Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the normal heart sounds and their characteristics?

A

S1 ‘lubb’ marks the beginning of systole, caused by closure of mitral and tricuspid valves. S2 ‘dubb’ marks the beginning of diastole, caused by closure of aortic and pulmonary valves.

S1 is louder at the apex; S2 is louder at the base, higher pitched & shorter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is S2 physiologic splitting?

A

S2 consists of aortic (A2) and pulmonic (P2) valve closure. On inspiration, A2 is heard first, followed by P2. On expiration, the two sounds are close together and detected as a single S2.

Usually heard in younger patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are abnormal heart sounds?

A

Abnormal heart sounds include S3, S4, systolic clicks, pathologic splitting, rubs, or gallops.

Pathologic splitting can be wide, fixed, or paradoxical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is S3 and its significance?

A

S3 is a physiologic sound frequently heard in children and young adults, occurring early in diastole, dull and low in pitch. Pathologic S3 indicates high left ventricular filling pressures.

Causes include decreased myocardial contractility and heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is S4 and its common causes?

A

S4 is an ‘atrial sound’ that occurs just before S2, dull and low in pitch, commonly due to ventricular hypertrophy or fibrosis.

Causes include HTN heart disease and aortic stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are normal peripheral vascular findings?

A

Normal findings include strong and equal pulses (2+) in major arteries, brisk capillary refill (< 3 seconds), lack of edema, normal hair distribution, and an ankle-brachial index (ABI) between 0.9 – 1.4.

Equal limb circumference and symmetrical warmth are also indicators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are abnormal peripheral vascular findings?

A

Abnormal findings include weak/absent pulses, bounding pulses, delayed capillary refill, pitting edema, calf asymmetry, unilateral swelling, and bilateral edema.

Visible venous collaterals may indicate upper extremity DVT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define heart failure.

A

Heart failure is the heart’s inability to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs, also known as congestive heart failure.

Hallmark features include edema, shortness of breath, and testing with ECG, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A

Angina pectoris is chest pain or discomfort due to decreased oxygen to the heart muscle, characterized by substernal pressure that can radiate to the shoulder, arm, neck, or jaw.

Testing includes ECG and stress tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is mitral valve prolapse (MVP)?

A

MVP is a defect of the mitral valve causing improper closure and backflow of blood into the left atrium, characterized by a mid-systolic click and late systolic murmur.

Echocardiogram is the primary test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon is temporary narrowing of blood vessels in extremities causing color changes in response to stress or cold.

Symptoms include numbness and tingling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

DVT is blood clot formation in a deep vein, characterized by swelling, discoloration, pain, and warmth in the affected extremity.

Testing includes ultrasound and D-dimer labs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the symptoms of arterial insufficiency?

A

Symptoms include intermittent claudication, cold or pale legs, weak pulses, and skin changes such as thin, shiny skin and ulcers.

Complications can lead to gangrene or amputation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What characterizes venous insufficiency?

A

Venous insufficiency is a condition where veins cannot return blood effectively to the heart, leading to symptoms like swelling, heaviness, and aching in the legs.

It can cause brownish pigmentation and venous ulcers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Differentiate between venous ulcers and arterial ulcers.

A

Venous ulcers: occur above the ankle, are shallow with irregular borders. Arterial ulcers: occur on toes or heels, are deep with well-defined borders.

Venous ulcers are due to poor venous return; arterial ulcers are due to poor arterial circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are heart murmurs best heard?

A

Heart murmurs are best heard in the four valve areas: Aortic area, Pulmonary area, Tricuspid area, Mitral area.

Specific intercostal spaces correspond to each area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are physiologic murmurs?

A

Physiologic murmurs are innocent, functional murmurs common in children, usually normal sounds made as blood pumps through the heart.

They may get louder when a child is excited or ill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are pathologic murmurs?

A

Pathologic murmurs are associated with structural heart disease, often require medical intervention, and can indicate heart problems.

They are typically loud and may have a blowing or squeaky sound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some methods of assessing heart murmurs?

A

Assessment methods include maneuvers like handgrip, squatting, Valsalva, and standing abruptly.

These maneuvers can change the intensity of different murmurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the grading system for heart murmurs?

A

Murmurs are graded from I to VI. Systolic murmurs occur between S1 and S2, while diastolic murmurs occur between S2 and S1.

Systolic murmurs always end in VI; diastolic always in IV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the screening recommendations for alcohol abuse?

