Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

von Willebrand Factor

A

Secreted by endothelial cells and platelets

vWF will form bridge between the collagen so platelets can bind

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2
Q

Platelet binding to collagen triggers

A

Release of secretory vesicles containing ADP and Serotonin and platelet activation (change in shape, metabolism, etc)

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3
Q

Thromboxane A2

A

Released after adhesion to locally stimulate further adhesion and vesicle release

Causes vasocontstriction

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4
Q

Platelet Aggregation

A

Platelets binding to platelets which have been activated to create a platelet plug

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5
Q

Fibrinogen role in platelet aggregation

A

Forms bridges between aggregating platelets by binding to receptors that became exposed during platelet activation

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6
Q

Platelet contraction

A

Platelets contain a high level of myosin and actin which cause compression and strengthening of the plug

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7
Q

Platelet Factor

A

Phospholipids displayed by activated platelets which function as cofactors for bound clotting factors

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8
Q

Prevention of platelet plug spread

A

Non-damaged endothelial cells produce
- Prostacyclin (as opposed to Thromboxane A2)
- Nitrix Oxide

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9
Q

Clot (aka Thrombus)

A

Consists mainly of Fibrin, supports and reinforces platelet plug

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10
Q

Prothrombin

A

Cleaved to produce Thrombin by Xa

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11
Q

Thrombin

A
  • converts fibrinogen to fibrin
  • positive feedback to create more Thrombin
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12
Q

Fibrin

A

Produced from Thrombin-mediated cleavage of Fibrinogen

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13
Q

8a

A

Covalently cross-links fibrin

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14
Q

Importance of platelets in clotting

A

Form a surface which allows the clotting reactions to happen and display PF

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15
Q

Intrinsic Pathway

A

12, 11, 9, 10, Thrombin

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16
Q

Factor 12 activation

A

Triggered by contact with collagen (or glass)

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17
Q

Factor 8

A

Triggered to 8a by Thrombin, activates 9a to convert 10 to 10a

Deficiency leads to class hemophilia

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18
Q

Extrinsic Pathway

A

TF, 7, 10, Thrombin

7 also activates 9, which activates the intrinsic pathway

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19
Q

Extrinsic pathway activation

A

Blood outside of vessels binds to Tissue Factor (Tissue Thromboplastin), which then activates factor 7

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20
Q

Thrombin activates:

A

1) Fibrin (cleavage of Fibrinogen)
2) Intrinsic pathway
3) 5,8,9
4) Platelets

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21
Q

Vitamin K

A

Used to produce Prothrombin and other clotting factors

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22
Q

3 factors that limit clot formation

A

1) TFPI
2) Thrombomodulin
3) Antithrombin III

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23
Q

TFPI

A
  • binds 7a, prevents it from generating 10a
  • secreted by endothelial cell
  • why extrinsic pathway generates so little Thrombin
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24
Q

Thrombomodulin

A
  • cell receptor
  • eliminates Thrombin clot-producing effects, binds it to protein C
  • bound thrombin causes inactivation of 7a and 5a in healthy cells
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25
Q

Antithrombin III

A
  • inactivates Thrombin
  • augmented by Heparin
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26
Q

Fibrinolytic system

A
  • tPA and Plasminogen bind to clot
  • tPA cleaves Plasminogen to Plasmin
  • Plasmin digests fibrin
  • tPA has low activity without presence of Fibrin
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27
Q

Aspirin anticoagulative mechanism

A

Inhibits COX, which inhibits production of Thromoboxane A2 which prevents platelet aggregation

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28
Q

Platelet production

A

Pinching cytoplasm off of megakaryocytes (large bone marrow cells

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29
Q

Adult marrow producing locations

A

Chest, base of skull, spinal vertebrae, pelvis, ends of limb bones

Bone marrow = liver weight

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30
Q

HGFs (Hematopoietic Growth Factors)

A

Stimulate differentiation of progenitors into RBC
Example: EPO

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31
Q

Necessary nutrients for RBC production

A

1) Iron
2) Folic Acid
3) Vitamin B12

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32
Q

EPO

A
  • regulates RBC production
  • stimulates progenitor differentiation into RBC
  • stimulated by low O2
  • stimulated by testosterone release
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33
Q

Sickle cell

A

mutation in beta chain, fiber like polymers that distort RBC membrane

Only present in homozygotes, unless low pO2 in atmosphere, such as at high altitude

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34
Q

Polycythemia

A

Increase in viscosity cause by an increase in RBC, strains heart and vessels

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35
Q

3 proteins in plasma

A

Albumin, Fibrinogen, Globulin

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36
Q

Serum

A

Plasma - Fibrinogen and other clotting factors

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37
Q

Reticulocytes

A
  • young RBC that still have some ribosomes
  • lose ribosomes after one day
  • make up 1% of circulating RBC
  • survive 2 days
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38
Q

RBC destruction

A
  • Occurs in spleen and liver
  • 1% per day (250 milly)
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39
Q

Ferritin

A

Binds Iron, storing it in the liver

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40
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

Excess of Iron, abnormal deposits in various organs

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41
Q

Transferrin

A

Binds Iron in plasma, delivers it to bone marrow to make new RBC

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42
Q

Recycling vs absorption of Iron

A

20x more Iron recycled than ingested

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43
Q

Where is Iron in the body?

