Exam 2 Flashcards

Cardiomyopathy and Shock

1
Q

A client admitted with a massive myocardial infarction rapidly develops cardiogenic shock. The health care provider would ideally use the intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) to support the injured myocardium. However, this client has a history of unstable angina pectoris, aortic insufficiency, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus. Which condition is a contraindication for IABP use?

A. Unstable angina pectoris
B. Aortic insufficiency
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus

A

B. Aortic insufficiency

A history of aortic insufficiency contraindicates the use of the IABP. Other contraindications for this therapy include aortic aneurysm, central or peripheral atherosclerosis, chronic end-stage heart disease, multisystemic failure, chronic debilitating disease, bleeding disorders, and a history of emboli. Unstable angina pectoris that doesn’t respond to drug therapy is an indication for IABP, not a contraindication. Hypertension and diabetes mellitus aren’t contraindications for IABP.

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2
Q

The critical care nurse is preparing to initiate an infusion of a vasoactive medication to a client in shock. The nurse knows that vasoactive medicines are given in all forms of shock. What is the primary goal of this aspect of treatment?

A. To prevent the formation of infarcts of emboli
B. To limit stroke volume and cardiac output
C. To avoid pulmonary and peripheral edema
D. To maintain adequate mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

D. To maintain adequate mean arterial pressure (MAP)

Vasoactive medications can be administered in all forms of shock to improve the client’s hemodynamic stability when fluid therapy alone cannot maintain adequate MAP. Specific medications are selected to correct the particular hemodynamic alteration that is impeding cardiac output. These medications help increase the strength of myocardial contractility, regulate the heart rate, reduce myocardial resistance, and initiate vasoconstriction. They are not specifically used to prevent emboli, edema, or infarcts.

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3
Q

A client with profuse bleeding from an abdominal gunshot wound is brought in for emergency care. Place the actions the nurse should take in order. All options must be used.

1. Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation.
2.  Infuse intravenous fluids.
3.  Assess the body for other injuries.
4.  Control the pain from the injury.
5.  Maintain NPO in anticipation of surgery.
A
  1. Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation.
    1. Infuse intravenous fluids.
    2. Assess the body for other injuries.
    3. Control the pain from the injury.
    4. Maintain NPO in anticipation of surgery.

Monitoring a client in the acute phase of care is best reflected by monitoring the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation). The top priority is to assess vital signs and oxygen saturation (airway, breathing, circulation) followed by intravenous fluids to prevent shock (circulation). Further assessment for injuries (as the first step of the nursing process) would be completed next, followed by pain control. (Pain is the sixth vital sign). Maintaining NPO status in anticipation of surgery is important, but stabilization of the client is the priority.

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4
Q

The health care provider prescribes a vasoactive agent for a client in cardiogenic shock. The nurse knows that the drug is prescribed to increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction. Which of the following is most likely the drug that is ordered?

A. Levophed
B. Dobutrex
C. Nipride
D. Methotrexate

A

A. Levophed

The vasopressor agents that increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction are Levophed, Intropin, Neo-Synephrine, and Pitressin. Other vasopressors act by reducing preload and afterload and oxygen demands of the heart, and by increasing contractility and stroke volume.

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5
Q

The central venous pressure (CVP) reading in hypovolemic shock is typically which of the following?

A. Low
B. High
C. Normal
D. Unable to measure
A

A. Low

The CVP reading is typically low in hypovolemic shock. It increases with effective treatment and is significantly increased with fluid overload and heart failure.

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6
Q

The nurse knows when the cardiovascular system becomes ineffective in maintaining an adequate mean arterial pressure (MAP). Select the reading below that indicates tissue hypoperfusion.

A. 60 mm Hg
B. 70 mm Hg
C. 80 mm Hg
D. 90 mm Hg

A

A. 60 mm Hg

Mean arterial pressure is cardiac output × peripheral resistance. The body must exceed 65 mm Hg MAP for cells to receive oxygen and nutrients.