A

Screen all adults for unhealthy alcohol use, assess family history, social problems, and use the CAGE questionnaire.

Look for signs of liver disease during physical examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What questionnaire is used to screen for alcohol misuse?

A

CAGE questionnaire

The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used tool for identifying potential alcohol problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are signs of liver disease to assess during a physical examination?

A

Signs include:
* Hepatosplenomegaly
* Ascites
* Caput medusae
* Jaundice
* Spider angiomas
* Palmar erythema
* Dupuytren contractures
* Gynecomastia

These signs may indicate underlying liver dysfunction or disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the recommended alcohol consumption limit for women?

A

Up to one drink/day

This recommendation is based on guidelines from the U.S. Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the recommended alcohol consumption limit for men?

A

Up to two drinks/day

This recommendation is based on guidelines from the U.S. Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which hepatitis viruses are vaccine-preventable?

A

Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B

Vaccination can significantly reduce the risk of these infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is Hepatitis A virus (HAV) transmitted?

A

HAV is transmitted through:
* Contact with contaminated objects
* Food
* Drinks contaminated by feces from an infected person
* Injection drug use
* Sexual/household contact with a hepatitis A patient

Understanding transmission routes is essential for prevention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who should be vaccinated against Hepatitis A?

A

Vaccination is recommended for:
* All children at age 1 year
* Individuals with chronic liver disease
* High-risk groups (e.g., travelers to endemic areas, men who have sex with men, injection drug users)

This helps prevent outbreaks and protect vulnerable populations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the fatality rate of acute hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection?

A

1%

This statistic highlights the severity of acute HBV infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What percentage of adults become chronically infected with HBV?

A

Around 5%

Infants and young children are at a much higher risk for chronic infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What populations are recommended for HBV screening?

A

Screening is recommended for:
* People born in high-prevalence countries
* Unvaccinated individuals with parents from high-prevalence regions
* Men who have sex with men
* Injection drug users
* People with HIV
* Household contacts of HBV-infected individuals
* People requiring immunosuppressive therapy

Early detection can prevent complications from HBV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the CDC recommendation for hepatitis B vaccination?

A

Vaccination is recommended for:
* All infants
* Unvaccinated children <19 years
* At-risk individuals for sexual exposure and percutaneous exposure

Vaccination is crucial for preventing HBV infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is Hepatitis C virus (HCV) mainly transmitted?

A

HCV is mainly transmitted by:
* Parenteral exposures to infectious blood or body fluids

Understanding transmission is key to prevention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which individuals are at increased risk for HCV infection?

A

Increased risk is associated with:
* Current/former injection drug users
* Recipients of clotting factor concentrates before 1987
* Recipients of blood transfusions/organ transplants before July 1992
* Chronic hemodialysis patients
* Known exposures to HCV

Regular testing is recommended for these populations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the primary role of the APRN regarding hepatitis C?

A

Counsel patients to avoid risk factors and screen all adults and pregnant women

There is no vaccine for hepatitis C, making prevention and early detection crucial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the second-leading cause of cancer death in the United States?

A

Colorectal cancer

Awareness of risk factors and screening is essential for prevention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At what age does the USPSTF recommend colorectal cancer screening?

A

Aged 50 to 75 years

Screening can significantly reduce mortality from colorectal cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the recommended screening tests for colorectal cancer?

A

Recommended tests include:
* High-sensitivity guaiac fecal occult blood test (HSgFOBT) - yearly
* Fecal immunochemical test (FIT) - yearly
* Colonoscopy - every ten years
* CT Colonography - every five years

Regular screenings help in early detection and management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the key features of Hepatitis?

A

Key features include:
* Jaundice
* Elevated liver enzymes
* Fatigue
* Nausea
* Abdominal pain
* Dark urine
* Light-colored stools
* Ascites

These symptoms can help in diagnosing hepatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common cause of pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones

Other causes include alcohol abuse and trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a key feature of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

Epigastric pain, melena, food-dependent pain

H. Pylori infection is a common etiology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Symptoms include:
* RUQ pain
* Murphy’s sign (+)
* Fever
* Nausea
* Bloating
* Jaundice

These symptoms can indicate inflammation of the gallbladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the primary etiology of diverticulitis?

A

Confined inflammatory process in the sigmoid colon

LLQ pain and fever are common symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are common signs of cirrhosis?

A

Common signs include:
* Ascites
* Jaundice
* Hepatic encephalopathy

These signs indicate advanced liver disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a key feature of appendicitis?