A

50% in Hb
25% in other heme (cytochromes)
25% in Ferritin

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44
Q

Folic Acid

A

Important for RBC precursor division

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45
Q

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

A
  • required for Folic Acid activity
  • Intrinsic Factor needed for absorption
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46
Q

Pernicious Anemia

A

Lack of RBC due to lack of RBC due to lack of Intrinsic Factor

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47
Q

Average Hb in men and women

A

Men: 15.5g/100mL
Women: 14g/100mL

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48
Q

Spectrin

A

long, rod-shaped protein under membrane which maintains cell shape and integrity

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49
Q

Spherocytes

A
  • Due to deficiency in Spectrin
  • Fragile, 30-50day half life
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50
Q

Methemoglobin Reductase

A

Reduces Fe3+ to Fe2+ using NADH

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51
Q

Phosphogluconate pathway

A

Creates GSH to intercept ROS
- Uses NADPH to convert GSSG to GSH

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52
Q

G6PDH Deficiency

A

Leads to Hemolytic Anemia

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53
Q

2,3BPG

A

Produced from 1,3 BPG

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54
Q

Hemolytic Anemia

A

Decrease in RBC leads to decrease in O2 leads to increase in EPO

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55
Q

RBC Senescence

A

RBC lose flexibility and form lumps

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56
Q

Extravascular Hemolysis

A

Majority route
Macrophages scan RBCs as they pass sinusoids in the spleen
If they can’t pass, digested by macrophages

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57
Q

Disposal of RBC components

A

Iron sent to Transferrin
Globin sent to aa pool
Porphyrin ring disposed as BR

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58
Q

Intravascular Hemolysis

A

RBC breaks down into Hb dimer or Methemoglobin

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59
Q

Haptoglobin

A

Binds Hb dimer and goes to liver for disposal via BR

(finite source)

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60
Q

Hemopexin

A

Methemoglobin loses global, and heme binds to hemopexin, then liver for BR

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61
Q

Clinical detection of hemolytic event

A

If low haptoglobin, means intravascular hemolytic event occurred up to 5 days ago

If hemoglobinuria, up to 2 days ago

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62
Q

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

A

Rho- mother has a Rho+ child

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63
Q

Rhogam

A

Antibodies to D-antigen, masks Rho+ fetal blood so mother doesn’t make antibodies

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64
Q

Classic Hemophilia

A

Deficiency in factors 8 and 9

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65
Q

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

A

Use to assess intrinsic pathway, substitutes for platelet phospholipids and contact factor activator

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66
Q

Prothrombin Time

A

Use to assess extrinsic pathway, adds Thromboplastin which binds 7 to activate 10

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67
Q

How to evaluate Tissue Factor deficiency

A

Not possible lol

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68
Q

P wave

A

Both atrial contraction and relaxation

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69
Q

Ventricular Action Potential

A

1) Na+ comes in
2) Transient K+ open, closed Na+
3) L-type Ca2+ (DHP) counters slow K+
4) Ca2+ closed, K+ repolarizes
5) RMP, K+ leak channels offset by Na+ and Ca2+

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70
Q

Atrial AP

A

Same as ventricular AP, but plateau is shorter

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71
Q

Nodal APs

A

1) Na+ Funny channels
2) T-type Ca2+ open
3) L-type Ca2+ open at threshold
4) L-type close, normal K+ open (different from ventricular K+)

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72
Q

Funny Channels

A

non-specific cation channels, open only at negative values

HCN channels

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73
Q

AV vs SA

A

AV node pacemaker potentials are slower to reach threshold compared to SA node

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74
Q

Pacemaker Potential

A
  • Driven by Funny current
  • Allows for automaticity
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75
Q

AV conduction disorder

A

malfunction of AV node cells
- His and Purkinje 25-40 bpm
- unsynchronized with atria
- treated by artificial pacemaker

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76
Q

P-Q

A

Atrial Contraction

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77
Q

S-T

A

Ventricular conctraction

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78
Q

Lead 1

A

Across the top R>L

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79
Q

Lead 2

A

Down the Right side

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80
Q

Lead 3

A

Down the left side

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81
Q

aVR

A

Points at upper right side

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82
Q

aVF

A

Points down

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83
Q

aVL

A

Points at upper left side

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84
Q

Ca2+ release in regular muscle vs cardiac muscle

A

in muscle, enough Ca2+ released to saturate all sites

in heart, saturates only some troponin C sites
- exercise increases the release of Ca2+ from SR

