Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Psychological assessment

A

= collecting and synthesizing in formation to understand client thoughts and behavior
-Classify their problems
-Develop their intervention plans
-Measure intervention effects
-Conduct research to better understand psychological phenomena

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2
Q

What are the steps discussed for Conducting Psychological Assessment?

A

D- Determine the reason for referral and presenting problem
C- Choose what to assess
S- Select the method of assessment
G- Gather the assessment data
C- Consider the data and draw conclusions
C- Convey the conclusions to appropriate parties

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3
Q

Antecedence

A

Ex: behavior + consequences to behavior
-teacher busts shane + praise by
-Is he seeking peer approval or is he reacting to the teacher’s behavior

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4
Q

Reason for referral

A

= a description in the psychological assessment of why the psychologist’s services are being sought
-(e.g., Why is a particular child earning poor grades?).
-presenting problem initiates assessment

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5
Q

Presenting problem

A

=The concerns and problems that lead a client to treatment.

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6
Q

D- Determine the reason for referral and presenting problem

A

○ Client provides reason for referral to clinician
+
* Presenting problem initiates assessment
-What needs evaluation
-Assessment instruments to use
-Goals of assessment

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7
Q

C- Choose what to assess

A
  • Guided by:
    § Goals in the referral
    □ What the intention is
    § Understanding of the presenting problem
    □ What is going on
    § Professional psychologists must make accurate judgments of these
    □ A lot of things one could assess, which are necessary
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8
Q

S- Select the method of assessment

A
  • After deciding client characteristics to assess, psychologists decide methods, instruments to use:

§ Instrument to address presenting problem in referral
§ Logistical concerns addressed (time taken, etc.)
§ Accuracy of results instruments provide through
§ Psychometric evaluation
§ Evidence-based assessment:
§ Reliability, validity, and standardization of methods considered

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9
Q

G- Gather the assessment data

A
  • Client’s (parent or guardian’s) informed consent obtained upon instrument selection
  • Assessment data collected by 3 primary methods, and sometimes historical records
    § Administer a test
    § Conduct an interview
    § Observe
  • Often use a multimethod assessment
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10
Q

C- Consider the data and draw conclusions

A
  • Scoring and interpretation of assessments after their administration; simple to complicated
  • Integration of data from different sources takes place
  • Few evidence-based rules exist
  • Psychologists rely on their judgement when drawing conclusions
  • As a general rule, the larger the leap from test responses to conclusions, the more vulnerable to error the clinical becomes
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11
Q

C- Convey the conclusions to appropriate parties

A

§ Assessment report generated upon drawing conclusions; report contains
§ Identifying information
§ Reason for referral
§ Background
§ Assessments used (with rationale)
§ Summary of findings
§ Diagnostic impressions
§ Recommendations for addressing questions in referral
§ And it is given to the client, parent, school personnel… via confidential channels… as appropriate

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12
Q

What are some common referral sources?

A

-Client
-Relative
-Another psychologist
-School
-Physician
-Lawyer/court order
-Employer

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13
Q

Is every psychologist trained to treat every presenting problem?

A

Ch.4

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14
Q

Psychometric evaluation:

A

A process in which the developer subjects assessment instruments to rigorous statistical analyses to determine whether they meet certain standards.

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15
Q

Evidence-based assessment:

A

When psychologists choose assessment instruments on the basis of demonstrated reliability, validity, and standardization

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16
Q

Assessment report:

A

It contains test results, interpretations, and conclusions
It includes the reason for referral along with background information and history to set the context for the assessment, a discussion of test scores and conclusions, and recommendations for how to address the questions and concerns raised in the referral.

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17
Q

What is the choice of assessment guided by?

A

§ Goals in the referral
□ What the intention is
§ Understanding of the presenting problem
□ What is going on
§ Professional psychologists must make accurate judgments of these
□ A lot of things one could assess, which are necessary

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18
Q

What are characteristics in clients a Psychologist might choose to assess?

A

-Demographics
-Mental status
-History of the problem
-Social history and functioning
-Medical history
-Developmental history
-Family history
-Intellectual functioning
-Occupational functioning
-Hobbies and interests
-Substance use
-Sexual functioning
-Personality
-Behavioral/Psychological symptoms
-History of trauma or other environmental stressors
-Self-assessment
-Legal history and history of violence

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19
Q

Why is it important to have a psychometric evaluation of an assessment? And why is it important that assessments are evidence-based?

A

Ch.4

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20
Q

Reliability=

A

the consistency with which test measures variables (anxiety, intelligence, extraversion, etx.)

-Test-retest reliability
-Interrater reliability
-Internal consistency

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21
Q

Define Test-retest reliability

A

= the consistency of assessment test scores over time.

§ Generally, we expect individuals to receive similar diagnoses from one administration to the next if the interval between administrations is short.
Shows stability of test

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22
Q

Define Interrater reliability

A

= the level of agreement between at least two interviewers who have evaluated the same client independently

§ Agreement can refer to consensus on symptoms assigned, diagnoses assigned, and so on.
§ Shows degree of diagnostic

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23
Q

Define Internal consistency

A

= The degree to which the items in a test all measure the same characteristic

§ Shows whether test questions measure the same characteristic

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24
Q

Define Validity

A

= the extent to which a test measures what it intends to measure

-Construct validity
-Predictive validity
-Incremental validity

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25
Q

Define Construct validity

A

= the extent to which interview scores predict the characteristic being evaluated and correlate with other measures or behaviors in a logical and theoretically consistent way

§ To be construct valid, an interview must demonstrate both convergent and discriminate validity.
§ Test measures correct construct

-Convergent validity
-Discriminant validity

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26
Q

Define Convergent validity

A

= the extent to which scores correlate with scores on other relevant measures administered at the same time.
□ Converge= come together
Measuring what reports to measure and cocorts other tests to ensure

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27
Q

Define Discriminant validity

A

= the extent to which interview scores do not correlate with measures other than those related to the construct being measured.
□ Extent to which doesn’t correlate with other test

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28
Q

Define Predictive validity

A

= the extent to which a test can be used to forecast future behavior.

§ Ex: success in school, whether or not someone is going to hurt themselves
Ex: SAT scores; measures of achievement and possible predictor of future success in college

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29
Q

Define Incremental validity

A

= test adds to our existing understanding of person

§ Ensure benefit to administer test, add onto already known information

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30
Q

Define Standardization

A

= a precise way of administering, scoring, interpreting results for every test-taker

  • It ensures that anyone taking the test has the same experience and scoring criteria, which allows psychologists to compare scores (such as IQ scores) across different people.
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31
Q

Define Norms

A

= data about the average scores that can be expected in a certain population

§ Established by administering the test to a large sample of the type of individuals for whom it is designed.
§ must be established for assessment tools

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32
Q

What are the three primary methods of gathering assessment data?

A
  • Administer a test
  • Conduct an interview
  • Observe
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33
Q

Define Multimethod assessment

A

= the use of more than a single method when evaluating an individual

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34
Q

What is accomplished by using a multimethod assessment?

A

This minimizes the impact of any problems with reliability and validity
* Involves multiple methods and informants
* Increase reliability and validity of assessment
* Provides a more complete picture of client’s behavior

For example, when directly interviewed, Shane might under-report his aggressive and oppositional behavior because he knows it is socially inappropriate. His teachers, on the other hand, might over-report this behavior due to their frustration. Thus, interviewing both sources, as well as Shane’s parents (who observe him at home, but not at school), in addition to conducting a direct observation of Shane in school, provides a more complete picture of Shane’s behavior.

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35
Q

What types of info are included in a confidential assessment report?

A

§ Identifying information
§ Reason for referral
§ Background
§ Assessments used (with rationale)
§ Summary of findings
§ Diagnostic impressions
§ Recommendations for addressing questions in referral

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36
Q

What is the DSM?