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7
Q

The nurse reviews the diagnostic lab work of a client who is developing shock. Which laboratory result does the nurse note as a key in determining the type of shock?

A. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL
B. Potassium: 4.8 mEq/L
C. WBC: 42,000/mm3
D. ESR: 19 mm/hour

A

C. WBC: 42,000/mm3

Septic shock has the highest mortality rate and is caused by an overwhelming bacterial infection; thus, an elevated WBC can indicate this type of shock. The other lab values are within normal limits.

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8
Q

When beta-2 adrenergic receptors are stimulated, which of the following occur?

A. Bronchioles relax
B. Vasoconstriction in heart
C. Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles
D. Bronchioles constrict

A

A. Bronchioles relax

When beta-2 adrenergic receptors are stimulated, vasodilation occurs in the heart and skeletal muscles, and the bronchioles relax,

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9
Q

Shock occurs when tissue perfusion is inadequate to deliver oxygen and nutrients to support cellular function. When caring for clients who may develop indicators of shock, the nurse is aware that the most important measurement of shock is:

A. Blood pressure.
B. Breath sounds.
C. Renal output.
D. Heart rate.

A

A. Blood pressure.

By the time the blood pressure drops, damage has already occurred at the cellular and tissue levels. Therefore, the client at risk for shock must be monitored closely before the blood pressure drops.

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10
Q

Morphine sulfate has which of the following effects on the body?

A. Reduces preload
B. Increases preload
C. Increases afterload
D. No effect on preload or afterload
A

A. Reduces preload

In addition to relieving pain, morphine dilates the blood vessels. This reduces the workload of the heart by both decreasing the cardiac filing pressure (preload) and reducing the pressure against which the heart muscle has to eject blood (afterload). So it reduces preload AND afterload.

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11
Q

A nurse is caring for a postoperative client. What intervention(s) will help prevent thrombophlebitis?
Select all that apply.

A. Leg range of motion exercises
B. Sequential compression devices (SCDs) and antiembolic stockings
C. Early ambulation as tolerated
D. Frequent turning and positioning
E. Leg exercises using light ankle weights
F. Deep breathing and coughing exercises

A

A. Leg range of motion exercises
B. Sequential compression devices (SCDs) and antiembolic stockings
C. Early ambulation as tolerated
D. Frequent turning and positioning

During surgery, venous blood return from the legs slows; in addition, some surgical positions decrease venous return. Thrombophlebitis and resultant emboli are potential complications from this circulatory stasis in the legs. Leg exercises, frequent turning and positioning, the use of SCDs and antiembolic stockings, adequate hydration, early ambulation, and anticoagulant prophylaxis increase venous return. Deep breathing and coughing improve postoperative gas exchange and prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis. Using weights would not help prevent thrombophlebitis.

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12
Q

A client with a gastrointestinal bleed has vomited 600 mL of frank red blood and is now pale and diaphoretic. Place in order the steps of care the nurse should provide to the client. All options must be used.

1. Assess for a patent airway and circulation.
2. Measure vital signs and oxygen saturation level.
3. Initiate IV access with large-bore catheters.
4. Notify the health care provider.
5. Assist with emergency care.
A

As listed: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

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13
Q

The nurse determines that a client in shock is experiencing a decrease in stroke volume when what clinical manifestation is observed?

A. Increase in diastolic pressure
B. Decrease in respiratory rate
C. Increase in systolic blood pressure
D. Narrowed pulse pressure

A

D. Narrowed pulse pressure

Pulse pressure correlates well with stroke volume. Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic measurement from the systolic measurement; the difference is the pulse pressure. Normally, the pulse pressure is 30 to 40 mm Hg. Narrowing or decreased pulse pressure is an earlier indicator of shock than a drop in systolic BP. Decreased or narrowing pulse pressure is an early indication of decreased stroke volume.

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14
Q

A client is in the progressive stage of shock with lung decompensation. What treatment does the nurse anticipate assisting with?

