EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

hypothyroidism

A

underproduction of the thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

exophthalmos

A

protruding eyeballs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

endocrine disorder where pancreas can’t produce adequate insulin to regulate body’s glucose levels

(type 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what percentage of women develop GD while pregnant?

A

2-3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define gestational diabetes mellitus

A

developing insulin resistance during pregnancy. Usually noticed at midpoint of pregnancy

tested during wks 24-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

sexual maltreatment

A

any sexual contact between a child and an adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define “Megan’s Law”

A

a federal law requiring law enforcement authorities to report to neighbors when a sexual abuser moves into a neighboorhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

rape trauma syndrome

A

often broken down into 2 stages:
-disorganization (humiliation, shame, guilt)
-reorganization (nightmares, difficulty trying to move on and heal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Intimate partner violence

A

maltreatment by family member against another adult living in household

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define abortion

A

interruption of a pregnancy before a fetus is born

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define miscarriage

A

premature or immature birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe early miscarriage

A

occurs before week 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe late miscarriage

A

occurs between weeks 16-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

symptoms of threatened miscarriage

A

-vaginal bleeding
-cramping
-no cervical dilatation present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

key intervention for ectopic pregnancy:

A

avoiding strenuous activity for 24-48 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

imminent (inevitable) miscarriage

A

uterine contractions and cervical dilation occur together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

D&C

A

dilatation and curettage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

D&E

A

dilatation and evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

complete miscarriage

A

entire products of conception(fetus, membranes, and placenta) are expelled spontaneously without any assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

incomplete miscarriage

A

part of conceptus (usually the fetus) is expelled, but membranes or placenta is retained in uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

missed miscarriage

A

fetus dies in utero but it is not expelled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

implantation occurred outside uterine cavity

(commonly in fallopian tube)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole)

A

abnormal proliferation and then degeneration of the trophoblastic villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what procedure is used for gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

suction curettage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is used to treat malignancy?

A

methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cervical insufficiency (premature cervical dilation)

A

a cervix that dilates prematurely and therefore cannot retain a fetus until term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cervical cerclage

A

surgical operation performed preventing next pregnancy from experiencing premature cervical dilatation. (Tying string around cervix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

shirodkar technique

A

sterile tape threaded in a purse-string manner under submucous layer of cervix and sutured in place to achieve a closed cervix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

shirodkar sutures are removed at ______ weeks so fetus can be born vaginally

A

36-37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

placenta previa

A

placenta is implanted abnormally in lower part of uterus. Most common cause of painless bleeding in 3rd trimester of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

premature separation of the placenta

A

placenta appears to have been implanted correctly. But suddenly, it begins separating and bleeding starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

couvelaire uterus

A

forming hard, board-like uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

acquired blood clotting where fibrinogen level falls ot below effective limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

tocolytic agent

A

agent to halt labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

preterm rupture of membranes

A

rupture of fetal membranes with loss of amniotic fluid before 37 weeks of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

gestational hypertension

A

vasospasm occurs in small and large arteries during pregnancy causing increased BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

preeclampsia

A

pregnanacy-related disease process evidenced by increased BP and proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

main 2 signs of preeclampsia

A

hypertension and proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what 3 catagories is preeclampsia broken into?

A
  1. preeclampsia without severe features
  2. preeclampsia with severe features
  3. eclampsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe a pregnancy with partial separation and concealed hemorrhage

A

placenta is partially separated from uterus causing a hemorrhage, however it is a concealed hemorrhage bc you can’t see hemorrhage during cervical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

describe a pregnancy with partial separation and apparent hemorrhage

A

placenta is partially separated from uterus causing a hemorrhage. It is apparent bc you CAN see hemorrhage during cervical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

describe a pregnancy with complete separation and concealed hemorrhage

A

placenta is COMPLETELY separated from uterus, however it is a concealed hemorrhage bc you can’t see it during cervical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

define encephalopathy

A

brain damage or disfunction
pt with severe hyperemesis may develop this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

list risk factors for GD

A

obesity
age: 25+
history of large babies
family history of diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is glycosylated hemoglobin? (HbA1c)

A

the measure of the amount of glucose attached to hemoglobin. Used to detect the degree of hyperglycemia present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when is insulin therapy needed for GD patients?

A

when diet and oral therapy do not help control diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe blood glucose monitoring for pt with GD

A

completed 4 times / day. Track with chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

S&S of hypoglycemia

A

feeling weak and nauseated. check blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what foods help patients with GD?

A

Whole grains have a low glycemic index and are rich in fiber, which helps regulate blood glucose levels. They should be included in the diet for better glucose control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Which statement by the patient demonstrates an understanding of proper technique?

A

“I will check my blood sugar before meals and two hours after eating.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Glucose challenge test:
test type: fasting
pregnant glucose level: ____

A

pregnant glucose level: 95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Glucose challenge test:
test type: 1 hour
pregnant glucose level: ____

A

pregnant glucose level: 180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Glucose challenge test:
test type: 2 hours
pregnant glucose level: ____

A

pregnant glucose level: 155

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Glucose challenge test:
test type: 3 hours
pregnant glucose level: ____

A

pregnant glucose level: 140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who had gestational diabetes and is breastfeeding. Which of the following statements is most important for the nurse to include in her discharge teaching?

