

atypical AP

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226
Q

QT prolongation risk with atypical AP?

A

yes

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227
Q

atypical AP (2) with QT prolongation?

A

ziprasidone and quetiapine

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228
Q

ziprasidone and quetiapine risk?

A

QT prolongation

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229
Q

atypical AP- pregnancy safe?

A

no

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230
Q

atypical AP- children?

A

no

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231
Q

avoid use of atypical AP in what population?

A

older population

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232
Q

caution prescribing atypical AP in what?

A

hepatic or renal dysfunction

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233
Q

alcohol use in atypical AP?

A

do not use

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234
Q

lactation- atypical AP?

A

do not use

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235
Q

patients should avoid all simple carbohydrates?

A

atypical AP

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236
Q

aerobic and strength training and lean/normal body weight?

A

atypical AP

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237
Q

extreme caution with dementia?

A

atypical AP

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238
Q

nearly all drugs with CNS effects act on what?

A

specific receptors that modulate synaptic transmission

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239
Q

five NTs of CNS drugs?

A

GABA, acetylcholine, serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine

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240
Q

depression and anxiety often what?

A

coexist

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241
Q

benzodiazepine- drug class?

A

anxiolytic

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242
Q

chlordiazeproxide, chlorazepate- what class?

A

benzodiazepine

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243
Q

augment the binding of GABA- drug class?

A

benzodiazepine

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244
Q

indications for benzodiazepines?

A

anxiety-related disorders, muscle relaxation, status epilepticus, irritable bowel syndrome, nausea/vomiting, restless leg syndrome

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245
Q

anxiety-related disorders, muscle relaxation, status epilepticus, irritable bowel syndrome, chemo N/V, RLS- drug class?

A

benzodiazepine

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246
Q

what is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS?

A

GABA

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247
Q

CNS depression, reduction in anxiety, muscle relaxation, anticonvulsant activity

A

benzodiazepine

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248
Q

adverse effects due to CNS depression with benzodiazepines?

A

sedation

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249
Q

when is sedation worst with benzodiazepines?

A

initiation

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250
Q

hypotension, visual blurring, dizziness, confusion- what class?

A

benzodiazepine

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251
Q

paradoxical anxiety, agitation, acute rage- what class?

A

benzodiazepine

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252
Q

clonazepam causes increased production of what?

A

saliva

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253
Q

what drug causes increased production of saliva?

A

clonazepam

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254
Q

BZD with longer half-life?

A

clonazepam

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255
Q

longer half life of BZD helps avoid what?

A

physical and psychological dependence

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256
Q

alprazolam half life?

A

rapid onset, shorter, more potent

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257
Q

how should BZD be stopped?

A

gradually

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258
Q

withdrawal syndrome with BZD? Yes/no

A

yes

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259
Q

BZD- pregnancy?

A

no

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260
Q

BZD- lactation?

A

no

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261
Q

children < 6 y/o? yes/n
Atypical AP

A

no (relative contraindication)

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262
Q

hepatic/renal disease- BZD?

A

contraindication

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263
Q

elderly- BZD?

A

relative contraindication

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264
Q

lorazepam- long or short acting?

A

short acting

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265
Q

more potent BZDs? (2)

A

alprazolam and lorazepam

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266
Q

serotonergic anxiolytic example?

A

buspirone

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267
Q

buspirone drug class

A

serotonergic anxiolytic

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268
Q

indication for buspirone?

A

generalized anxiety disorder

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269
Q

main action of buspirone?

A

full agonist at the presynaptic serotonin receptor (serotonin binds there after buspirone)

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270
Q

where is buspirone a full agonist?

A

presynaptic serotonin receptor

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271
Q

where is buspirone a partial agonist?

A

at the serotonin postsynaptic receptor

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272
Q

buspirone dopamine actions?

A

minor dopamine action

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273
Q

buspirone effect on GABA?

A

no effect on GABA

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274
Q

buspirone cause drowsiness?

A

potentially

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275
Q

lightheadedness, headache, insomnia, nervousness, dry mouth- what drug?

A

buspirone

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276
Q

lightheadedness, headache, insomnia, nausea, nervousness, dry mouth- what to tell patient?

A

usually mild and resolve with ongoing therapy

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277
Q

rare side effects of buspirone? (2)

A

akathisia and involuntary movements

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278
Q

buspirone risk of dependence?

A

low

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279
Q

should buspirone be taken with food?