A
  • The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5-TR)
    § Have to have a certain amount from each categories, all the boxes required before giving a diagnoses
  • Spurred the development of various structured interview tools, such as:
    § SCID (Structured Clinical Interview for DSM Disorders)
    § MINI (Mini-International Neuropsychiatric Interview)
    § DISC (Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children)
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37
Q

what are some benefits of the structured diagnostic interviews?

A

§ Improved diagnostic reliability and consistency across clinicians
§ Enhanced research capabilities by standardizing diagnosis
§ Better alignment between clinical practice and diagnostic criteria

  • These structured interviews have become widely used in both clinical and research settings, helping to ensure more accurate and consistent diagnoses
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38
Q

When assessing diverse populations, what are some considerations?

A
  • Clients can be of cultural, ethnic, gender identity, and ideological backgrounds different from of psychologist
  • Clinical psychologists:
  • Should adopt a multi-cultural approach to treatment
  • Should ensure that assessment process is not culturally or socially biased
  • Be multicultural assessment research-oriented
    Be knowledgeable about the effect of sociocultural factors on results and conclusions drawn from assessments
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39
Q

Define Multicultural assessment research

A

It includes the study of the extent to which psychological tests are valid for different populations.

Clinical psychologists often work with clients of backgrounds different from their own and therefore must be aware of how cultural factors affect the results and interpretation of psychological test.

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40
Q

Define Clinical judgement approach

A

= a subjective form of decision-making
§ Psychologist draws conclusions and makes decisions and uses
-Expert knowledge
-Personal experience
-Client perspectives, and other insights

§ Knowledge and experience often foster more accurate conclusions than relying on “hard” data
This is an approach to clinical interpretation that is largely intuitive and experiential. Subjective or clinical interpretation requires that the clinician be sensitive to information from a wide range of sources and make a series of inductive or deductive generalizations to link the observations and predict the outcome.

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41
Q

Define Judgement

A

= a cognitive process that we use to carefully assess a situation, draw conclusions, and make decisions

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42
Q

Actuarial (statistical) predication approach

A

§ Objective method
§ Judgements and decisions on statistically determined probabilities
§ Eliminates human factor

It provides the most accurate information for decision making
-Removal of human element
-No involvement of cognitive biases
-Conclusions always the same for given information

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43
Q

Define Actuarial thinking

A

= psychology involves applying statistical methods to assess and predict behavioral patterns and outcomes over time

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44
Q

Define epidemiology and advantages & disadvantages

A

= studies incidence, prevalence of a phenomenon (e.g., disorders) in a population
Epidemiological research

+Identifies risk cases
+Vulnerable cases
-Limitation: retrospective data subject to distortions

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45
Q

Define Correlational research and advantages & disadvantages

A

research methods that allow us to determine whether one variable is related to another

+Determines relationship between two or more variables
Limitation: does not allow us to draw inferences about cause and effect

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46
Q

Define Incidence

A

rate of new cases in a timeframe

○ The rate of new cases of a disease or disorder that develop within a given period of time. Incidence figures allow us to determine whether the rate of new cases is stable or changing from one time period to the next.

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47
Q

Define prevalence

A

shows percentage of population affected

○ The overall rate of cases (new or old) within a given period of time. Prevalence figures allow us to estimate what percentage of the target population is affected by the illness or disorder.

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48
Q

Define Correlation

A

=an index of strength of relationship
§ A statistic (usually symbolized by r) that describes the relationship between two variables.
§ r ranges between –1.0 and +1.0; its sign indicates the direction of the association, and its absolute value indicates the strength.

§ Goal: Identify relationships
- -1.00 <equal r <equal 1.00
-Strength of the relationship: magnitude
-Direction of variables: + (together) or - (opposite)

§ Positive correlation: both variables increase (same direction)
§ Negative correlation: one variable increases while another decreases (opposite directions)

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49
Q

What is a Cross-sectional design?

A

= a research design that compares different individuals or groups of individuals at one point in time

§ Individuals assessed a single time

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50
Q

What is a Longitudinal design?

A

= a research design that compares the same group of individuals at two or more points in time

§ Studies same participants over time
§ Allows for understanding of time-order relationships
§ Yield valuable data
§ Costly; participants may drop, move, die

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51
Q

Define independent and dependent variable

A

Independent variable- manipulated
Dependent variable- measured

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52
Q

Define experimental study

A

Research study that allows the researcher to determine cause-and-effect relationships between variables or events

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53
Q

Define Random assignment

A

The random placement of participants into experimental or control groups to help ensure that any differences between and within the participant groups are not systematic at the outset of the experiment

§ Participants randomly assigned to experimental or control groups

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54
Q

What are major issues to consider when conducting a clinical interview?

A

○ Considering where to conduct an interview
-Some hesitant and will feel more comfortable in a familiar/safe environment
○ How quickly develop rapport
○ Proper use of various verbal and nonverbal techniques
-Body language speaks volumes
○ How to superimpose a multicultural perspective to minimize the impact of their own biases

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55
Q

Who is responsible for keeping the interview on track to meet goals?

A

The psychologist creates opportunities for client’s comfort and safety to meet goals
○ Responsibility keeps interview on track with
-Careful planning
-Deliberate and skillful execution
-Goal-orientation
-Interaction focused on client (not the therapist!)

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56
Q

What is meant by the interview being a dynamic interaction?

A

§ Interview= an interaction between at least two people

§ “Dynamic,’ meaning that each participant is contributing to - and perhaps unwittingly changing the behavior and reactions of - the other.
§ Common in most convos, but in clinical interviewing psychologists can use the dynamic nature of this interaction to better understand the client by creating moments and opportunities that will allow the client to feel comfortable, open, and safe so a psychologist can learn as much as possible to help them

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57
Q

What are some important considerations with regard to the place and environment for conducting the interview?

A

1) Privacy
i. Few clients are likely to be open and responsive if they can hear other voices and assume their voice can also be heard.
ii. Soundproof to eliminate noise

2) Protection from interruptions
i. Neutral, tasteful furnishings for comfort; cultural free
ii. Can you imagine how damaging to the continuity it would be if the phone kept vibrating or the receptionist kept interrupting? Would the client feel valued? Interruptions might convey that the client and their problems are of secondary importance!

+Avoid political, social, or religious statements in office space
+Psychologists sometimes conduct clinical interviews in less formal environments (ease & facilitate rapport)
+Adapt to client’s needs (toys or games for children)

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58
Q

What does it mean to develop a rapport?

A

= establishing clinician-client alliance is a primary task of the clinician, and is achieved through
○ Attitude of acceptance, understanding, and respect of client
(building good rapport involves establishing a comfortable atmosphere and sharing an understanding of the purpose of the interview)

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59
Q

What are some challenges to establishing rapport?

A

○ Family/group therapy, conflicting relationships
○ Child/parents

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60
Q

What are the 5 types of interview questions?
Verbal and non-verbal language

A

-Open-ended
-Facilitative
-Confronting
-Direct
-Clarifying

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61
Q

What is the importance of open-ended questions in an interview?

A

§ Used by therapists to give clients responsibility and latitude for responding; these questions require more than a yes or no answer.
§ Begin discussions of a new topic

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62
Q

What is the importance of facilitative questions in an interview?

A

§ Used by therapists to encourage clients’ flow of conversation.
§ Clarify, or guide clients

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63
Q

What is the importance of confronting questions in an interview?

A

Used by therapists to challenge inconsistencies or contradictions

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64
Q

What is the importance of direct questions in an interview?

A

□ Used by therapists to challenge appropriately once rapport has been established and the client is taking responsibility

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65
Q

What is the importance of clarifying questions in an interview?

A

§ Used by therapists to make sure they understand what the client is expressing.
§ “What I hear you say is this… If not may you explain please”

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66
Q

What is meant by active listening?