A

“Your blood glucose levels will likely return to normal after delivery, but you should be screened for diabetes in 6 weeks.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

describe placenta previa

A

abnormally implanted placenta that is too close to the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

signs of eclampsia

A

proteinuria, blurring of vision, hyperflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

define gestational hypertension

A

elevated BP of 140/90 after 20 weeks gestation with no proteinuria or edema

59
Q

What does HELLP stand for?

A

Hemolysis Elevated
Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

(pt may complain of epigastric pain or RUQ from painful liver)

60
Q

Describe gestational hypertension

A

BP is 140/90, no proteinuria, BP returns to normal range after birth

61
Q

Describe mild preeclampsia

A

BP is 140/90, proteinuria 1+ or 2+, weight gain 2lb per week, mild edema in face

*triad of hypertension, proteinuria, & edema = signs of preeclampsia

62
Q

Describe severe preeclampsia

A

BP is 160/110, proteinuria 3+ or 4+, oliguria, headache, blurred vision, extensive peripheral edema, epigastric pain, thrombocytopenia

63
Q

Describe Eclampsia

A

Seizure or coma along with signs of severe preeclampsia

64
Q

What med class is NOT safe while pregnant?

A

ACE Inhibitors and ARBs

65
Q

What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A

calcium gluconate

66
Q

what does PRE stand for?

A

proteinuria, Rising BP, Edema

67
Q

We know there is a Central Nervous System issue if what is affected?

A

visual changes
+ clonus
4+ DTR )deep vein reflexes

68
Q

signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity

A

hyporeflexia
RR depression
CNS depression

69
Q

when assessing for clonus, the nurses assesses dorsiflexion. What would a positive reading look like?

A

jerky rapid contraction of ankle and foot

70
Q

Define efflerage

A

counter pressure on lower back

71
Q

Describe 5 pain managements

A
  1. non pharmacological (Ex: peanut ball/ massage)
  2. pharmacological (Ex: analgesics)
  3. systemic (Ex: opioids)
  4. regional (Ex: epidural)
  5. general (Ex: general anesthesia)
72
Q

Tailor Sitting

A

looks like “criss cross applesauce”, but without ankles stacked on top of each other

73
Q

Describe the Dick-Read Method

A

fear leads to tension which leads to pain. Prevent fear with good education about childbirth

74
Q

Describe the psychosexual method

A

“flow with” instead of “struggle against” pain and discomfort. This method involves deep breathing and relaxation of the mind

75
Q

Describe hypnobirthing

A

Daily commitment to meditation during pregnancy in preparation for labor and birth

76
Q

Describe the Lamaze Philosophy

A

gate control theory of pain relief. Focuses on using mind to prevent pain

77
Q

Describe the Leboyer method of alternative birthing methods

A

Birthing room is darkened so there is no sudden contrast in light. Everything is warm, gentle, and quiet. Delayed cutting of cord is desired.

78
Q

Describe placenta previa

A

placenta abnormally implants too low near opening of cervix

79
Q

Describe abruptio placentae

A

The premature separation of the placenta from the uterus

80
Q

Describe Vasa previa

A

fetal umbilical vessels implant into fetal membranes rather then placenta

81
Q

Describe cervical insufficiency

A

premature cervical dilation

82
Q

List a few non-pharm pain management options during labor

A

-Relaxation
-Focusing and imagery
-Breathing techniques
-Aromatherapy
-Hot/cold applications

83
Q

define pressure anesthesia

A

pressure to an area of the body that interferes with pain receptors

84
Q

describe analgesia vs anesthesia

A

analgesia reduces/decreases awareness of pain, where anesthesia causes partial or complete loss of the pain sensation

85
Q

can narcotics be given during labor?

A

yes, but all narcotics cause respiratory depression so use caution

86
Q

what is regional anesthesia?

A

local. It blocks specific nerve pathways

87
Q

define a pudendal nerve block

A

injection of local anesthetic. Allows pain-free birth and suturing if needed. Monitor BP for hypotension

88
Q

Is general anesthesia used commonly for laboring patients?

A

No bc it carries danger of hypoxia and possible choking on vomit during administration

89
Q

why might a anesthesiologist prescribe ranitidine (Zantac) for a labor pt about to go on anesthesia?

A

reduces level of acid in stomach should aspiration occur

90
Q

what does the “passage” and “passenger” refer to?