280
Q

why should buspirone be taken with food?

A

decrease the liver first pas effect

281
Q

half life of buspirone?

282
Q

onset of action of buspirone?

283
Q

how long for effects of buspirone?

284
Q

advise patients of nonpharmacologic interventions for anxiety? What drug

285
Q

metabolism of buspirone?

A

oxidation in the liver

286
Q

is buspirone safe in severe renal or hepatic dysfunction?

287
Q

why should buspirone not be used in panic disorder?

A

due to adrenergic effects of one metabolite

288
Q

buspirone in lactating patient?

289
Q

buspirone in pregnant patient?

A

use only if favorable risk/benefit ration

290
Q

buspirone risk when used with other serotonergic drugs?

A

serotonin syndrome

291
Q

where is buspirone excreted?

292
Q

is buspirone used in panic disorder? Yes/no

293
Q

which antidepressant- anticholinergic effects?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

294
Q

depression, anxiety-related disorders, enuresis, chronic neuropathic pain, insomnia (lower doses) eating disorders

A

tricyclic antidepressants

295
Q

imipramine- drug class?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

296
Q

amitriptyline- drug class?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

297
Q

doxepin- drug class?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

298
Q

TCA- MOA?

A

inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine at the presynaptic neuron

299
Q

where are serotonin and norepinephrine inhibited with TCA?

A

presynaptic neuron

300
Q

what are the four neurotransmitters involved with TCA?

A

serotonin, norepinephrine, histamine, acetylcholine

301
Q

what often negates the use of TCA?

A

adverse effects

302
Q

TCA therapeutic index?

A

narrow therapeutic index

303
Q

overdose can be fatal, what drug class?

304
Q

can you stop TCA suddenly?

A

no because of CNS withdrawal syndrome (nausea, vomiting, vertigo, malaise, nightmares)- can be severe

305
Q

dry mouth, dry eyes, orthostatic hypotension, constipation, hesitancy/retention- drug class?

306
Q

why should TCA be avoided in older population?

A

anticholinergic effects

307
Q

nausea, vomiting, vertigo, malaise, nightmares

A

CNS withdrawal syndrome (TCA)

308
Q

why do TCA cause sedation?

A

action on histamine receptors

309
Q

high risk of suicide?

310
Q

cardiac conduction disorder- seen with what class of antidepressants?

311
Q

sinus tachycardia- what antidepressant class?

312
Q

why do TCA cause cardiac conduction disorder?

A

NE reuptake inhibition and anticholinergic effects

313
Q

decreased seizure threshold- what antidepressant class?

314
Q

TD and NMS common or rare with TCA?

315
Q

rare ADE with TCA?

A

TD and NMS; TD may not resolve

316
Q

when should ECG be obtained with TCA?

A

at baseline and at 3 weeks or dose change

317
Q

why should TCA be titrated slowly?

A

to avoid CNS adverse effects such as those seen with abrupt withdrawal

318
Q

pregnancy use- TCA?

A

only if risk benefit ratio is favorable

319
Q

TCA in lactation?

A

excreted in breast milk

320
Q

pre-existing cardiac conduction disorder- contraindication to what antidepressants?

321
Q

TCA should not be combined with what class?

322
Q

what are the TCA contraindications associated with blocking of acetylcholine?

A

glaucoma, BPH, urinary incontinence

323
Q

alpha-adrenergic blocking and quinidine-like effect- what class?

324
Q

MAOI

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors

325
Q

treatment-resistant depression use what?

326
Q

phelezine- what class?

327
Q

tranylcypromine- what class?

328
Q

inactivate the enzymes that break down norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin?

329
Q

prevent the breakdown of tyramine?

330
Q

tyramine is a precursor to what?

A

norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine

331
Q

what are the adverse effects related to with MAOIs?

A

delayed metabolism of dopamine

332
Q

what is an example of anticholinergic effects of MAOI?

A

orthostatic hypotension

333
Q

food and drink interactions that can result in severely elevated BP- drug class?

334
Q

most common side effects of MAOI?

A

dizziness, headache, insomnia, restlessness, and hypotension

335
Q

MAOIs are NOT what?

A

first line therapy

336
Q

what kind of foods should be avoided with MAOIs?

A

tyramine-containing

337
Q

examples of problematic foods with MAOIs?

A

fermented and aged foods, pickled foods, kim chi, sauerkraut, soy sauce

338
Q

caffiene should be avoided with which antidepressants?