A. Pericardiocentesis
B. Thoracotomy with chest tube insertion
C. Administration of oxygen via venture mask
D. Intubation and mechanical ventilation

A

D. Intubation and mechanical ventilation

Decompensation of the lungs increases the likelihood that mechanical ventilation will be needed. Administration of oxygen via a mask would be appropriate in the compensatory stage but insufficient in the event of lung decompensation. Pericardiocentesis or thoracotomy with chest tube insertion would not be necessary or appropriate.

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15
Q

The nurse is caring for a child. Upon assessing the child, the nurse notes a heart rate of 235, abnormal P waves, weak peripheral pulses, and a decreased level of consciousness. The nurse is aware that this child is presenting in which cardiac arrhythmia?

A. compensated SVT
B. uncompensated SVT
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. ventricular fibrillation

A

B. uncompensated SVT

Signs and symptoms for uncompensated supraventricular tachycardia include a heart rate >220 bpm, abnormal P waves, and signs of shock such as altered level of consciousness, poor perfusion, and weak pulses.
Compensated SVT signs and symptoms include a heart rate of >220 with an alert, well-perfused child. Ventricular tachycardia includes wide QRS complexes with no P waves, with or without a pulse. Ventricular fibrillation signs and symptoms include chaotic ventricular activity with no P, QRS, or T waves present.

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16
Q

The nurse plans to educate the parents of a child experiencing septic shock about the purpose of administering dobutamine intravenously to their child. What would the nurse include in this educational plan?

A. Dobutamine is used to improve cardiac contractility.
B. Dobutamine will work to eliminate the bacteria causing the infection.
C. Dobutamine is used to provide vasodilation, thus increasing blood pressure.
D. Dobutamine will work to dry secretions and inhibit serotonin and histamine.

A

A. Dobutamine is used to improve cardiac contractility.

Dobutamine improves the contractility of the heart muscle during shock. The medication is not an antibiotic. Vasodilation would result in lower blood pressure. Atropine (anticholinergic) increases cardiac output, dries secretions, and inhibits serotonin and histamine.

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17
Q

A client is brought into the ED with extensive traumatic injuries. The paramedic reports that the client has “shock.” What are the etiologies of shock? Select all that apply.

A. heart fails as effective pump
B. blood volume decreases
C. peripheral vascular dilation
D. blunt force trauma
E. nausea

A

A. heart fails as effective pump
B. blood volume decreases
C. peripheral vascular dilation

Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when arterial blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues and cells are inadequate. Shock develops as a consequence of one of three events: (1) blood volume decreases, (2) the heart fails as an effective pump, or (3) peripheral blood vessels massively dilate (Wedro, 2014).

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18
Q

The nurse is aware that fluid replacement is a hallmark treatment for shock. Which of the following is the crystalloid fluid that helps treat acidosis?

A. 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Lactated Ringer’s
C. Albumin
D. Dextran

A

B. Lactated Ringer’s

Lactated Ringer’s is an electrolyte solution that contains the lactate ion, which is converted by the liver to bicarbonate, thus assisting with acidosis.

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19
Q

A client undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy. When assessing the client 10 hours later, the nurse identifies which finding as an early sign of shock?

A. Increasing heart rate
B. Pale, warm, dry skin
C. Heart rate of 70 beats/minute
D. Elevated blood pressure

A

A. Increasing heart rate

Early in shock, heart rate increases. Inadequate tissue perfusion causes pale, cool, clammy skin (not pale, warm, dry skin). In the early stages of shock, the client’s heart rate will become elevated above normal. In early shock the client’s blood pressure will remain normal, but as shock progresses the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure will not be able to compensate.

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20
Q

Oliguria occurs in the progressive stage of shock because the kidneys decompensate. Which of the following are signs or symptoms that indicate decompensation? Select all that apply.

A. Acid–base imbalance
B. Increased capillary permeability and fluid and electrolyte shifts
C. Increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine
D. A mean arterial blood pressure of 70 mm Hg
E. Bradycardia with a heart rate of 60 beats/min

A

A. Acid–base imbalance
B. Increased capillary permeability and fluid and electrolyte shifts
C. Increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine

In decompensation, the MAP would be less than 65 mm Hg, and the heart rate would be tachycardic or erratic with instances of asystole.