A

passage: pelvis
passenger: fetus

91
Q

define fetal attitude and list 4 types

A

degree of flexion a fetus is during labor
(think how curled up they are vs how sprawled out)
1. vertex
2. sinciput
3. Brow
4. Face

92
Q

Describe fetal lie

A

relationship between long axis of fetal body and long axis of mom’s body. (transverse, vertical)

93
Q

Describe fetal presentation

A

describes part of fetus body that will first contact cervix. Goal: cephalic presentation

94
Q

Describe fetal position

A

the relationship of the presenting part to a specific quadrant and side of the mom’s pelvis

95
Q

define engagement

A

the settling of the presenting part of a fetus far enough into the pelvis that it rests at the midpoint of the pelvis

96
Q

define station

A

the relationship of the presenting part of the fetus to the level of the ischial spines
+3 or +4 means baby is crowning

97
Q

mechanisms (cardinal movements of labor)

A

various position changes of fetus keeping smallest diameter of fetal head presenting to smallest diameter of pelvis

98
Q

decent

A

downward movement of the biparietal diameter of the fetal head within the pelvic inlet

99
Q

flexion

A

As decent is completed, the head bends forward onto the chest

100
Q

ripening

A

cervix softening

101
Q

cooks catheter is for…

A

balloons on top and underneath cervix to put pressure and open cervix. Mimics fetus’s head

102
Q

Effacement

A

thinning and shortening of cervix approaching labor

103
Q

dilation

A

cervix widening

104
Q

station

A

position of baby’s presenting part in relation to mom’s pelvis

105
Q

baseline

A

average fetal HR over 10 minutes

106
Q

variability

A

irregular fluctuations in fetal HR

107
Q

accelerations

A

temporary increase in fetal HR

108
Q

variable decelerations

A

sudden drop in fetal HR lasting at least 15 sec

109
Q

early decelerations

A

normal HR pattern due to contractions

110
Q

late declerations

A

gradual drop in HR after contraction

111
Q

contraction consistency by palpation

A

using hand to feel contraction

112
Q

tachysystole

A

uterus contracts too forcefully during labor. 5 or more in 10 min period

113
Q

duration

A

length of uterine contractions

114
Q

frequency

A

how often uterine contractions occur

115
Q

augmentation of labor

A

body is laboring well, but healthcare workers intervene

116
Q

induction

A

body is not laboring or ready for labor and healthcare workers interviene

117
Q

SROM

A

spontaneous rupture of membrane

118
Q

AROM

A

artifical rupture of membrane

119
Q

Miconium

A

first stool of baby. It is black and sticky like tar

120
Q

particulate

A

little flecks of miconium at various times

121
Q

PROM

A

premature rupture of membranes

122
Q

PPROM

A

pre-term premature rupture of membranes

123
Q

IUCP

A

intrauterine pressure catheter

124
Q

FSE

A

fetal scalp electrode

125
Q

tocotranducer

A

monitors contractions, goes on top of uterus, has bump on back

126
Q

describe powers of labor

A

force supplied by fundus of the uterus and implemented by uterine contractions

127
Q

describe phases of contractions

A

A contraction consists of three phases: the increment, when the intensity of the contraction increases; the acme, when the contraction is at its strongest; and the decrement, when the intensity decreases

128
Q

describe the Schultze presentation of a placenta

A

Placenta appears shiny and glistens from fetal membranes

129
Q

how is a pt’s progress in labor recorded?

A

a Partogram (labor record)

130
Q

describe ineffective uterine force

A

contractions have less strength then usual or are rapid but ineffective

131
Q

hypotonic uterine contractions

A

of contractions is unusually infreqquent (not more than 2-3 occuring in a 10-min period

132
Q

hypertonic contractions

A

increase in resting tone to more than 15 mmHg

133
Q

Dysfunction at first stage of labor

A

prolonged latent phase, protracted phase, prolonged deceleration phase, and secondary arrest of dilatation

134
Q

should you push a prolapsed cord back into the cervix?

135
Q

occipitoposterior position

A

-baby’s head is down but facing front of pelvis
-also known as “sunny side up”

136
Q

shoulder dystocia

A

The problem occurs at the second stage of labor, when the fetal head is born but the shoulders are too broad to enter and be born through the pelvic outlet

137
Q

external cephalic version

A

turning of fetus from a breech to a cephalic position before birth

138
Q

Amniotomy

A

the artificial rupturing of membranes during labor if they do not rupture spontaneously to allow the fetal head to contact the cervix more directly

139
Q

episiotomy

A

surgical incision of the perineum made to release pressure on the fetal head with birth and possibly shorten the last portion of the second stage of labor

140
Q

what is the most precise method for assessing FHR and uterine contractions?

A

Internal Electronic Monitoring

141
Q

why do infants often develop respiratory issues from a C section?

A

during a vag birth, the pressure from squeezing out the vag cannal forces fluid out of baby’s lungs. During a C section, this does not happen

142
Q

pre OP diagnostic procedures

A

vital signs
UA
CBC
Coagulation profile
blood type

143
Q

difference between prolapsed cord and cord compressionl

A

cord compression can occur when cord is still inside womb. possibly from baby’s head pressing against it which can be helped by mom changing positions.

prolapsed cord IS CORD COMPRESSION occurring due to cord being outside cervix/vagina, and presenting part of fetus pressing against it.