339
Q

what antidepressant may suppress myocardial pain?

340
Q

do not use MAOIs within 3 weeks of what medications?

A

SSRI or SNRI (risk for serotonin syndrome)

341
Q

how long is wash out period with MAOI?

342
Q

do MAOI have liver first pass effect? Yes/no

343
Q

MAOI in liver or renal disease?

344
Q

arteriosclerotic disease- avoid which antidepressant?

345
Q

pregnancy use- MAOI?

346
Q

lactation- MAOI?

347
Q

depression states, anxiety-related disorders, OCD, bulimia, PTSD- class?

348
Q

citalopram- class?

349
Q

fluoxetine- class?

350
Q

paroxetine- class?

351
Q

sertraline- class?

352
Q

SSRI- MOA?

A

presynaptic neuronal reuptake inhibition of serotonin

353
Q

where does SSRI act?

A

presynaptic neuron

354
Q

what SSRI also affects dopamine?

A

fluoxetine

355
Q

SSRI effects on NE?

356
Q

patient teaching about SSRI adverse effects?

A

usually diminish over time and not serious

357
Q

nausea/vomiting, dizziness/lightheadedness, dry mouth, diaphoresis, weight gain/loss, diarrhea, constipation

358
Q

SSRI most likely to cause diarrhea?

A

sertraline

359
Q

SSRI most likely to cause constipation?

A

paroxetine

360
Q

which patients at greater risk for suicide with SSRIs?

A

younger patients

361
Q

can SSRI be safely stopped suddenly?

362
Q

half life of fluoxetine?

363
Q

what should I assess for if major depression?

A

bipolar disorder

364
Q

how long for SSRI to take effect?

A

therapeutic effect as long as 6 weeks

365
Q

pregnancy- SSRI?

A

avoid if possible

366
Q

severe hepatic/renal dysfunction- SSRI?

A

contraindication

367
Q

depressive disorders (BPD), anxiety, social phobia, PTSD, neuropathic pain, overactive bladder, fibromyalgia?

368
Q

duloxetine- class?

369
Q

venlafaxine- class?

370
Q

two examples of SNRI drugs?

A

duloxetine and venlafaxine

371
Q

where are serotonin and NE inhibited with SNRI?

A

presynaptic neuron

372
Q

MOA- SNRI?

A

serotonin and NE transporters are blocked from taking these NTs back to presynaptic neuron

373
Q

more serotonin and NE available to act where with SNRI?

A

postsynaptic neuron (more available)

374
Q

elevated BP seen with higher doses of what antidepressant?

A

SNRI (due to norepinephrine)

375
Q

why can BP elevate with SNRIs?

A

norepinephrine

376
Q

pregnancy- SNRI?

A

avoid if possible

377
Q

lactation- SNRI?

A

avoid (Excreted in breast milk)

378
Q

worsening narrow-angle glaucoma? Antidepressant

379
Q

duloxetine has worsened what?

A

narrow angle glaucoma

380
Q

duloxetine in liver dysfunction?

A

don’t use

381
Q

bupropion- drug class?

A

atypical antidepressant

382
Q

mirtazapine- drug class?

A

atypical antidepressant

383
Q

two indications for bupropion?

A

depression and smoking cessation

384
Q

what antidepressant can cause insomnia?

385
Q

uptake of NE and DA are weakly inhibited- what antidepressant?

386
Q

mirtazapine- MOA?

A

antagonism of central presynaptic alpha 2 adrenergic receptors

387
Q

antagonism of central presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors? Drug?

A

mirtazapine

388
Q

mirtazapine- indications?

A

depression, insomnia, can improve appetite

389
Q

increased noradrenergic and serotonergic activity? Drug

A

mirtazapine

390
Q

why does mirtazapine help with insomnia?

A

antihistamine effect

391
Q

anxiolytic, sedative-hypnotic, antiseizure?

A

barbiturates

392
Q

pentobarbital- class?

A

barbiturates

393
Q

phenobarbital- class?

A

barbiturates

394
Q

cause CNS depression via inhibiting transmission of stimuli to reticular activating system

A

barbiturates

395
Q

where is reticular activating system located?

396
Q

do barbiturates bind to gaba?

A

yes but in different area than BZD

397
Q

adverse effects of barbiturates?

A

CNS depression or agitation

398
Q

ataxia seen with what class?

A

barbiturates

399
Q

what can happen if not tapering off barbiturates?