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21
Q

What is the major clinical use of dobutamine?

A. increase cardiac output.
B. prevent sinus bradycardia.
C. treat hypotension.
D. treat hypertension.

A

A. increase cardiac output.

Dobutamine (Dobutrex) increases cardiac output for clients with acute heart failure and those undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass surgery. Health care providers may use epinephrine hydrochloride, another catecholamine agent, to treat sinus bradycardia. Health care providers use many of the catecholamine agents, including epinephrine, isoproterenol, and norepinephrine, to treat acute hypotension. They don’t use catecholamine agents to treat hypertension because catecholamine agents may raise blood pressure.

22
Q

Vasoactive drugs, which cause the arteries and veins to dilate, thereby shunting much of the intravascular volume to the periphery and causing a reduction in preload and afterload, include agents such as

A. Sodium nitroprusside
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Furosemide

A

A. Sodium nitroprusside

Sodium nitroprusside is a vasodilator used in the treatment of cardiogenic shock. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor that is used to promote perfusion to the heart and brain. Dopamine tends to increase the workload of the heart by increasing oxygen demand; thus, it is not administered early in the treatment of cardiogenic shock. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces intravascular fluid volume.

23
Q

The emergency nurse is admitting a client experiencing a GI bleed who is believed to be in the compensatory stage of shock. What assessment finding would be most consistent with the early stage of compensation?

A. Increased urine output
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Cool,clammy skin

A

D. Cool,clammy skin

In the compensatory stage of shock, the body shunts blood from the organs, such as the skin and kidneys, to the brain and heart to ensure adequate blood supply. As a result, the client’s skin is cool and clammy. Also in this compensatory stage, blood vessels vasoconstrict, the heart rate increases, bowel sounds are hypoactive, and the urine output decreases.

24
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock following injuries from a motor vehicle accident. In addition to normal saline, which crystalloid fluid should the nurse prepare to administer?

A. Lactated Ringer
B. Albumin
C. Dextran
D. 3%NaCl

A

A. Lactated Ringer

Crystalloids are electrolyte solutions used for the treatment of hypovolemic shock. Lactated Ringer and 0.9% sodium chloride are isotonic crystalloid fluids commonly used to manage hypovolemic shock. Dextran and albumin are colloids, but Dextran, even as a colloid, is not indicated for the treatment of hypovolemic shock. The 3% NaCl is a hypertonic solution and is not isotonic.