A

RLQ pain (McBurney’s point) and rebound tenderness

Early recognition is crucial to prevent complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the common symptom of peritonitis?

A

Board-like abdomen and severe pain

This condition often requires immediate medical intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the signs of abdominal distention?

A

Signs include:
* Asymmetry
* Bulging umbilicus
* Increased pulsations
* Ecchymosis

Distention can indicate several underlying conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the significance of rebound tenderness during palpation?

A

Indicates peritoneal irritation

This is a critical finding in abdominal examinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does a rigid abdomen suggest?

A

Peritoneal irritation

This finding can indicate acute conditions needing surgical intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are common symptoms associated with lesions and bloody diarrhea?

A

Frequent bowel movement, fatigue, loss of appetite, weight loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the genetic risk factor for Ulcerative Colitis (UC) in first-degree relatives?

A

Higher risk compared to the general population; less genetic influence than Crohn’s disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What role do HLA genes play in gut health?

A

Involvement in defective immune response to gut microbiota.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a hernia?

A

A bulging mass that causes pain with strain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What can cause the formation of certain hernias?

A

Failure of normal closure, connective tissue disorders, and increased intra-abdominal pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are some connective tissue disorders that increase hernia risk?

A
  • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • Marfan syndrome
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are common symptoms to inquire about during a breast health history?

A
  • Lumps
  • Pain
  • Nipple discharge.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the significance of a lump in the breast?

A

Identify precise location, duration, and any change in size or variation within the menstrual cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What should be assessed regarding nipple discharge?

A
  • Occurrence
  • Color
  • Quantity
  • Frequency.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define dysmenorrhea.

A

Pain before or during menses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the three criteria for diagnosing PMS?

A
  • Signs and symptoms in five days before menses for at least three consecutive cycles
  • Symptoms end within four days after onset of menses
  • Interferes with daily activities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

General absence of periods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary amenorrhea?

A
  • Primary: periods never started
  • Secondary: cessation of periods after they have been established.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Excessive menstrual flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause?

A
  • Hot flashes
  • Flushing
  • Sweating.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What does Gravida Para notation signify?

A

Gravida (G) = total pregnancies; Para (P) = number of births.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the significance of the term ‘living child’ in Gravida Para notation?

A

It refers to the number of living children currently held by the mother.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What should be assessed regarding sexual health history?

A
  • Contraception methods
  • History of Pap smear screenings
  • Vulvovaginal symptoms.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are common causes of abnormal vaginal discharge?

A
  • Bacterial vaginosis
  • Trichomoniasis
  • Candidal vaginitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is important to consider when discussing sexual history with patients?

A

Use a neutral, non-judgmental tone and ensure patient comfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does low libido or erectile dysfunction indicate?

A

Possible psychogenic causes, decreased testosterone, or vascular, neurologic, or endocrine problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What symptoms may indicate a sexually transmitted infection in males?

A
  • Penile discharge
  • Lesions
  • Scrotal swelling.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the significance of blood in the stool?

A

May indicate GI bleeding, polyps, hemorrhoids, or carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are common urinary symptoms to inquire about for prostate health?

A
  • Difficulty starting or maintaining stream
  • Weak stream
  • Blood in urine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the main techniques for performing a breast exam?

A
  • Inspection in various positions
  • Palpation with fingers in concentric circles.
75
Q

What is included in the pelvic exam for females?

A
  • External inspection of vulva
  • Speculum exam
  • Bimanual exam.
76
Q

How is a hernia examination best performed?

A

With the patient standing.

77
Q

What is the duration of regular menstrual bleeding?

78
Q

What is the frequency range for regular menstrual cycles?

A

Every 21-35 days

79
Q

What are the characteristics of irregular periods?

A

Varying cycle lengths

80
Q

What are potential causes of irregular periods?

A
  • Stress
  • Hormonal imbalances
  • Thyroid issues
81
Q

What is intermenstrual spotting?

A

Bleeding that occurs between menstrual periods

82
Q

What are potential causes of intermenstrual spotting?

A
  • Ovulation
  • Hormonal contraceptives
  • Fibroids
83
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

84
Q

What are characteristics of menorrhagia?

A
  • Soaking through one or more pads or tampons every hour for several hours
  • Clots larger than a quarter
85
Q

What are possible causes of menorrhagia?

A
  • Uterine fibroids
  • Adenomyosis
  • Hormonal imbalances
  • Bleeding disorders
86
Q

What is primary amenorrhea?