A

status epilepticus

400
Q

respiratory and CV system depression- what class?

A

barbiturates

401
Q

schedule class of short-acting barbiturates?

A

schedule II

402
Q

therapeutic index- barbiturates?

403
Q

are barbiturates first line for status epilepticus or seizures related to meningitis or tetanus?

404
Q

alcohol use with barbiturates?

A

no- risk of death

405
Q

younger than 6- barbiturates?

406
Q

avoid barbiturates if history of what?

A

drug-misuse disorder

407
Q

zolpidem indication?

408
Q

zapelon indication?

409
Q

eszopiclone indication?

410
Q

suvorexant indication?

411
Q

ramelton?

412
Q

suvorexant MOA?

A

orexin receptor antagonist- promote sleep

413
Q

zolpidem- MOA?

A

at gaba receptor in diff area than BZD

414
Q

ramelton- MOA?

A

selective melatonin receptor agonist

415
Q

loss of muscle tone with full cognition intact?

A

sedative hypnotics other than barbs or bzd

416
Q

sleep paralysis- what class?

A

sedative hypnotics other than barbs or bzd

417
Q

sleep walking and sleep driving

A

sedative hypnotics other than barbs or bzd

418
Q

anterograde amnesia- what class?

A

sedative hypnotics other than barbs or bzd

419
Q

can sedative hypnotics other than barbs or bzd be stopped suddenly?

A

no, taper d/t CNS withdrawal syndrome

420
Q

suvorexant- abuse potential?

421
Q

uses of CNS stimulants?

A

ADHD, narcolepsy, exogenous obesity

422
Q

CNS stimulant- MOA?

A

sympathomimetic amines that act as dopamine agonists

423
Q

indirectly release and prevent the reuptake of DA, serotonin, and NE at the presynaptic neuron?

A

CNS stimulants

424
Q

CNS stimulants activate where?

A

reticular activating system

425
Q

hypertension, sweating, tachycardia- what class?

A

CNS stimulants

426
Q

hyperthyroidism- contraindication to what CNS class?

A

CNS stimulants

427
Q

esophageal dysmotility/obstruction- what drug?

A

concerta brand of methylphenidate

428
Q

how many hours of bedtime should CNS stimulant be avoided?

429
Q

pregnancy- CNS stimulant?

430
Q

lactation- CNS stimulant?

431
Q

glaucoma and motor tics- contraindication of what class?

A

CNS stimulants

432
Q

avoid MAOI overlap with CNS stimulants for how long?

433
Q

short term in patients with desired weight loss?

A

anorexiants

434
Q

phentermine- class?

A

anorexiants

435
Q

lorcaserin- class?

A

anorexiants

436
Q

where do anorexiants act?

A

satiety center (hypothalamus and limbic reas)

437
Q

possible valvular heart disease- what class?

A

anorexiants

438
Q

hyperprolactinemia- seen with CNS class?

A

anorexiants

439
Q

hypoglycemia in type 2 dm- what CNS drug?

A

anorexiants

440
Q

can anorexiants be stopped suddenly?

441
Q

can CNS stimulants be suddenly stopped?

442
Q

two drugs used in bipolar disorder?

A

lithium and valproate

443
Q

mood stabilizer used in seizure disorders?

444
Q

drug for migraine prophylaxis?

445
Q

interchangeable with sodium and has no metabolism, drug?

446
Q

may take place of sodium in neurons during depolarization, drug?

447
Q

decreased transmission of electrical impulses, drug?

448
Q

may cause down-regulation of second messenger systems, drug?

449
Q

lithium may cause down-regulation of what?

A

second messenger system

450
Q

valproate leads to increased availability of what NT?

451
Q

may contribute to more GABA action at the receptor or act like GABA; blocks voltage-dependent sodium channels

452
Q

ultimate action of valproate?

A

less neuronal firing

453
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitter?

454
Q

may minimize adverse effects of lithium by what?

A

taking with food

455
Q

what form of lithium may help with adverse effects?

A

sustained release form

456
Q

fine tremors, nausea and dry mouth, headache, drowsiness

457
Q

thyroid function with long-term lithium?

A

hypothyroidism

458
Q

increased TSH may be seen with what drug?

A

lithium (hypothyroidism)

459
Q

fine tremors- SE of what drug?

460
Q

long-term problem with thyroid with lithium?

A

hypothyroidism

461
Q

CV effects of lithium?

A

ECG changes and arrhythmias

462
Q

side effects of valproate are usually what?