25
A client who is in shock is receiving dopamine in addition to IV fluids. What principle should inform the nurse's care planning during the administration of a vasoactive drug? A. The drug should be discontinued immediately after blood pressure increases. B. The drug dose should be tapered down once vital signs improve. C. The client should have arterial blood gases drawn every 10 minutes during treatment. D. The infusion rate should be titrated according to the client's subjective sensation of adequate perfusion.
B. The drug dose should be tapered down once vital signs improve. When vasoactive medications are discontinued, they should never be stopped abruptly because this could cause severe hemodynamic instability, perpetuating the shock state. Subjective assessment data are secondary to objective data. Arterial blood gases should be carefully monitored, but draws every 10 minutes are not the norm.
26
A nurse in the intensive care unit (ICU) receives a report from the nurse in the emergency department (ED) about a new client being admitted with a neck injury received while diving into a lake. The ED nurse reports that the client’s blood pressure is 85/54, heart rate is 53 beats per minute, and skin is warm and dry. What does the ICU nurse recognize that the client is probably experiencing? A. Anaphylactic shock B. Neurogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Hypovolemic shock
B. Neurogenic shock Neurogenic shock can be caused by spinal cord injury. The client will present with a low blood pressure; bradycardia; and warm, dry skin due to the loss of sympathetic muscle tone and increased parasympathetic stimulation. Anaphylactic shock is caused by an identifiable offending agent, such as a bee sting. Septic shock is caused by bacteremia in the blood and presents with a tachycardia. Hypovolemic shock presents with tachycardia and a probable source of blood loss.
27
The intensive care nurse caring for a client in shock is planning assessments and interventions related to the client's nutritional needs. Which physiologic process contributes to these increased nutritional needs? A. The use of albumin as an energy source by the body because of the need for increased adenosine triphosphate B. The loss of fluids due to decreased skin integrity and decreased stomach acids due to increased parasympathetic activity C. The release of catecholamines that creates an increase in metabolic rate and caloric requirements D. The increase in gastrointestinal (GI) peristalsis during shock, and the resulting diarrhea
C. The release of catecholamines that creates an increase in metabolic rate and caloric requirements Nutritional support is an important aspect of care for clients in shock. Clients in shock may require 3,000 calories daily. This caloric need is directly related to the release of catecholamines and the resulting increase in metabolic rate and caloric requirements. Albumin is not primarily metabolized as an energy source. The special nutritional needs of shock are not related to increased parasympathetic activity, but are instead related to increased sympathetic activity. GI function does not increase during shock.
28
The nurse is transferring a client who is in the progressive stage of shock into the intensive care unit from the medical unit. Nursing management of the client should focus on which intervention? A. Reviewing the cause of shock and prioritizing the client's psychosocial needs B. Assessing and understanding shock and the significant changes in assessment data to guide the plan of care C. Giving the prescribed treatment, but shifting focus to providing family time as the client is unlikely to survive D. Promoting the client's coping skills in an effort to better deal with the physiologic changes accompanying shock
B. Assessing and understanding shock and the significant changes in assessment data to guide the plan of care
29
When caring for a client in shock, one of the major nursing goals is to reduce the risk that the client will develop complications of shock. How can the nurse best achieve this goal? A. Provide a detailed diagnosis and plan of care in order to promote the client's and family's coping. B. Keep the health care provider updated with the most accurate information because in cases of shock the nurse often cannot provide relevant interventions. C. Monitor for significant changes and evaluate client outcomes on a scheduled basis focusing on blood pressure and skin temperature. D. Understand the underlying mechanisms of shock, recognize the subtle and more obvious signs, and then provide rapid assessment.
D. Understand the underlying mechanisms of shock, recognize the subtle and more obvious signs, and then provide rapid assessment.
30
The nurse is caring for a client in the ICU who has been diagnosed with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). The nurse's plan of care should include what intervention? A. Encouraging the family to stay hopeful and educating them to the fact that, in nearly all cases, the prognosis is good B. Encouraging the family to leave the hospital and to take time for themselves as acute care of MODS clients may last for several months C. Promoting communication with the client and family along with addressing end-of-life issues D. Discussing organ donation on a number of different occasions to allow the family time to adjust to the idea
C. Promoting communication with the client and family along with addressing end-of-life issues
31