A

= understanding what is being said

            § Retains the focus on the client, helps guide the client to consider their thoughts and feelings more deeply, and helps the client feel close to and supported by the psychologist
	§ Not only hearing what the client is saying but also understanding what has been said, perhaps even at a level beyond what the client understands themselves. This can help provide clarification to the client.
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67
Q

What is meant by reflective listening?

A

= repeating what client says

§ Word for word or paraphrasing
§ Guides the course of interview toward warmth, openness, trust, and rapport

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68
Q

Why is it important to consider the client’s strengths?

A

It is helpful to gain an understanding of the client’s strengths because it contributes to the foundation in which the treatment is built

How has the client coped successfully with past and current distress?
What are their accomplishments and sources of inner value?
What do they get out of their friendships, work accomplishments, and family support?
What hobbies and interests do they have? Questions such as “What are you proud of?” or “What do you like about yourself?” often reveal such information.

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69
Q

How might a clinician assess the client’s strengths?

A

§ Understand client strengths, accomplishments
§ Coping strategies successfully used in past
§ Hobbies, personal interests

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70
Q

What is meant by “stimulus value?”

A

= the way the therapist appears and behaves
§ May affect individual clients in different ways

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71
Q

How is Stimulus value a part of the nonverbal language?

A

§ Psychologist’s Stimulus Value
-Can bring biases and assumptions to interviews
-Psychologist should focus on feelings and perspectives of client

§ Clients are often guided simply by the therapist’s looks, behavior, and other assumptions they make about the therapist.
Sometimes assumptions are wrong of course, and built on stereotypes, but humans are guided by assumptions, nonetheless.
This can have a strong effect on the direction and effectiveness of conversations.
In a perfect world, clients would recognize that assumptions may be incorrect, but in reality, people change their behavior based on who (they assume) they are talking to.

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72
Q

What is multi-cultural humility?

A

= psychologists must never stop learning about own filters and continually challenge themselves to question assumptions
-recognition that our own past experiences have created biases, filters, or lenses through which we see the world
-understand their privilege and avoid accusations of racism, sexism, etc.

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73
Q

How does multi-cultural humility impact the interview and treatment?

A

§ May require rethinking clinical diagnosis due to culture.
§ May use brief personal disclosure to clarify or discuss visible cultural differences.
§ Psychologist’s multi-cultural humility essential for interview and treatment that may follow.

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74
Q

Define unstructured interviews

A

= any questions that come to mind in any order
§ Free to open-ended questions => build rapport
§Lose reliability and validity

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75
Q

Define Structured interviews

A

= questions predetermined and standardized

§ Build validity and reliability when comparing assessments
But mundane/robotic

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76
Q

What are the similarities and differences between structured and unstructured interviews?

A

§ Similarities
□ Same kinds of interview skills are required:
-rapport
-good communication skills
-appropriate follow-up questions
-good observational skills
□ Interviewers to maintain a healthy sense of multicultural humility

§ Differences
□ Structured interviews use predetermined set of standardized questions, less interviewer bias, higher reliability and validity; not so in unstructured

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77
Q

Define Intake-admission interview

A

= conducted when a client is admitted to hospital

§ Interviews face-to-face; changed to online during COVID-19, norm for many now
§ Sample Intake Report for Kiara pages 101-102 in the textbook
§ An interview conducted for the purposes of
(a) determining why the client has come to an agency (e.g., clinic, hospital)
(b) determining whether the agency can meet the client’s needs and expectations
(c) informing the client about the agency’s policies and procedures
-Completed by the client upon hospital admission

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78
Q

Define Social History Interview

A

= an interview conducted for the purpose of gaining a thorough understanding of the client’s background and the historical-developmental context in which a problem emerged

§ Opportunity to document as much as possible about the personal history of the client.
§ The psychologist is interested in concrete facts, dates, events and the client’s feelings about them.
§ Conducted by the hospital’s social services team or clinician
§ For most adults, particularly those whose cognitive abilities and reality testing are intact, social history interviews are conducted with the client themselves.
§ Among youth, interviews are more commonly conducted with “external informants”

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79
Q

Who are external informants and when are they consulted instead of the client?

A

= include one or more parents, extended family members, and perhaps even schoolteachers

§ Covers broad range of material (infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood)
§ Includes educational, sexual, medical, parental-environmental, religious, and psychological matters and the client’s presentation of information of interest
○ Adults with intact cognitive abilities interviewed
○ Youth interviewed with “external informants”

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80
Q

Define Mental status examination

A

= an interview conducted to evaluate the client for the presence of cognitive, emotional, or behavioral problems

§ In the MSE interview, the clinician assesses the client in a number of areas:
-general presentation
-quality of speech
-thought content
-memory
-judgment

§ Conducted in the hospital unit
§ Assess presence of in-the-moment cognitive, emotional, or behavioral problems
§ Information gathered assesses
-Whether client experiencing acute psychosis
-Client’s general demeanor
§ Also used within forensic settings

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81
Q

Define Diagnostic interview

A

= a diagnostic interview that consists of a standard set of questions asked in a specified sequence

§ The questions may be keyed to the diagnostic criteria for a number of disorders for the purpose of arriving at a DSM-5-TR diagnostic formulation.
§ Conducted by treating clinician to arrive at a diagnosis

82
Q

What do you know about structured diagnostic interviews?

A

= a diagnostic interview that consists of a standard set of questions asked in a specified sequence. The questions may be keyed to the directly to the diagnostic criteria for a number of disorders.

Used by clinical psychologists in their research or clinical work
○ Standard set of questions and follow-up probes asked in specified order
○ Limitations:
-Rigid
-Culturally insensitive
-Questions may be unclear
-Not take cultural aspects to account

83
Q

What do you know about Semi-structured diagnostic interviews?

A

interview that includes standardized questions or “prompts” but also leaves room for the psychologist to follow up with questions of their own.
○ Use standardized questions, follow-up, probing questions, scoring
○ Remove subjectivity of non-structured diagnostic interviews
○ Have increased reliability and validity
○ Provide a more accurate diagnosis

84
Q

What is the goal of personality assessment is…?

A
  • to help clinical psychologists clarify a clinical diagnosis
  • guide therapeutic interventions
  • predict how people may respond in different situations
85
Q

Define personality

A

= the continuity in a person’s behavior and emotional style over time

86
Q

Define personality trait

A

= stable and consistent way of perceiving the world, and of behaving

○ Traits influenced by environment, biology, or their combination
○ Personality traits shown to have clinical significance

87
Q

What is the Five Factor Model?

A

= A comprehensive model of personality that comprises the dimensions of Neuroticism, Extraversion, Openness, Agreeableness, and Conscientiousness as well as six facets belonging to each dimension.

88
Q

What are the five dimensions and its subsets that are proposed to make up personality?

A

○ Openness to experience
-fantasy, aesthetics, feelings, actions, ideas, values

○ Consciousness
-competence, order, dutifulness, achievement striving, self-discipline, deliberation

○ Extraversion
-warmth, gregariousness, assertiveness, activity, excitement seeking, positive emotions

○ Agreeableness
-trust, straightforwardness, altruism, compliance, modesty, tender-mindedness

○ Neuroticism
-anxiety, hostility, depression, self-consciousness, impulsiveness, vulnerability

89
Q

What are the contributions of Franz Gall, Phineas Gage, Carl Jung, Myers-Brigg, Cattell, Costa/McCrae, Hermann Rorschach, Morgan/Murray, Hathaway/McKinley

A

○ 18th century: Franz Gall hypothesized brain and behavior related

○ 19th century: Phineas Gage case study
(His accident helped bring to light the relationship between the brain and personality; the first to provide physical evidence that personality is linked to specific brain regions)

○ Carl Jung proposed dichotomous personality traits (introversion, extraversion)
○ Myers-Briggs Type Indicator developed
○ Cattell developed 16-trait model
○ Costa and McCrae’s Five-Factor Model (FFM; “Big Five”)

90
Q

What is meant by the situational perspective?