463
Q

heartburn, dyspepsia- what med?

464
Q

alopecia can occur and hair will grow back but may have different texture, what drug?

465
Q

may increase bleeding time due to inhibition of platelet aggregation

466
Q

bone marrow suppression

467
Q

what lab should be monitored with valproate?

468
Q

hepatic toxicity prevalence with valproate?

469
Q

therapeutic index- lithium?

470
Q

tremors, nausea, dizziness are signs of what with lithium?

471
Q

signs of lithium toxicity?

A

tremors, nausea, dizziness

472
Q

lab that should be monitored with Lithium?

A

renal function

473
Q

what age can have extended-release lithium?

A

12 years and older

474
Q

what trimesters of pregnancy avoid lithium?

A

first and third

475
Q

lithium- lactation?

476
Q

what states should avoid lithium?

A

sodium and fluid depletion (will increase lithium levels)

477
Q

what will happen to lithium levels if sodium/fluid depletion?

A

levels will increase

478
Q

what happens to lithium level with excessive water intake?

A

levels will decrease

479
Q

what causes lithium levels to decrease?

A

excessive water intake

480
Q

when does lithium become therapeutic?

481
Q

why is lithium not used in acute mania?

A

long half life, takes 14 days for therapeutic effect

482
Q

is lithium metabolized?

483
Q

how is lithium excreted in the urine?

A

essentially unchanged

484
Q

primary concern with valproate?

A

CNS depression esp when first starting

485
Q

liver dysfunction- valproate?

A

contraindication

486
Q

pregnancy- valproate?

A

contraindication

487
Q

what happens with valproate in pregnancy?

A

neural tube defect

488
Q

when can toxicity of valproate occur?

A

even at therapeutic levels

489
Q

dizziness, hypotension, tachy/bradycardia, drowsiness, visual hallucinations, respiratory depression

A

valproate toxicity

490
Q

monitor lab for valproate?

A

drug level

491
Q

how is valproate excreted?

A

in the urine as ketone metabolite

492
Q

why can valproate cause false positive for urine ketone tests?

A

excreted in urine as ketone metabolite

493
Q

can valproate be used for acute mania?

494
Q

can lithium be used for acute mania?

495
Q

what causes the clinical manifestations of parkinson?

A

dopamine deficiency

496
Q

what two NTs should be balanced for musculoskeletal performance?

A

dopamine and acetylcholine

497
Q

bradykinesia and gait should be considered in decision to treat what?

A

parkinson disease

498
Q

what is the main problem in parkinson?

A

dopamine deficiency

499
Q

what are dopaminergic drugs used for?

A

to treat the dopamine depletion that occurs in parkinson disease

500
Q

amantadine- class?

A

dopaminergic

501
Q

bromocriptine- class?

A

dopaminergic

502
Q

carbidopa-levodopa- class?

A

dopaminergic

503
Q

pramipexole- class?

A

dopaminergic

504
Q

rasaligine- class?

A

dopaminergic

505
Q

ropinirole- class?

A

dopaminergic

506
Q

pergolide- class?

A

dopaminergic

507
Q

tolcapone- class

A

dopaminergic

508
Q

MOA- dopaminergics?

A

cause release of dopamine

509
Q

what do dopaminergic drugs cause?

A

release of dopamine

510
Q

what drugs act as dopamine precursors?

A

dopaminergics

511
Q

what drugs act as dopamine agonists?

A

dopaminergic

512
Q

what does a drug do if it is a dopamine agonist?

A

stimulates the dopamine receptor

513
Q

drugs that inhibit MAO lead to what? (PD)

A

less breakdown of dopamine

514
Q

levodopa- think what?

A

pharmacokinetic enhancement

515
Q

selegiline- class?

A

dopaminergic

516
Q

how should dopaminergic agents be started?

A

low and slow titration

517
Q

dizziness and postural hypotension in dopaminergics more common in who?

A

older adults

518
Q

confusion and hallucinations with dopaminergics, more common in who?

A

older adults

519
Q

what two dopaminergics can cause sleep attacks?

A

pramipexole and ropinirole

520
Q

pramipexole and ropinirole can cause what?

A

sleep attacks

521
Q

dyskinesia worsening or dyskinesia can be caused by what dopaminergics?

A

carbidopa and levodopa

522
Q

what two labs should be monitored with dopaminergic drugs?

A

hepatic and renal

523
Q

what labs should be monitored with dopaminergic drugs?