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving large volumes of crystalloid fluid to treat hypovolemic shock. In light of this intervention, for what sign or symptom should the nurse monitor? A. Hypothermia B. Bradycardia C. Coffee ground emesis D. Pain
A. Hypothermia Temperature should be monitored closely to ensure that rapid fluid resuscitation does not precipitate hypothermia. IV fluids may need to be warmed during the administration of large volumes. The nurse should monitor the client for cardiovascular overload and pulmonary edema when large volumes of IV solution are given.
32
The nurse is caring for a client in intensive care unit whose condition is deteriorating. The nurse receives orders to initiate an infusion of dopamine. Which assessments and interventions should the nurse prioritize? A. Frequent monitoring of vital signs, monitoring the central line site, and providing accurate drug titration B. Reviewing medications, performing a focused cardiovascular assessment, and providing client education C. Reviewing the laboratory findings, monitoring urine output, and assessing for peripheral edema D. Routine monitoring of vital signs, monitoring the peripheral intravenous site, and providing early discharge instructions
A. Frequent monitoring of vital signs, monitoring the central line site, and providing accurate drug titration Dopamine is a sympathomimetic agent that has varying vasoactive effects depending on the dosage. When vasoactive medications are given, vital signs must be monitored frequently (at least every 15 minutes until stable, or more often if indicated), not “routinely.” Vasoactive medications should be given through a central, not peripheral, venous line because infiltration and extravasation of some vasoactive medications can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing. High doses can cause vasoconstriction, which increases afterload and thus increases cardiac workload. Because this effect is undesirable in clients with cardiogenic shock, dopamine doses must be carefully titrated.
33
The nurse in intensive care unit is admitting a 57-year-old client with a diagnosis of possible septic shock. The nurse's assessment reveals that the client has a normal blood pressure, increased heart rate, decreased bowel sounds, and cold, clammy skin. The nurse's analysis of these data should lead to which preliminary conclusion? A. The client is in the compensatory stage of shock. B. The client is in the progressive stage of shock. C. The client will stabilize and be released by tomorrow. D. The client is in the irreversible stage of shock.
A. The client is in the compensatory stage of shock. In the compensatory stage of shock, the blood pressure remains within normal limits. Vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and increased contractility of the heart contribute to maintaining adequate cardiac output. Clients display the often-described "fight or flight" response. The body shunts blood from organs such as the skin, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract to the brain and heart to ensure adequate blood supply to these vital organs. As a result, the skin is cool and clammy, and bowel sounds are hypoactive. In progressive shock, the blood pressure drops. In septic shock, the client's chance of survival is low and he will certainly not be released within 24 hours. If the client were in the irreversible stage of shock, his blood pressure would be very low and his organs would be failing.
34
The nurse in the intensive care unit is caring for a 47-year-old, obese client who is in shock following a motor vehicle accident. What would be the main challenge in meeting this client's elevated energy requirements during prolonged rehabilitation? A. Loss of adipose tissue B. Loss of skeletal muscle C. Inability to convert adipose tissue to energy D. Inability to maintain normal body mass
B. Loss of skeletal muscle Nutritional energy requirements are met by breaking down lean body mass. In this catabolic process, skeletal muscle mass is broken down even when the client has large stores of fat or adipose tissue. Loss of skeletal muscle greatly prolongs the client's recovery time. Loss of adipose tissue, the inability to convert adipose tissue to energy, and the inability to maintain normal body mass are not main concerns in meeting nutritional energy requirements for this client.
35
The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client recently admitted with a likely myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse understands that the client's heart is pumping an inadequate supply of oxygen to the tissues. The nurse knows the client is at an increased risk for MI due to which factor? A. Arrhythmias B. Elevated B-natriuretic peptide (BNP) C. Use of thrombolytics D. Dehydration
A. Arrhythmias Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart's ability to pump blood is impaired and the supply of oxygen is inadequate for the heart and tissues. An elevated BNP is noted after an MI has occurred and does not increase risk.
36
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with cardiogenic shock. The client is experiencing chest pain and there is an order for the administration of morphine. In addition to pain control, what is the main rationale for administering morphine to this client? A. It promotes coping and slows catecholamine release. B. It stimulates the client so he or she is more alert. C. It decreases gastric secretions. D. It dilates the blood vessels.
D. It dilates the blood vessels. For clients experiencing chest pain, morphine is the drug of choice because it dilates the blood vessels and controls the client's anxiety.