A

= the perspective that people’s behavior is entirely a product of the environment and factors such as operant and classical conditioning
-Unlike The Middle Ground, doesn’t acknowledge connection with personality traits

Behaviorist view of personality
○ Behavior (personality) product of situational factors
- Learning, conditioning from environment
-Behaviors learnt through reinforcement
○ Behavior also shaped by culture
-share beliefs, values, norms

Ex: assertiveness, rather than being ascribed to the trait of extraversion, would be viewed as learned through positive reinforcement for speaking up for oneself.
-fear would be seen as stemming from exaggerated estimates of danger rather than from the possession of a trait such as neuroticism.

91
Q

What is meant by the middle ground

A

○ The Middle Ground
-Most psychologists
-Human behavior and emotion is an interaction of
§ Personality traits
§ Situational factor

Most psychologists acknowledge that human behavior and emotion rely on interaction between personality traits and situational factors.

92
Q

Projective personality tests

A

= consist of presenting the test taker with ambiguous (e.g., vague, abstract, incomplete) stimuli and then assessing how the individual responds to such stimuli

93
Q

Objective personality tests

A

= involve the administration of a standard set of questions or statements to which the test taker responds using a fixed set of options

94
Q

Personality tests requirements for usefulness

A

-standardization
-reliability
-incremental validity

95
Q

Standardization

A

= follow same scoring and administration procedures each time

96
Q

Reliability

A

similar results for same individual upon multiple testing

97
Q

Incremental validity

A

= the extent to which a scale score provides information about a person’s behavior, personality features, or psychopathology features that is not provided by other measures. This helps clinicians to guide treatment

○ In a test, provides information not available from other sources (observation, interview) about the person
○ It predicts the person’s future behavior and indicates to the clinician how the person will respond to treatment and assists the clinician in devising a treatment plan

98
Q

Validity scale

A

= test scale that attempts to shed light on the respondent’s test-taking attitudes and motivations (e.g., to present themselves in an overly favorable light, to exaggerate their problems or symptoms, to engage in random responding).

99
Q

What are projective personality tests?

A

= psychological testing technique that uses people’s responses to ambiguous test stimuli to make judgments about their adjustment-maladjustment. Proponents believe that examinees “project” themselves onto the stimuli, thus revealing unconscious aspects of themselves

○ Responses to ambiguous stimuli are assessed (inkblots, incomplete sentences to complete)
○ Method based on projective hypothesis
○ Emphasize Freud’s concept of projection
○ Provide incremental validity

100
Q

What are the main characteristics of projective personality tests?

A

○ Ambiguous test stimuli
-Examines respond to unstructured stimuli

○ Indirectness
-Respondents unaware of test purpose

○ Freedom of response
-Open-ended test items

○ Qualitative response interpretation
-Along multiple dimensions

○ Lack of standardization
-As every person is unique, it is difficult to determine validity and reliability

101
Q

What do you know about the Rorschach Inkblot Test?

A

○ 10 black and white (and grays), 5 include colors

○ Administration: respondent tells what is seen
-Clinician records responses verbatim
-Inquiry: clinician asks for causes/prompts for responses; elaboration and clarification of responses

○ Scoring methods vary, but 3 determinants employed:
-Location: area of card to which individual responds
-Content: nature of object perceived in inkblot
- Determinants: aspects of card that evoked response

○ Interpretation is complex, and subject to illusory correlation
-Overuse of form may suggest conformity
-Poor form may suggest psychosis
-Color is said to relate to emotionality
-Overuse of white spaces indicates opposition
-Details indicate a compulsive, obsessional person
-Small animals mean prey; large animals mean predator
-Turning a card indicate suspicio

102
Q

Overuse of form

A

implies that if a person focuses too much on describing the shapes or outlines they see in the inkblots, rather than incorporating other elements like color or movement, it might indicate a tendency towards conformity or rigidity in thinking.

103
Q

Illusory correlation

A

= the tendency to see patterns or connections where none actually exist, or to overestimate the strength of a relationship between variables

○ The presence of illusory correlations can lead to:
-Overinterpretation of test results
-Drawing unfounded conclusions about a person’s psychology
-Reinforcing preexisting beliefs or stereotypes about certain response patterns

104
Q

What does caution in interpretation refer to in the Rorschach Inkblot Test?

A

By mentioning illusory correlation, the text is essentially cautioning that the interpretations listed (like those about form, white spaces, etc.) should not be taken as definitive or universally applicable. It’s a reminder to be skeptical and careful when interpreting Rorschach test results.

105
Q

What does scientific scrutiny refer to in the Rorschach Inkblot Test?

A

This concept highlights why Rorschach tests and similar projective techniques have faced criticism in modern psychology. Many psychologists argue that such tests are too subjective and prone to interpretive biases like illusory correlation.

106
Q

What do you know about the Thematic Apperception Test?

A

○ Introduced by Morgan and Murray (1935)
○ Individuals respond to a series of pictures and linicians are likely to make specific judgments from responses
○ Description:
-31 cards (one is blank) of people in varieed situations, some with unclear gender
-Less ambiguous and unstructured as the Rorschach
○ Most use it as a method of inferring psychological needs (for achievement, affiliation, dependence, power, sex, etc.) and of disclosing how an individual interacts with the environment.

In contrast to the Rorschach, the TAT is used to infer the content of personality and the mode of social interactions.
○ Administration:
-While Murray suggested 20 of 31 cards be selected, most clinicians select 6-12 cards
-Respondents’ stories transcribed verbatim
○ Scoring and Interpretation
-Lindzey and Silverman’s (1959) interpretation:
□ Paranoia- using stereotyped phrases
□ Anxiety- emotional trauma, accidents
□ Dependency- family member references
□ Sexual problems- avoiding to mention sexual clues in pictures
□ There is no research suggesting that information obtained from the TAT is related to treatment outcome. Given the TAT’s purported ability to identify interpersonal styles that might influence choices regarding the therapist’s treatment approach.

○ Reliability and validity difficult to establish
□ Many variations in:
-Instructions
-Methods of administration
-Number of cards used
-Type of scoring/interpretation system
□ Lack of norms
□ Clinicians rely on qualitative impressions rather than computing score

107
Q

Why are the reliability and validity of projective measures so difficult to assess?

A

The characteristics of projective tests are that they have ambiguous test stimuli, are indirect, have an infinite number of open-ended responses that are qualitatively interpreted, and lack standardization

108
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of objective tests?

A

○ Advantages
+Economical; be given to groups or individuals
+Brief instructions; simple scoring
+Objective and reliable

○ Disadvantages
-Responses may not indicate actual behavior
-There can be several interpretations of same score
-Respondents may fake responses
-Experience, culture, and context can influence question interpretation and responses

109
Q

What are the major strategies of test construction for objective tests?

A

-Content validation
-Empirical criterion keying
-Factor analysis
-Construct validity approach

110
Q

Describe Content validation

A

= process ensuring that a test adequately measures all aspects of the construct of interest

Methods include:
□ Carefully defining relevant construct aspects
-Personality variable you want to measure
□ Assessing relevance of each potential item
-Write test items and ask independent judges (experts) to assess each potential item’s relevance to the variable of interest
□ Evaluating the psychometric properties of the item
-Use psychometric analyses to statistically evaluate each item’s performance before including it

111
Q

What are the limitations of Content validation?

A

-Test-takers may interpret items differently
-Responses may be untrue “socially desirable”
-Some individuals are not good at reporting on their own behavior
-The “experts” might not correctly define the essence of the concept they are trying to measure
-ex: Have you ever been tripped up by a poorly written test question? Writing good test items is more difficult than you might think.