A

hepatic and renal

524
Q

carbidopa-levodopa is contraindicated in what two conditions?

A

narrow angle glaucoma and malignant melanoma

525
Q

cautious use of dopaminergics in patients with what four conditions?

A

cardiac, psychiatric, renal, or ulcer disease

526
Q

pregnancy use- dopaminergics?

A

weigh risk benefit

527
Q

lactation- dopaminergics?

A

safety not established

528
Q

pediatrics- dopaminergics?

A

safety not established

529
Q

what dopaminergic is associaed with severe hepatocellular injury?

530
Q

what to do if patient cannot tolerate a dopaminergic drug?

A

try another

531
Q

can you stop dopaminergic drugs suddenly?

532
Q

beta lactams do what?

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis

533
Q

what do beta lactams inhibit?

A

cell wall synthesis

534
Q

four classes of beta lactams that I need to know?

A

penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams

535
Q

what should happen if a patient develops a rash while taking a pencillin?

A

they should be examined

536
Q

what generation of cephalosporins has the best gram positive coverage?

A

first generation

537
Q

what two organisms are covered by first generation cephalosporins?

A

staph and strep

538
Q

what route of admin are the higher generations of cephalosporins given?

A

IV (more complicated, gram negative)

539
Q

drug? Glycopeptide antibiotic with wide spectrum of gram positive-coverage

A

vancomycin

540
Q

vancomycin- gram positive and/or gram negative?

A

only gram positive

541
Q

macrolides block what?

A

protein production

542
Q

tetracyclines- MOA?

A

block protein production

543
Q

rifampin- MOA?

A

block protein production

544
Q

clindamycin- MOA?

A

block protein production

545
Q

aminoglycosides- MOA?

A

block protein production

546
Q

streptogamins- MOA?

A

block protein production

547
Q

oxlodinones- MOA?

A

block protein production

548
Q

mupirocin- MOA?

A

block protein production

549
Q

erythromycin- class?

550
Q

azithromycin, class?

551
Q

clarithromycin, class?

552
Q

minocycline, class?

A

tetracycline

553
Q

what class of antibiotic covers rickettsiae (tick)?

A

tetracycline

554
Q

what is the drug of choice for Lyme disease?

A

doxycycline

555
Q

can teeth staining of fetus happen with tetracycline use in pregnancy?

556
Q

milk and dairy with tetracyclines?

A

not within two hours (heavy metals/calcium)

557
Q

why does clindamycin have similar action to macrolides?

A

their binding sites overlap

558
Q

what percentage of patients on clinda develop c diff?

559
Q

loose, watery, bloody stools, what med?

A

clindamycin c diff

560
Q

sulfa drugs- MOA?

A

target DNA and replication

561
Q

fluoroquinolones- MOA?

A

target DNA and replication

562
Q

metronidazole- MOA?

A

target DNA and replication

563
Q

ofloxacin- drug class?

A

fluoroquinolones

564
Q

ciprofloxacin is more effective against gram negative or gram positive?

A

gram negative

565
Q

levofloxacin is more effective against gram positive or gram negative?

A

gram positive, especially strep pneumoniae

566
Q

fluoroquinolones when taken with prednisone can lead to what?

A

tendon rupture

567
Q

TB drugs must be taken how?

568
Q

what is the usual minimum for TB treatment duration?

569
Q

isoniazid- MOA?

A

inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

570
Q

what drug can lead to peripheral neuropathy?

571
Q

how to prevent peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid?

A

take vitamin B6

572
Q

ethambutol- MOA?

A

inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

573
Q

main problem if taking ethambutol?

A

optic neuritis

574
Q

blurred vision, decreased peripheral vision, and color blindness are symptoms of what?

A

optic neuritis

575
Q

what should a patient do if they have signs of optic neuritis?

A

stop medication immediately and notify physician

576
Q

rifampin- MOA?

A

blocks bacterial protein production

577
Q

rifampin- protein binding?

A

highly protein bound

578
Q

what is the problem with rifampin being highly protein bound?

A

several drug to drug interactions

579
Q

other than TB, what can rifampin be used for?

A

bacterial meningitis

580
Q

what TB drug causes orange/red discoloration of urine, saliva, and tears?

581
Q

what are the four may mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance?

A

decreased permeability, limiting drug uptake; antibiotic efflux pump; drug inactivation; altered target site

582
Q

decreased permeability/limiting drug uptake is due to loss of what?