A

Absence of periods by age 16

87
Q

What is secondary amenorrhea?

A

Cessation of periods for three consecutive cycles or more

88
Q

What are possible causes of amenorrhea?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Significant weight loss
  • Excessive exercise
  • Hormonal disorders (like PCOS)
89
Q

What is implantation bleeding?

A

Light spotting around the time of expected period (6-12 days post-conception)

90
Q

What are characteristics of miscarriage?

A
  • Heavy bleeding
  • Severe cramping
  • Passage of tissue
91
Q

What is a characteristic of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Sharp pelvic pain with light to heavy bleeding

92
Q

What are characteristics of perimenopausal bleeding?

A
  • Irregular periods
  • Heavier or lighter flow
93
Q

What are common signs of infections causing abnormal bleeding?

A
  • Abnormal discharge
  • Odor
  • Itching
94
Q

What types of cancer may cause unexplained bleeding?

A
  • Uterine
  • Cervical
  • Ovarian cancer
95
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in the world?

A

Breast cancer

96
Q

What are benign lumps in the breast typically caused by?

A

Conditions like fibroadenomas or cysts

97
Q

What are characteristics of malignant lumps in the breast?

A
  • Hard
  • Irregular
  • Immovable
98
Q

What does peau d’orange refer to?

A

Skin that appears dimpled and resembles the surface of an orange

99
Q

What can nipple discharge indicate?

A

Infection or cancer

100
Q

What does localized pain in the breast suggest?

A

An underlying problem such as infection or a growing mass

101
Q

What are symptoms of mastitis?

A
  • Redness
  • Warmth
  • Swelling
  • Pain
102
Q

What does skin dimpling or puckering indicate?

A

Changes in the underlying tissue, such as tumors

103
Q

What anatomical landmarks are important for identifying hernias in the groin?

A
  • Anterior superior iliac spine
  • Inguinal ligament
  • Pubic tubercle
104
Q

What are risk factors for acute epididymitis?

A
  • Sexually transmitted infections
  • Urinary tract infections
  • Indwelling urethral catheters
105
Q

What is the clinical presentation of testicular torsion?

A
  • Sudden, severe unilateral scrotal pain
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Swelling and erythema
106
Q

What does a varicocele feel like?

A

A ‘bag of worms’ in the spermatic cord

107
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Congenital displacement of the urethral meatus to the inferior surface of the penis

108
Q

What is the primary cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

Gram-negative enteric organisms like E. coli

109
Q

What are symptoms associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A
  • Urethral obstruction symptoms (hesitancy, incomplete emptying)
  • Irritative symptoms (urgency, frequency, nocturia)
110
Q

What is a normal prostate size?

A

About the size of a walnut (2–3 cm)

111
Q

What are concerning signs indicating the possibility of prostate cancer?

A

Distinct hard nodules with irregular border on the gland

These nodules should be further evaluated as the cancer may extend beyond the prostate gland.

112
Q

What is the typical size and texture of a normal prostate?

A

About the size of a walnut (2–3 cm), feels rubbery

Normal findings include a smooth and nontender prostate with a palpable median sulcus.

113
Q

What is central cyanosis and why is it significant in pediatrics?

A

Always abnormal; could indicate a cardiac or respiratory abnormality

It is assessed by examining the inside of the mouth, tongue, conjunctiva, and skin.

114
Q

What are the symptoms that may indicate an underlying heart defect in infants?

A

Work of breathing and diaphoresis while feeding

Assessment should occur during feeding for infants and during activity for older children.

115
Q

What are thrills and what do they indicate?

A

Palpable vibrations that may show cardiac abnormalities

Assess the quality of pulses in upper and lower extremities, especially femoral pulses.

116
Q

What is the significance of diminished or absent femoral pulses?

A

Usually caused by coarctation of the aorta

This is a critical finding that requires further evaluation.

117
Q

What is sinus dysrhythmia in infants?

A

A normal variant where heart rate increases on inspiration and decreases on expiration

It is common in infants and children.

118
Q

What should be noted when auscultating for heart murmurs in infants?

A

Specific location, timing, intensity, and quality of the murmur

Some murmurs, like a closing ductus, can be benign.

119
Q

What is witch’s milk in newborns?

A

White liquid secreted from enlarged breasts due to maternal estrogen

This can last for one to two weeks and is a normal variant.

120
Q

What are common findings in the abdomen of infants?