112
Q

Describe Empirical Criterion keying

A

= an approach to test development that emphasizes the selection of items by members of different diagnostic groups, regardless of whether the items appear theoretically relevant to the diagnoses of interest

○ Assumption is that certain groups of people will respond in a similar way
○ One limitation is that it can be difficult to interpret meaning of scores
○ All that is required to show an empirical basis that the members of a given diagnostic group respond to a given item in a similar way

113
Q

Describe Factor Analysis

A

= a statistical method determining whether potential items are, or not, related to each other

Strength:
□ Emphasizes empiricism

Weakness:
□ Unclear whether variables of interest are measured
□ Only know that the items are measuring the same thing

114
Q

Describe Construct Validity Approach

A

= an approach to test construction in which scales are developed based on a specific theory, refined using factor analysis and other procedures, and validated by showing (through empirical study) that individuals who achieve certain scores behave in ways that could be predicted by their scores.

○ Combines aspects of the content validity, empirical criterion keying, and factor analytic approaches
○ Item analysis developed to determine item clarity
○ Factor analysis for homogeneity of scale used (items assess same construct)
○ Construct validity is then determined by demonstrating that those who get certain scores behave in non-test situations that could be predicted from their scale score
○ This is a comprehensive approach; desirable but labor-intensive
○ E.g. of validity, a construct valid measure of extraversion must ACTUALLY measure extraversion. Then if score high in extraversion, then can be observed demonstrating extraversion.

115
Q

Define Item analysis

A

= a process for examining responses to an individual test item to determine whether the item might be unclear or misleading

116
Q

What do you know about the MMPI?

A

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

○ Introduced by Hathaway and McKinley (1943) is still considered the preeminent objective personality test after 80 years
○ MMPI-2 released in 1989 and MMPI-3 in 2020.
○ The MMPI-3 requires a minimum fifth-grade reading level and can be used with individuals who are at least 18 years old.
○ A version of the MMPI specifically developed for adolescents (MMPI-A) is also available.

117
Q

How many scales/questions does the MMPI have? How is it administered?

A

Description, Scoring, and Interpretation:

□ Originally 550 items developed, 10 subscales corresponding to psychiatric complaints; T/F items
□ Restructuring with subsequent updates
□ Contemporary MMPI-3 has 335 items, 52 clinical and validity scales MMPI profile
□ Clinicians use MMPI profile as data
□ Respondents use paper-pencil or computer
□ Updates use more diverse and representative standardization samples

118
Q

What is meant by validity scales in MMPI?

A

= attempt to shed light on the respondent’s test-taking attitudes and motivations
○ 10 validity scales in MMPI-3
○ Account for questions unanswered, or answered in defensive, or socially desirable way
○ (e.g., to present themselves in an overly favorable light, to exaggerate their problems or symptoms, to engage in random responding)

○ Reliability and Validity
-Clinical scale scores who good test-retest reliability
-Good convergent and discriminant validity
-Incremental validity neglected, as in other tests

119
Q

What is NEO-PI-R? How many scales/questions does it have? How is it administered?

A

Revised NEO-Personality Inventory (Costa & McCrae, 1992) standard test of the Five-Factor Model of personality and personality pathology:

Description and Administration
□ Self-report measure; 240 items on 5-point scale
□ Half items reverse scored
□ No validity scales included
□ Includes 3 items to assess response validity

120
Q

Which assessment is the preeminent personality test? Why?

A

The MMPI was introduced by Hathaway and McKinley
(1943) is still considered the preeminent objective
personality test after 80 years

Reliability and Validity
* Clinical scale scores show good test-retest reliability
* Good convergent and discriminant validity
* Incremental validity neglected, as in other tests

121
Q

What do you know about discrimination and bias in personality testing?

A

○ Original test standardization samples were overrepresented by white, middle-class, educated, cis-gendered, heterosexuals
-Unfair systematic discrimination against underrepresented groups
-Lack exposure to wording of tests items
-Examiner of another race may affect performance
-Scoring criteria and interpretation manuals often biased

122
Q

Define Test bias

A

= situation in which different decisions or predictions are made for members of 2 groups, even when they obtain the same score on an instrument

123
Q

What does and what does not constitute evidence for test bias?

A

○ Often, test materials are prepared or embedded in a racially biased context. For example, the TAT cards all depict white characters and many aspects that are more commonly present in white cultures than nonwhite cultures, which advantages those who are especially familiar with them.
○ If it can be demonstrated that the validity of a test (e.g., in predicting criterion characteristics or performance) varies significantly across groups, then a case can be made that the test is “biased” for that purpose!
○ Sometimes underrepresented group members’ lack of exposure to the way certain tests are worded or handled may be a major source of the problem.
○ Such is the case when the presence of an examiner from another race or culture may affect test performance.
○ Some individuals potentially fear that certain examiners are looking down on them, though, that could be the reality of the given situation.

124
Q

How does Behavioral Assessment differ from other forms of assessment?

A

An emphasis on individual behaviors and their context stands in stark contrast to personality, diagnostic, and intellectual assessments, which seek to identify signs or symptoms of internal processes such as personality traits, psychiatric disorders, or intelligence.

125
Q

What is the differentiation in concept between a behavioral sample and a sign or symptom of a psychological disorder?

A
  • Sample= an example of a person’s behavior during a test, interview, observation
    -Seen as example of responding in similar situations
    -Behavioral assessment views a person’s behavior during a test, interview, or an observation as a “sample” of how they generally respond under similar conditions. The goal is to gather examples that are representative of the situations and behaviors of interest

Observing sample behaviors within their contexts stands in stark contrast to diagnostic assessments which look for signs and symptoms of psychological disorders

126
Q

What is a target behavior?

A

= the behavior of interest - carefully examined by therapist for details

  • Once the behavior of interest is identified and defined precisely, the clinician conducts a functional analysis of behavior to understand the relationship between the target behavior and the situational factors that, according to learning theory, exert control over that behavior
127
Q

Behavioral assessment

A

= emphasizes target behaviors and influences that are person-specific (idiographic)
* Though behavioral assessment does not focus on internal factors (unobservable), it examines observable target behavior and its context.
* The aim of clinical psychologists is to modify observable behavior.
* The clinician modifies target behavior through interventions.
* One can apply person-specific approach.

128
Q

Diagnostic assessment

A

= emphasizes target behaviors and influences that apply to general population (nomothetic)

129
Q

What is functional analysis?

A

= understands relationship between target behavior and situational factors; central feature of behavioral assessment
* Per learning theory: situational factors control behavior
* Careful analyses are made of the stimuli preceding a target behavior and the consequences following from it to gain a precise understanding of the relationship between the target behavior and the situational factors that, according to learning theory, exert control over that behavior.
* Once a pattern of relationships between antecedents and consequences is established, steps can be taken to modify the undesired behavior.
* Behavioral assessment represents an idiographic (or person-specific) approach to assessment, whereas diagnostic assessment is nomothetic (or general) in that it largely overlooks the role of contextual factors.

130
Q

What is the role of antecedents and consequences in functional analysis?

A

Contemporary cognitive -behavioral therapists have broadened the functional analysis to include cognitive antecedents and consequences (e.g., Zayfert & Becker, 2020)

  • Clinicians identify problem behavior to intervene
    § Antecedents- conditions/stimuli that participate target behavior
    § Consequences- circumstances that follow behavio
131
Q

Nomothetic approach

A

= a psychologist focuses on finding general patterns and universal principles that apply to most people with depression

§ Uses standardized assessment tools like the Beck Depression Inventory
§ Applies evidence-based treatments that work for the majority of
§ Focuses on common symptoms across all depression cases
§ Employs statistical data from large population studies

132
Q

Idiographic approach

A

= examines the unique, individual aspects of a person’s depression

§ Explores the patient’s personal history and specific life circumstances
§ Considers unique triggers and manifestations of depression
§ Develops tailored interventions based on individual needs
§ Focuses on the patient’s subjective experience

133
Q

Who was Walter Mischel?