A

porins (ABX cannot enter bacterial cells)

583
Q

what pumps antibiotic directly out of the cell?

A

antibiotic efflux pump

584
Q

bacterial enzymes destroy antibiotics or prevent binding to target site?

A

drug inactivation

585
Q

structurally modified antibiotic target site

A

altered target site (ABX no longer able to bind to the modified binding proteins on the bacterial cell surface, so they cannot attach)

586
Q

two types of antiviral drugs?

A

neuramidase inhibitors and nucleoside analogs

587
Q

oseltamivir- class?

A

neuramidase inhibitors

588
Q

zanamivir/relenza- class?

A

neuramidase inhibitors

589
Q

xofluza/valoxavir- class?

A

neuramidase inhibitors

590
Q

neuraminidase inhibitors- MOA?

A

act by breaking the bond that attaches the viral particles to the host cell

591
Q

oseltamivir- oral?

A

well absorbed orally

592
Q

how is zanamivir admin?

A

inhalation

593
Q

when should antivirals be started?

A

within 72 hours but 48 hours is ideal

594
Q

acyclovir- class?

A

nucleoside analogs

595
Q

valacyclovir- class?

A

nucleoside analogs

596
Q

which nucleoside analog achieves higher serum levels?

A

valacyclovir

597
Q

what drug class is indicated for the treatment of herpes simplex?

A

nucleoside analogs

598
Q

what drug class is indicated for the treatment of varicella zoster?

599
Q

how do nucleoside analogs work?

A

block an enzyme essential for viral replication

600
Q

who has a higher risk of postherpetic neuralgia?

A

older adults/elderly with shingles

601
Q

protein binding of oral antifungal drugs?

A

highly protein bound when given orally

602
Q

why do oral antifungals have multiple drug-drug interactions?

A

because they are highly protein bound

603
Q

what is the long-term risk with oral antifungals?

A

hepatotoxicity

604
Q

what labs should be monitored with oral antifungals?

605
Q

what do antihelmintic drugs treat?

A

parasitic infections caused by worms

606
Q

what drug is used to treat pinworms/threadworms?

A

mebendazole

607
Q

mebendazole- class?

A

antihelmintic drugs

608
Q

what is the main adverse effect with mebendazole?

A

GI upset especially with high doses (pneumonia)

609
Q

what is the OTC treatment for pinworms?

610
Q

what are the three adverse effects with antihelmintics?

A

nausea, diarrhea, stomach pain

611
Q

where do benzodiazepines act on GABA?

A

at the synaptic cleft

612
Q

what effect do benzodiazepines have on the action of GABA?

A

increase the action of GABA

613
Q

what does increased action of GABA do with BZDs?

A

decreases the effect of neuronal excitation (Decreased firing of the neuron)

614
Q

four therapeutic effects of benzodiazepines?

A

reduced anxiety, muscle relaxation, ataxia, anticonvulsant activity (Adjuvant)

615
Q

buspirone is sometimes called what?

A

an atypical anxiolytic

616
Q

what is buspirone approved for?

A

the treatment of GAD

617
Q

alprazolam brand name?

618
Q

lorazepam brand name?

619
Q

temazepam brand name?

620
Q

clonazepam brand name?

621
Q

where does the primary action of buspirone take place?

A

serotonin receptors

622
Q

what other receptor does buspirone act on?

623
Q

buspirone absorption orally?

A

well-absorbed

624
Q

why should buspirone be taken with food?

A

to decrease the first-pass effect

625
Q

what is the most common class of antidepressant prescribed?

626
Q

paroxetine- brand name?

627
Q

fluoxetine- brand name?

628
Q

sertraline- brand name?

629
Q

citalopram- brand name?

630
Q

escitalopram- brand name?

631
Q

where to SSRI act?

A

presynaptic

632
Q

do SSRIs have a class effect?

633
Q

what type of side effects of SSRIs are very common in males?

A

sexual side effects

634
Q

what to do if a patient is having sexual side effects?

A

try another SSRI in the same group

635
Q

how long for SSRIs to take effect? (to start)

A

at least two weeks

636
Q

SSRI absorption?

A

well absorbed orally

637
Q

SSRI first pass effect?

A

significant first past effect

638
Q

how are SSRIs metabolized?

A

CYP450 system

639
Q

where are most SSRIs eliminated?

640
Q

do sexual side effects tend to improve with continued use of SSRIs?