A

Infection of the umbilical stump, umbilical granuloma, and umbilical hernias

Hernias should be reducible and less than five centimeters in diameter.

121
Q

What is cutis marmorata?

A

A normal response in infants characterized by a lattice-like bluish modeling due to cooling

It can also occur from chronic exposure to radiant heat.

122
Q

What does a café au lait spot indicate?

A

Normal variance unless there are more than five or include axillary freckling

This can be indicative of neurofibromatosis if present in excess.

123
Q

What is the appearance of miliaria rubra?

A

Scattered vesicles on an erythematous base, often referred to as baby acne

This condition can be common in infants.

124
Q

What is the significance of the anterior fontanelle measurement at birth?

A

Measures 4–6 centimeters and usually closes by 18 months of age

Its bulging can indicate increased ICP or hydrocephalus.

125
Q

What is cephalohematoma?

A

Localized scalp swelling caused by birth trauma that does not cross suture lines

This is different from caput succedaneum which does cross suture lines.

126
Q

What is a normal finding regarding the red reflex in infants?

A

A positive red reflex indicates healthy eyes

Absence can indicate congenital cataracts or retinoblastoma.

127
Q

What does low set ears indicate?

A

Can indicate renal disease or Down syndrome

An imaginary line across the inner and outer canthi of the eye should cross the pinna.

128
Q

What is choanal atresia?

A

A condition characterized by obstruction of the choanae

Only the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are present at birth.

129
Q

What is the expected number of primary teeth in infants?

A

One tooth for each month of age between six and 26 months, with a maximum of 20 primary teeth

This is a normal developmental milestone.

130
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

A condition where one or both testes are undescended

It usually self-corrects by one year of age; surgery may be required if not.

131
Q

What are the Ortolani and Barlow tests used for?

A

To assess for developmental dysplasia of the hip

Barlow tests for dislocation while Ortolani confirms it.

132
Q

What are common skin conditions in infants?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis, atopic dermatitis, candidal diaper dermatitis, and contact dermatitis

Each has distinct characteristics and causes.

133
Q

What is impetigo?

A

A bacterial skin infection causing honey-colored crusted lesions

It is common in summer and winter months.

134
Q

What is the appearance of tinea capitis?

A

Scaling, crusting, and hair loss in the scalp

Often accompanied by an enlarged occipital lymph node.

135
Q

What characterizes hives (urticaria)?

A

Very pruritic, erythematous rash that changes shapes

Can present in one area and then disappear to another.

136
Q

What does allergic rhinitis look like in children?

A

Boggy, mucous membranes with symptoms like mouth breathing and ‘allergic shiner’

Children may also exhibit an ‘allergic salute.’

137
Q

What is thrush?

A

White plaques in the mouth that do not rub off

Common in infants but can indicate problems in older children.

138
Q

What are the red flags for developmental skills in infants?

A

Not making age-appropriate sounds/language or plateau/loss of developmental skills

These may indicate need for further assessment.

139
Q

What is the expected motor development milestone for infants by 6 months?

A

Can sit with support

Infants learn head control before trunk control.

140
Q

At what age should children be able to jump and ride a tricycle?

A

By four years of age

This is part of their gross motor development.

141
Q

What are the normal language development milestones for infants by 1 year?

A

Saying one to three words

Development starts with cooing and progresses to babbling at 6 months.

142
Q

What is a red flag in socio-emotional skills for toddlers?

A

Plateau or loss of developmental skills

Tantrums are common and a natural part of development.

143
Q

What are common signs of abnormalities observed during play in infants and young children?

A

Inappropriate discipline, difficult temperament, poor parent-child interaction, gross or fine motor delay, language delay, socio-emotional delays

Observing play is key for examiners.

144
Q

What major developmental task is emphasized for children attending school?

A

Self-efficacy or the ability to thrive in different situations.

145
Q

What is a red flag indicating developmental concerns in children?

A

Plateau or loss of developmental skills.

146
Q

What should examiners observe during play in infants and young children?

A

Signs of abnormalities such as inappropriate discipline, difficult temperament, and motor or language delays.

147
Q

What is a common cardiac finding in infants related to heart rate?

A

Sinus dysrhythmia, where HR increases on inspiration and decreases on expiration.

148
Q

What is Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia (PVST)?

A

The most common dysrhythmia in children, characterized by a heart rate of 220 bpm or greater.

149
Q

What type of murmur is benign in infants and can be heard during the first few days of life?

A

Closing ductus murmur.