37
A critical care nurse is aware of similarities and differences between the treatments for different types of shock. What intervention is used in all types of shock? A. Aggressive hypoglycemic control B. Administration of hypertonic IV fluids C. Early provision of nutritional support D. Aggressive antibiotic therapy
C. Early provision of nutritional support Nutritional support is necessary for all clients who are experiencing shock. Hyperglycemic (not hypoglycemic) control is needed for many clients. Hypertonic IV fluids are not normally utilized and antibiotics are necessary only in clients with septic shock.
38
The nurse is caring for a client in shock who is receiving enteral nutrition. What is the basis for enteral nutrition being the preferred method of meeting the body's needs? A. It slows the proliferation of bacteria and viruses during shock. B. It decreases the energy expended through the functioning of the GI system. C. It assists in expanding the intravascular volume of the body. D. It promotes GI function through direct exposure to nutrients.
D. It promotes GI function through direct exposure to nutrients. Parenteral or enteral nutritional support should be initiated as soon as possible. Enteral nutrition is preferred, promoting GI function through direct exposure to nutrients and limiting infectious complications associated with parenteral feeding. Enteral feeding does not decrease the proliferation of microorganisms or the amount of energy expended through the functioning of the GI system and it does not assist in expanding the intravascular volume of the body.
39
The intensive care unit nurse is caring for an acutely ill client with signs of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). The nurse knows the client is at risk for developing MODS due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Malnutrition B. Advanced age C. Multiple comorbidities D. Progressive dyspnea
D. Progressive dyspnea The client with advanced age is at risk for developing MODS due to the lack of physiological reserve. The client with malnutrition metabolic compromise and the client with multiple comorbidities is at risk for developing MODS due to decreased organ function. Progressive dyspnea is the first sign of MODS.
40
The ICU nurse is caring for a client in neurogenic shock following an overdose of antianxiety medication. When assessing this client, the nurse should recognize what characteristic of neurogenic shock? A. Hypertension B. Cool, moist skin C. Bradycardia D. Signs of sympathetic stimulation
C. Bradycardia In neurogenic shock, the sympathetic system is not able to respond to body stressors. Therefore, the clinical characteristics of neurogenic shock are signs of parasympathetic stimulation. It is characterized by dry, warm skin rather than the cool, moist skin seen in hypovolemic shock. Another characteristic is hypotension with bradycardia, rather than the tachycardia that characterizes other forms of shock.
41
A critical care nurse is aware of the high incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in clients who are being treated for shock. What intervention should be specified in the client's plan of care while the client is ventilated? A. Performing frequent oral care B. Maintaining the client in a supine position C. Suctioning the client every 15 minutes unless contraindicated D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics, as prescribed
A. Performing frequent oral care Nursing interventions include frequent oral care, aseptic suction technique, turning, and elevating the head of the bed at least 30 degrees to prevent aspiration. Suctioning should not be excessively frequent and prophylactic antibiotics are not normally indicated.
42
The intensive care nurse is responsible for the care of a client who is in shock. What cardiac signs or symptoms would suggest to the nurse that the client may be experiencing acute organ dysfunction? Select all that apply. A. Drop in systolic blood pressure of greater than or equal to 40mmHg from baselines B. Hypotension that responds to bolus fluid resuscitation C. Exaggerated response to vasoactive medications D. Serum lactate greater than 4mmol/L E. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of less than 65 mm Hg
A, D, E Signs of acute organ dysfunction in the cardiovascular system include systolic blood pressure <90 mm Hg or MAP <65 mm Hg, drop in systolic blood pressure >40 mm Hg from baselines, or serum lactate >4 mmol/L. An exaggerated response to vasoactive medications and an adequate response to fluid resuscitation would not be noted.
43
A critical care nurse is planning assessments in the knowledge that clients in shock are vulnerable to developing fluid replacement complications. For what signs and symptoms should the nurse monitor the client? Select all that apply. A. Hypovolemia B. Difficulty breathing C. Cardiovascular overload D. Pulmonary edema E. Hypoglycemia
B. Difficulty breathing C. Cardiovascular overload D. Pulmonary edema Fluid replacement complications can occur, often when large volumes are given rapidly. Therefore, the nurse monitors the client closely for cardiovascular overload, signs of difficulty breathing, and pulmonary edema. Hypovolemia is what necessitates fluid replacement, and hypoglycemia is not a central concern with fluid replacement.
44