A

Walter Mischel (1930–2018), an Austrian-born psychologist, argued that the situation is more important than a person’s traits in understanding behavior

134
Q

What was his explanation for what is often thought of as a personality trait?

A

Walter Mischel would have considered being “bookish” or “introverted” the wrong interpretation of a behavior as a personality trait. Rather, he would argue that this observation merely suggests the individual finds reading and spending time alone to be rewarding.

He said that because we have a strong need as humans to predict behavior, we are fooled into perceiving personality traits.
Instead of assessing personality, he said we should focus on the behaviors that we CAN observe

135
Q

Why is behavioral assessment an ongoing process? What happens at each step?

A

§ Occurs before, during, and after treatment

§ Before treatment:
* Target behaviors identified

§ During treatment:
* Feedback (assessment) provides efficacy of intervention
* Assessment process restarts if no improvement

§ End of treatment:
* Behavioral assessment determines effectiveness of intervention

136
Q

What are the major goals of the behavioral interview?

A

§ Focus of behavioral interviews
* Careful, precise description of (observable) problem behavior
* Conditions that control problem behavior:
- Antecedent conditions
-Consequent events

§ Behavioral interviews are directive, goal-oriented interactions
§ Client asked specific questions about behavior
* Situations and thoughts that cause problem behavior
* Clinician applies learning theory
-E.g., whether negative reinforcement reduces problem behavior

§ For adult clients, the interview usually occurs with the client themselves. With child clients, however, this is most typically conducted with the child’s caregiver and/or perhaps a teacher.

137
Q

What are the limitations of the behavioral interview?

A

§ Limitations:
* May be unreliable; client’s recall may be faulty
* Interviews with other people familiar with client add reliability
* Information from observational methods add to interviews

  • Clinical psychologists need to show awareness of and sensitivity to other cultures. When in doubt about information gathered from interviews or observation of a client (from a different ethnic background/culture), they should consult with other clinical psychologists to confirm their own interpretations
138
Q

What is the aim of behavioral observations?

A

: establish the possible antecedents and consequences that drive the behavior in question so that an intervention can be derived

  • Careful and specific definition, identification of target behavior
    -Differentiating it from other similar behaviors
    -Active, observable vs. passive, covert
  • Observers must be culturally sensitive to clients
  • Observational coding procedures conducted
139
Q

Define Behavioral observation

A

= a clinician or researcher directly monitoring (e.g., seeing, hearing) and then systematically documenting an individual’s (or group’s) behavior as it occurs in a natural setting, such as at home, in the classroom, within the peer group, on the playground, or under contrived conditions in a laboratory or clinic.
* The direct observation of behavior is a foundation of scientific inquiry and clinical psychology!
* The observer notes important aspects of the target behavior including its frequency, intensity, duration, and pervasiveness. The situations in which the behavior is provoked, and the consequences of the behavior are also recorded.

140
Q

What factors affect the reliability and validity of observations?

A
  • Reliability and validity are also optimized when target behaviors are defined as specifically as possible. Hyperactivity, for example, is an abstract construct that could refer to many responses, such as fidgeting, speaking out of turn, getting out of one’s seat, and the like. But this leaves too much guesswork.
  • Two different raters, for example, might disagree over whether a behavior qualifies as “hyperactive.” Therefore, it’s important that the target behavior (or behaviors) be a clear-cut response. Someone observing a fifth-grade student might, for example, choose to monitor particular behaviors such as getting out of one’s seat or speaking out of turn, rather than “hyperactivity.” This ensures that the observer knows specifically what to look for and record during the observation.
141
Q

What is meant by active/observable and passive/covert behaviors?

A
  • The psychologist must find behavioral manifestations of passive/covert behaviors and assess active/observable behaviors. I.e., gratitude could be behaviorally defined as smiling or saying “thank you.” Similarly, depression could be defined as crying or social isolation, Yelling or physical aggression could be used as a behavioral indicator of anger.
  • Behaviors that are unusual within an observer’s culture (e.g., speaking to the deceased) may be common and accepted within the culture of the client.
142
Q

Interval coding

A

= procedure in which the observer records whether the target behavior occurs within a specific period of time (i.e., the interval). This procedure is preferred when the target behavior is lengthy or occurs less frequently, or the starting or ending point of the behavior is less apparent.

  • Target behavior occurrence within specific time (interval)
  • Procedure preferred if target behavior is infrequent, or if the starting and ending point are unclear
  • Example: Monitoring a student’s participation during different classes while at school. In such an instance, the observer might record whether or not (and how often) the student engaged in any of the following behaviors during each 50-minute class (interval): raising a hand, speaking to the teacher, or participating in a group discussion. This would provide information regarding the student’s pattern of class participation and whether it occurs in certain classes or at certain times of the day more than others.
143
Q

Event recording

A

= a procedure in which the observer records each discreet occurrence of the target behavior during the entire observation period

  • Each discreet occurrence of target behavior is recorded
  • Optimal with target behaviors of specific start-end points
  • Ex: Tourette’s disorder includes tics like throat clearing, eye blinking, or the unintentional uttering of inappropriate words (coprolalia). In such a case, event recording could be used to keep track of how many times the person engages in such tics during a typical day (or a portion of it). Additional information about the context of the tics could also be collected, such as whether they are more likely to occur when the person is alone, around others, or in a stressful situation (e.g., at work or school)
144
Q

What is gained by naturalistic observation?

A

= carrying out observations in the person’s own environment, such as in their home, at school, or in the hospital. No attempt is made to intervene or manipulate the situation—the goal is merely to observe and document behavior as it naturally occurs. The environment chosen for observation is usually one in which the person spends a great deal of time, or in which the target behavior is likely to occur.

145
Q

What are some pros of the naturalistic observation?

A
  • Observing client in own environment, without manipulating situation
  • Environment where client spends much time
  • Naturalistic observation may take place in various settings, such as home environments, classrooms, playgrounds, psychiatric hospitals, institutions for those with developmental disabilities, and treatment sessions.
    Clinical psychologists working with children who have behavioral problems often conduct naturalistic observations in classrooms since that’s where children spend much of their time. The tradeoff is: greater control over certain paraments vs. advantage of the “real world” element.
146
Q

What are the cons of naturalistic observation?

A
  • Target behavior may not occur
  • Causes of behavior may not be identified
147
Q

Define ecological validity

A

= the extent to which the behaviors observed can be generalized to real-world, natural settings

148
Q

when naturalistic observation might be most useful

A
  • Mealtime Family Interaction Coding System (MICS) – family videotaped at mealtimes when observer absent
  • In hospitals to observe patient function
    -Type and frequency of target behaviors recorded
    -Time Sample Behavior Checklist (TSBC)
  • Can be made during interview sessions, and in addition to verbal reports
  • Direct Observation Form (DOF) Table 7.1 (next slide)
149
Q

Controlled observation

A
  • Environment “designed” to elicit target behavior
  • Observes rare interaction patterns of client
  • Assess severity of target behavior in clinical and research settings

*Sometimes called analogue observation
* Ex: Behavioral Approach Tasks (BATs)

150
Q

What is a BAT?

A

Behavioral Approach Tasks (BATs)
-An example of a controlled observation
-For specific phobias
-An assessment technique used to measure levels of fear and avoidance in which an individual approaches a feared situation until unable to proceed further

151
Q

Advantages and Limitations of Controlled observation

A

Advantages:
* Accurate observations
* Conclusions can be drawn about causes and consequences of observed behavior

Limitations:
* Reactivity
* Ecological validity threatened when behavior is unrepresentative of “normal behavior

152
Q

Define reactivity

A

= when individuals respond to the fact that they are being observed by changing their behvaior

153
Q

Which information is recorded with self-monitoring?