150
Q

What is a Still’s murmur, and when is it typically observed?

A

Grade I–II/VI, musical, vibratory murmur seen in preschool or early school age.

151
Q

True or False: Central cyanosis is always abnormal.

152
Q

What are potential symptoms of congenital heart defects in infants during feeding?

A

WOB (work of breathing) and diaphoresis.

153
Q

What does a ‘rolling’ heave at the left sternal border suggest?

A

An increase in right ventricular work.

154
Q

What condition is associated with absent or diminished femoral pulses?

A

Coarctation of the aorta.

155
Q

What does persistent splitting of S2 potentially indicate?

A

Atrial septal defect.

156
Q

What is the significance of a true gallop rhythm in heart failure?

A

It indicates tachycardia plus a loud S3 and S4.

157
Q

What are the characteristics of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

VSD, infundibular and valvular right ventricular outflow obstruction, malrotation of the aorta, and right to left shunting.

158
Q

Fill in the blank: Persistent nystagmus, shaking eye movement, is a concern and should be further investigated as it could indicate some _______.

A

neurological disorder.

159
Q

What should be assessed when examining muscle tone in infants?

A

Muscle tone should be assessed while doing a passive range of motion.

160
Q

What are primitive reflexes, and why are they important?

A

Primitive reflexes are reflexes present in infants and their absence or abnormal presence can indicate neurological issues.

161
Q

What is the first step in a general pediatric examination?

A

Establish rapport with both the child and caregiver.

162
Q

What history should be gathered for infants during a pediatric examination?

A

Birth history, feeding and diet history, growth parameters, developmental milestones, immunization status, parental concerns.

163
Q

What is the significance of observing general appearance and symmetry in infants?

A

It helps assess interaction with caregivers and overall responsiveness.

164
Q

What are key components of the physical examination for toddlers?

A

Developmental milestones, diet and nutrition, sleep habits, behavioral concerns.

165
Q

What should be included in the physical examination of preschoolers?

A

General observation, vitals, vision and hearing screenings, oral health, chest and heart assessment.

166
Q

What age group should have blood pressure measured starting at age 3?

A

School-aged children (6 to 12 years).

167
Q

What is a common assessment for social behaviors in preschoolers?

A

Peer relationships and behavior at home and preschool.

168
Q

What are the components of a cardiovascular examination in children?

A

Cardiac murmurs, PMI location

PMI stands for point of maximal impulse, an important assessment in cardiac examinations.

169
Q

What should be assessed in the abdomen during a physical examination?

A

Tenderness, bowel sounds, hernia check

170
Q

What are the key aspects to evaluate in the genitourinary examination?

A

Anatomical normalcy, cleanliness, injury signs

171
Q

What musculoskeletal aspects are evaluated in children?

A

Balance, coordination, gait, scoliosis screening (if indicated)

172
Q

What neurological aspects are assessed in children?

A

Motor coordination, fine motor skill assessment

173
Q

What are the key history components for school-aged children (6 to 12 years)?

A

Academic performance, social activities, physical activity levels, screenings

174
Q

What should be included in the physical examination of school-aged children?

A

General observation, vitals, vision/hearing, dental, chest/cardiovascular, abdomen, genitourinary, musculoskeletal, neurological

175
Q

What are the vital signs to monitor in school-aged children?

A

Growth patterns (height, weight, BMI percentiles), BP screening routine

176
Q

What is assessed in the genitourinary examination for school-aged children?

A

Tanner staging initiation, hygiene, development

177
Q

What psychosocial aspects are covered in the HEADSS assessment for adolescents?

A

Home environment, education/employment, activities, drugs/substance use, sexual activity, suicide/depression

178
Q

What general aspects should be observed during the physical examination of adolescents?

A

Hygiene, appearance, emotional state

179
Q

What are the key components of the breast exam in adolescents?

A

Tanner staging, asymmetry, lumps

180
Q

What is included in the genitourinary examination for adolescent females?

A

Tanner staging, menstrual irregularities

181
Q

What is included in the genitourinary examination for adolescent males?

A

Testicular exam, education on self-exam

182
Q

What musculoskeletal aspects are assessed in adolescents?

A

Postural deviations (kyphosis, scoliosis), sports injury assessment

183
Q

What key reminders should be followed across all age groups?

A

Adapt assessment style, include anticipatory guidance, approach with sensitivity

184
Q

Fill in the blank: In assessing adolescents, it is important to offer private discussion to reassure _______.

A

privacy/confidentiality