The nurse is reviewing the echocardiography results of a client who has just been diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). What changes in heart structure is this client experiencing? A. Dilated ventricles with atrophy of the ventricles B. Dilated ventricles without hypertrophy of the ventricles C. Dilation and hypertrophy of all four heart chambers D. Dilation of the atria and hypertrophy of the ventricles
B. Dilated ventricles without hypertrophy of the ventricles DCM is characterized by significant dilation of the ventricles without significant concomitant hypertrophy and systolic dysfunction. The ventricles do not atrophy in clients with DCM.
45
The nurse is preparing a client for cardiac surgery. During the procedure, the client's heart will be removed and a donor heart implanted at the vena cava and pulmonary veins. What procedure will this client undergo? A. Orthotopic transplant B. Xenograft C. Heterotopic transplant D. Homograft
A. Orthotopic transplant Orthotopic transplantation is the most common surgical procedure for cardiac transplantation. The recipient's heart is removed, and the donor heart is implanted at the vena cava and pulmonary veins. Some surgeons still prefer to remove the recipient's heart, leaving a portion of the recipient's atria (with the vena cava and pulmonary veins) in place. Homografts, or allografts (i.e., human valves), are obtained from cadaver tissue donations and are used for aortic and pulmonic valve replacement.
46
The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with cardiomyopathy. Which goal would be a priority for the client? A. Absence of complications B. Adherence to the self-care program C. Improved cardiac output D. Increased activity tolerance
C. Improved cardiac output
47
A client is admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of cardiomyopathy. When reviewing the client's most recent laboratory results, the nurse would prioritize assessment of which value? A. Sodium B. Aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and bilirubin C. White blood cell differential D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
A. Sodium Sodium is the major electrolyte involved with cardiomyopathy. Cardiomyopathy often leads to heart failure which develops, in part, from fluid overload. Fluid overload is often associated with elevated sodium levels. Consequently, sodium levels are followed more closely than other important laboratory values, including BUN, leukocytes, and liver function tests.
48
The cardiac nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). Echocardiography is likely to reveal what pathophysiological finding? A. Decreased ejection fraction B. Decreased heart rate C. Ventricular hypertrophy D. Mitral valve regurgitation
A. Decreased ejection fraction DCM is distinguished by significant dilation of the ventricles without simultaneous hypertrophy. The ventricles have elevated systolic and diastolic volumes, but a decreased ejection fraction. Bradycardia and mitral valve regurgitation do not typically occur in clients with DCM.
49
A 17-year-old client is being treated in the intensive care unit after going into cardiac arrest during a football practice. Diagnostic testing reveals cardiomyopathy as the cause of the arrest. Which type of cardiomyopathy is particularly common among young people who appear otherwise healthy? A. Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) B. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) D. Restrictive or constrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM)
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) With HCM, cardiac arrest (i.e., sudden cardiac death) may be the initial manifestation in young people, including athletes. DCM, ARVC, and RCM are not typically present in younger adults who appear otherwise healthy.
50
A client has been living with dilated cardiomyopathy for several years but has experienced worsening symptoms despite aggressive medical management. The nurse would anticipate which potential treatment? A. Heart transplantation B. Balloon valvuloplasty C. Cardiac catheterization D. Stent placement
A. Heart transplantation When heart failure progresses and medical treatment is no longer effective, surgical intervention, including heart transplantation, is considered. Valvuloplasty, stent placement, and cardiac catheterization will not address the pathophysiology of cardiomyopathy.
51
A client is being discharged home after a heart transplant. The nurse is preparing to provide medication education on cyclosporine and tacrolimus. Which nursing diagnosis would be prioritized for this client? A. Risk for injury B. Risk for infection C. Risk for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction D. Risk for unstable blood glucose
B. Risk for infection
52
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis. Which nursing management would be instituted to minimize complications? A. The nurse keeps the client isolated to prevent nosocomial infections. B. The nurse encourages coughing and deep breathing. C. The nurse helps the client with activities until the pain and fever subside. D. The nurse encourages increased fluid intake until the infection resolves.
C. The nurse helps the client with activities until the pain and fever subside. To minimize complications, the nurse helps the client with activity restrictions until the pain and fever subside. As the client's condition improves, the nurse encourages gradual increases of activity. Actions to minimize complications of acute pericarditis do not include keeping the client isolated. Due to pain, coughing and deep breathing are not normally encouraged. An increase in fluid intake is not always necessary.