A

= individuals observe own behaviors, thoughts as they occur (timing, frequency, intensity, and duration)

○ Logging behavior in systematic and organized logs over time
○ Draws client’s attention to target behaviors
○ Self-monitoring used in cognitive and behavioral therapies
-widely used in cognitive and behavioral therapies to track target behaviors and assess treatment outcome.
-Ex: measuring the number of hours of sleep one gets per night, food choices, frequency of drug or alcohol use, the occurrence and triggers of panic attacks, binge-purge episodes, intensity of pain, and the number of hairs pulled during an episode of trichotillomania.

153
Q

What are the pros and cons of self-monitoring?

A

Pros:
○ Logs provide target behavior’s frequency, intensity, duration
○ Clinician’s learn circumstances of target behavior

Cons:
○ Inaccurate, wrongful recording of behavior
○ Client may resist recording behavior; may find it distressing to record negative patterns
○ Difficult for younger clients (children)

154
Q

How does technology facilitate self-monitoring?

A

○ Clients can be given counters, stopwatches to record target behavior occurrences
○ Smartphones provide high-quality data
○ Time stamps indicate when experience was logged in by client
○ Clients can be given counters or stopwatches, depending on what is to be monitored.
-Paper and pencil forms are routine, and small wallet-sized cards have been developed to allow for quick and discreet recording of information.
-Smartphones can also be used for self-monitoring and provide higher-quality data than paper and pencil diaries because time stamps indicate exactly when the experience was logged, and, as we turn to next, it is possible to portray the sequence of moods, behaviors, and cognitions across time
-EMA

155
Q

What is EMA?

A

○ Ecological momentary assessment (EMA)= = It is a method of behavioral assessment in which participants record their thoughts, feelings, or behaviors as they occur in the natural environment; also known as experience sampling
○ Also known as experience sampling
○ This is typically accomplished through the use of electronic diaries or smartphones.
application installed on client/researcher’s mobile device
○ Sound alarm at specific intervals prompting
○ Real time, natural environment

156
Q

What are the advantages of EMA?

A

§ Less labor-intensive and costly
§ Target behaviors assessed in real time; less memory biases
§ High ecological validity
§ Encourage compliance with self-monitoring

157
Q

What are rating scales? Who would complete them?

A

= questionnaires filled by client (or caregiver) that identify and assess severity of target behaviors

○ Developing such instruments requires
○ Carefully writing questions
○ Testing for reliability and validity
○ Advantage of being convenience

158
Q

What are benefits of these checklists?

A

○ Limitations:
-Transparency may cause clients to respond untruthfully
-Because self-report inventories contain transparent questions, respondents who are motivated to make themselves look especially well or unwell can answer the items in misleading ways
○ Benefits:
-Ease of administration and large number of people who have completed them means NORMS to better understand typicality

159
Q

How is the evaluation of cognitive factors integrated into behavioral assessment? Why?; Cognitive Behavioral assessment

A

= it is an assessment approach recognizing that the person’s thoughts or cognitions play an important role in behavior
○ Derives from the notion that a person’s thoughts- their self-images and self-statements- play an important role in their behavior
○ According to this then, assessment and functional analysis of a target problem or behavior must include measuring thinking processes
○ During behavioral interviews, clients instructed to “think aloud” and verbalize thoughts that accompany problem behavior
○ Cognitive Monitoring Forms measure cognitive aspects of target behavior
○ Client records cognition that lead to target behavior
○ Such information helpful in treatments
○ Many self-report inventories developed to assess cognitive aspects of most psychiatric disorders and problem behaviors
○ Ex:
-For Kiara – Acceptance and Action Questionnaire for Obsessions and Compulsions (AAQ-OC)
-For hoarders – Savings Cognitions Inventory (SCI)

160
Q

What is an interoceptive assessment

A

= a controlled observation procedure in which various arousal-related body sensations (e.g., dizziness) are deliberately provoked to assess the client’s responses
○ Ex: spinning in a chair
○ For individuals with panic attacks
○ We often think of the cognitive model of emotion as applied to how clients interpret situations and events in the environment.
○ For example, someone with anorexia nervosa sees a reflection of herself and thinks, “I’m overweight.” Someone with depression gets a flat tire and thinks, “This always happens to me. I’m such a loser.”

161
Q

what is a disorder where interoceptive assessment might be useful?

A

For people with panic attacks, it’s catastrophic interpretations of benign internal events (sometimes called interoceptive cues) associated with feeling anxious (i.e., the fight-or-flight response) that lead to heightened anxiety and panic.
○ For example, a racing heart is misinterpreted as a heart attack, and shortness of breath as suffocation.
○ Finding the catestrophic interpretation of benign events
These catastrophic misinterpretations lead to increased fear and anxiety, which intensifies the internal sensations and sets in motion a vicious cycle leading to a panic attack (and often the urge to seek medical assistance).

○ For such individuals, cognitive-behavioral assessment is focused on measuring the client’s responses to various interoceptive cues.
These body sensations are provoked by a series of exercises performed in a controlled manner in the office, such as spinning in a swivel chair (dizziness), hyperventilating (tingling, heart racing, sweating}, and breathing through a straw (breathlessness, choking). T
he psychologist helps the client provoke each set of sensations and then records the client’s response using the lnteroceptive Assessment Form shown in Figure 7.3. Sensations that provoke strong fear (and misinterpretations) can then be incorporated into exposure-based therapy for panic disorder, which aims to change how the client thinks about and responds to arousal-related internal sensations.

162
Q

What is intelligence comprised of, and what are some of the problems we face in defining and measuring this construct?

A

There is no universally accepted definition of intelligence. However, many definitions of intelligence emphasize the ability to think abstractly, the ability to learn, and the ability to adapt to the environment.

  • Categories of intelligence for definition:
    -Adaptability to new situations
    -Educability, ability to learn
    -Abstract thinking: verbal and numerical
  • Examples of defining: act purposefully, rational thinking, dealing with environment, problem-solving, profit from experience, ability to reason, plan, comprehend complex ideas, success in life (within one’s sociocultural context)
163
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Spearman (1927)

A

○ Hypothesized people vary in:
§ Genetic intelligence factor (g)
§ Specific factors of intelligence (s)

164
Q

Genetic intelligence factor (g)

A

= governs all mental abilities and operations, having more or less g determined one’s overall level of intelligence
□ The higher the g, the higher the s (and other way around)

165
Q

Specific factors of intelligence (s)

A

e.g., arithmetic, spatial, logical, and mechanical)

166
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Thurstone (1938)

A

○ 7 primary mental abilities work together make up intelligence
-Numerical facility
-Word fluency
-Verbal comprehension
-Perceptual speed
-Spatial visualization
-Reasoning
-Memory
○If smart you can learn more

167
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Cattell

A

○ Split the genetic intelligence factor (g) into 2 abilities
-Fluid
-Crystallized

168
Q

Genetic intelligence factor (g): Fluid

A

= refers to a person’s genetically based intellectual capacity, culture-free mental skills
□ Non-verbal, culture-free abilities

169
Q

Genetic intelligence factor (g): Crystallized

A

= the intellectual capacities obtained through culture-based learning
skills and knowledge acquired through culture, experience

170
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Gardner (1999)

A

§”Frames of Mind” Theory
§Different cultures value different things; person seen as important for being able to do what that culture values most
§ Proposed multiple intelligences
○ Linguistic
-Language
○ Musical
○ Logical-mathematical
○ Spatial
○ Bodily-kinesthetic
-Athletic ability/coordination
○ Naturalistic
-Understanding the natural world and the systems
○ Interpersonal
-Between people
○ Intrapersonal
-Within people

171
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Sternberg (2005)

A

3 aspects of intelligence triangle:
○ Componential- analytical thinking (“book smart”)
-Capacity to solve problems

○ Experimental- creative thinking
-Knowledge and skills used to handle new situations

○ Contextual- practical thinking (“street smart”)
-Ability to adjust to different environments

○ Idea of how much we have of each one

172
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Binet (1905)

A

○ Described mental performance as mental age (MA)
-Individuals of certain age should master certain abilities
-Determinants are person’s MA

○ Ratio because it’s based on the ratio of a person’s mental age to their chronological age
○ IQ scores have a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, so approximately two-thirds of the population have an IQ between 85 and 115. About 2.5% score above 130 or below 70.