641
Q

does nausea tend to improve with continued use of SSRIs?

642
Q

how should SSRIs be taken?

A

same time every day

643
Q

what two SSRIs interact with linezolid?

A

paroxetine and fluoxetine

644
Q

venlafaxine- brand name?

645
Q

duloxetine- brand name?

646
Q

at lower doses, venlafaxine predominantly effects uptake of which NT?

647
Q

urinary retention is a contraindication for which antidepressant class?

648
Q

cardiovascular disease is a contraindication for which antidepressant class?

649
Q

angle-closure glaucoma is a contraindication for which antidepressant class?

650
Q

patients with seizure disorders should NOT be given which antidepressant?

651
Q

is bupropion a first line drug for depression?

652
Q

carbamazepine- class?

A

anticonvulsant

653
Q

carbamazepine- brand name?

654
Q

carbamazepine- MOA?

A

inhibits neuronal firing by blocking sodium channels

655
Q

carbamazepine is most effective against what type of seizures?

656
Q

carbamazepine, protein binding?

A

highly bound to plasma proteins

657
Q

carbamazepine metabolism?

A

completely metabolized, induces its own metabolism

658
Q

autoinduction of metabolism with carbamazepine leads to?

A

increased clearance, shortened half life, progressive decrease in serum levels (increase dose)

659
Q

aplastic anemia is rare ADE with what drug?

A

carbamazepine

660
Q

cardiac arrhythmias, blurred/double vision, decreased blood cells or platelets- what drug?

A

carbamazepine

661
Q

gabapentin- class?

A

anticonvulsant

662
Q

gabapentin- brand name?

663
Q

gabapentin- MOA?

A

inhibits the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the presynaptic area to decrease seizure activity

664
Q

where does gabapentin work?

A

presynaptic area

665
Q

four indications for gabapentin?

A

seizures, RLS, postherpetic neuralgia, neuropathic pain

666
Q

carefully monitor for what side effects with gabapentin?

A

psychiatric

667
Q

what anticonvulsant can cause depression and suicidal ideation?

A

gabapentin

668
Q

fine tremors seen with toxicity of what?

669
Q

nausea and dry mouth, seen what toxicity of what?

670
Q

headache and drowsiness, seen with toxicity of what?

671
Q

labs to monitor with lithium?

A

CBC with diff, CMP, TSH, baseline/annual ECG

672
Q

severe vomiting, diarrhea, prolonged high fever, heat stroke– these are concerning things to watch with what med?

673
Q

two most common ADEs with levetiracetam?

A

drowsiness, asthenia

674
Q

lack of strength, weakness (Term)

675
Q

neuropsychiatric ADEs seen with what drug?

A

levetiracetam

676
Q

agitation, anxiety, depression, psychosis, hallucinations, depersonalization (ADE what drug)

A

levetiracetam

677
Q

anticonvulsant that does not impair speech, concentration, or other cognitive function

A

levetiracetam

678
Q

benzodiazepines are contraindicated with what condition?

A

acute narrow angle glaucoma

679
Q

anticholinergic effects seen with which antidepressant?

680
Q

what is the black box warning for carbamazepine?

A

SJS and TEN

681
Q

what two conditions have a strong association with HLAB1502?

A

SJS and TEN

682
Q

patients most at risk for the HLAB1502 allele are of what ethnicity?

683
Q

HLAB1502 allele is problematic with what drug?

A

carbamazepine

684
Q

what post marketing adverse effect of levetiracetam is reversible when the drug is stopped?

685
Q

what is the black box warning on all antidepressants?

A

suicidal thoughts and behaviors

686
Q

is famciclovir safe in pregnancy?

A

not enough data

687
Q

is acyclovir safe in pregnancy?

A

yes, category B

688
Q

is valganciclovir safe in pregnancy?

A

not ideal, category C

689
Q

what condition is a major side effect of oral ketoconazole?

A

hepatotoxicity

690
Q

dry mouth and metallic taste are side effects of what medication?

A

metronidazole

691
Q

heart failure is associated with which antifungal?

A

itraconazole

692
Q

what four medications are included in the 6 month regimen to treat tuberculosis? RIPE

A

isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

693
Q

ethambutol is toxic to what?

A

optic nerve

694
Q

pyrazinamide can cause increase in what?

A

uric acid (gout)

695
Q

cardiac arrhythmias are associated with which antibiotic class?

A

macrolides

696
Q

does bactrim cover MRSA?