173
Q

Mental Age (MA)

A

= a term introduced by Binet as an index of mental performance.

This idea was based on the notion that individuals of a certain age should have mastered certain abilities

174
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Stern (1938)

A

○ Concept of intelligence quotient (IQ)
-IQ relative to person’s chronical age (CA)

175
Q

Chronical Age (CA)=

A

what we commonly refer to as age; years of life

176
Q

Intelligence quotient

A

a term developed by Stern in 1938 to address problems with using the difference between chronological age and mental age to represent deviance.
Typically, a deviation IQ score is used

177
Q

Intellectual disability

A

= delay in thinking, intelligence, and social/practical skills before age 18
○ IQ < 70 and adaptive functioning deficits
○ Causes of intellectual disability
○ Nearly half have unidentifiable causes
Some due to down syndrome, fetal alcohol syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, and environmental factors

178
Q

Giftedness

A

= advances in thinking, intelligence, and social/practical skills before age 18
IQ > 130 and adaptive functioning benefits

179
Q

Contributions to intelligence assessments: Weschler

A

○ Skew due to natural aging
○ Deviation IQ
○ IQ of 100n means average intellectual ability in any group

180
Q

Deviation IQ

A

= based on how far an individual’s score deviates from the mean score of their age group (peers)
-IQ of 100n means average intellectual ability in any group

181
Q

What is the formula for Ratio IQ?

A

-IQ= MA/CA x 100 (relative to general population)
-IQ scores have a mean of 100, and standard deviation of 15

182
Q

What is the relationship between intelligence and school success?

A
  • In general, and cross-culturally, IQ relates substantially both to success in school and to achievement tests that measure what has been learned
  • Success (or failure) in school is related to a host of variables, including motivation, teacher expectations, cultural background, attitudes of parents, and differences in opportunities and resources. Research shows that across different cultures, IQ scores are strongly predictive of grades.
183
Q

What is the relationship between intelligence and occupational status and success?

A
  • Some minimum level of ability is necessary to achieve entry into (or minimal performance within) a given occupation or elected office (though even this is debatable)
  • Once an individual gains entry, the degree of subsequent success may be more a function of nonintellectual factors such as the ability to communicate clearly, build rapport and trust with others, and increase the perception that one has credibility and expertise.
    -Could it be argued that this, too, is a type of intelligence like Sternberg’s contextual intelligence.
184
Q

Are there gender differences in IQ?

A
  • Studies find little male-female difference in overall IQ scores
  • Apparent differences between genders in specific abilities
  • Males score higher on spatial ability tests; and after puberty in quantitative ability
  • Females score higher on verbal ability tests
185
Q

Define Behavioral Genetics

A

= a research specialty that evaluates both genetic and environmental influences on the development of behavior
* Compares similarity of characteristics or features between moonozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins
* Concordance rate (or similarity index)

186
Q

Concordance rate (or similarity index)

A

= an index of similarity between individuals.
○ The simplest form of concordance rate is the percentage of instances in which two individuals exhibit similar behaviors or characteristics.
○ Higher rate= more genetic input
○ Lower rate= less genetic input

187
Q

What does the terms MZA, MZT, DZA, DZT mean?

A
  • Monozygotic (MZ) twins (100%)
    -MZA: MZ reared apart
    -MZT: MZ reared together (share environment)
  • Dizygotic (DZ) twins (share 50%)
    -DZA: DZ reared apart
    -DZT: reared together (share environment)
188
Q

Concordance rate rates for MZA, MZT, DZA, DZT?

A
  • Concordance rates for MZT and MZA twins are significantly greater than those for DZT and DZA twins, respectively
  • Concordance rate for MZA twins approaches that of MZT twins
  • Concordance rate of DZA twins approaches that of DZT twins
  • Environmental factors (diet, oxygen levels, light cycles) aid expression of genes
189
Q

Stanford-Binet Fifth Edition (SB-5)

A

= an intelligence test that measures five general cognitive factors (fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, working memory, and knowledge), each of which includes both verbal and nonverbal subtest activities.

  • 10 individual subtests, 5 general cognitive abilities assessing verbal and non verbal aspects
    -Fluid reasoning
    -Quantitative reasoning
    -Visual-spatial processing
    -Working memory
    -Knowledge

○ Can be administered to two-year-olds through adulthood
The SB-5 is an “adaptive” test, which means that it begins with two “routing tests” designed to determine the starting point for each of the other subtests. A person who does better on the routing tests starts with more difficult questions than one who does poorly. As testing proceeds within each subtest, the questions get progressively more difficult.

190
Q

The Wechsler Scales

A

○ WAIS-IV 15 subtests by Index scale (16+ age)
○ Items grouped into subtests in order of difficulty:
-5 subtests in performance scale
-6 subtests in verbal scale
○ Test yields separate IQ for each Scale, and Full-Scale IQ
○ 3 Weschsler scales exist presently

191
Q

Internal consistency

A

= the extent to which the items on a scale correlate with one another

192
Q

Test-retest reliability

A

= the consistency of assessment test scores over time
Generally, we expect individuals to receive similar diagnoses from one administration to the next if the interval between administrations is short.

193
Q

WISC-V and Split-half reliability

A

= The extent to which an individual’s scores on one half of a test (e.g., the even-numbered items) are similar to scores on the other half (e.g., the odd-numbered items)

194
Q

WASIS-IV

A

The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV)
-undergone several revisions since introduction
-used for 16+
-yields full scale IQ score and index scores
-15 subtests with index scales
-WAIS-IV is high in reliability and validity

195
Q

WISC-V

A

The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-V
-WISC first developed in 1949
-undergone several revisions
-ages 6 to 17
-10 primary subtests yield 5 primary index scores
-full scale IQ can be derived
-high split-half reliability

196
Q

WPPSI-IV

A

The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale for Intelligence-IV

-WPPSI developed in 1967
-Divided into two age bands
(Ages 2.5 to 3yr 11months)
(Ages 4 to 7yr 7 months)

WPPSI-IV yields three indices:
-full scale IQ
-verbal comprehension index
-visual spatial index

197
Q
  • What are some clear indicators and implications regarding cultural bias in intelligence testing?
A
  • Group differences show IQ scores are inaccurate
  • Leads to unfair decisions about educational and employment opportunities
  • Minority groups are disadvantaged
  • Test makers should (and do) work to carefully standardize tests to make them unbiased
  • Issue:
    -Assumes that the children has been exposed to certain specific knowledge and in certain ways
    (Familiarity, not intelligence)
198
Q

How are intelligence tests used in clinical situations?

A
  • As a means of assessing a client’s general intellectual level (g)
  • To assess a client’s current level of functioning
  • To determine difficulties, learning disabilities (e.g., academic)
    Predict academic success
199
Q

What are some of the limitations regarding their use in these situations?

A
  • Improper interpretation of test scores
  • Test interpretations should not be used by themselves; clinician should study client’s learning history, and observations during the test
  • Intelligence and academic success are not the same thing
  • Clinicians should not ignore contextual factors
  • There can be incentives for clients to perform poorly on intelligence and achievement tests that may qualify them for accommodations in school