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85
Q

Heart refractory period

A

Longer absolute RP to prevent summation and tetany, occurs because of plateau

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86
Q

Duration of AP

A

= Duration of contraction

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87
Q

MI troponin markers

A

Troponin I and Troponin T

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88
Q

Percentage of cells that have autorhythymicity

A

1%

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89
Q

Dromotropy

A

Conduction velocity

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90
Q

Effect of ACh on SA Node AP

A

Can slow down the repolarization via K+

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91
Q

Sympathetic stimulation to the heart goes mainly via which receptors

A

ß, with some alpha receptor input

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92
Q

Chronotropy

A

Heart rate

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93
Q

Inotropy

A

Contractility

94
Q

Lusitropy

A

Rate of relaxation

95
Q

Tachycardia limit

A

greater than 100

96
Q

Bradycardia limit

A

less than 60

97
Q

Exercise effect on SA Node AP

A

Increase in slope of AP
- affected by GPCR cascade
- triggers increased current through funny and T-type Ca2+ channels

98
Q

PNS (vagal) stimulation of SA Node

A

Decreases slope and hyper-polarizes pre-potential
- GPCR cascade decreases opening of T-type Ca2+
- enhances K+ permeability

99
Q

Isopreterenol

A

Non-selective ß agonist
- similar effect to exercise, increased HR

100
Q

Interval-Duration relationship of ventricular AP

A

Increase in plateau amplitude leads to a decrease in plateau duration
- more phosphorylation of LTCC leads to a higher voltage (higher plateau)
- LTCC open time reduced by a high amount of Ca2+

101
Q

Repolarization towards positive end

A

Negative deflection

102
Q

Repolarization towards negative end

A

Positive deflection

103
Q

Depolarization towards positive end

A

Positive deflection

104
Q

Depolarization towards negative end

A

Negative deflection

105
Q

What is the Q wave

A

septal depolarization towards the negative end (from L to R) of Lead 1 - negative deflection

106
Q

S wave polarization

A

Late ventricular depolarization
- bc left side it thicker, vector points up and to the left of body
- causes a negative deflection on Lead aVF
- positive charge towards negative end

107
Q

ST segment

A

Full depolarization, waiting for repolarization

108
Q

T wave

A

Ventricular re-polarization from apex towards base
- negative charge going towards negative end (ex lead II), leads to positive deflection

109
Q

EKG box values

A

Large box - 0.2 seconds
Small box - 0.04 seconds

110
Q

EKG HR calculation

A

HR = 60 (sec/min) ÷ R-R interval (sec/beat)

111
Q

Irregular rhythm HR calculation

A

Number of QRS in 30 boxes (6s) and multiply by 10

112
Q

Paroxysmal Tachycardia

A

Sudden increase in HR

113
Q

Intrinsic BPM of SA, AV, Purkinje

A

60-100, 40-50, 20-40

114
Q

Supraventricular Rhythyms

A

Rhythms originated by SA, atrial or AV source

115
Q

Premature atrial contraction

A

Ectopic AP before SA node
- shows up as extra P wave

116
Q

Atrial flutter

A

Very high regular atrial rate
- not all impulse conducted through AV node

117
Q

Atrial Fibrillation

A

SA node doesn’t trigger depolarization
- quick, irregular P waves

118
Q

aFib stroke predisposition

A

Causes blood to swirl and pool in atrium, facilitating the creation of a possible clot in left atrial appendage

119
Q

1st degree AV block

A

Delay in transmitting impulses to ventricles
- P-R interval greater than 0.2s

120
Q

2nd degree AV block

A

Failure of some but not all atrial contractions to be transmitted

No atrial repolarization wave visible is evidence that it is disorganized

121
Q

3rd degree AV block

A

Complete atrial and ventricular dissociation of electrical activity

122
Q

Ventricular Rhythym

A

Activation from ventricular cells
- QRS is greater than 0.1s super wide

123
Q

Calculation of mean electrical axis

A

Calculate heights of QRS complex on Leads 1 and 3
- starting at middle of leads, go towards positive end
- Where lines from those points intersect, is the tip of the axis arrow

124
Q

Left axis deviation

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy

125
Q

Right axis deviation

A

pulmonary HTN

126
Q

Normal axis range

A

-30 to +90

128
Q

Tissue Thromboplastin

A

Another name for tissue factor

129
Q

CO units

130
Q

SV definition

A

Blood ejected by each ventricle with each beat

131
Q

Inherent discharge rate of SA node

132
Q

Effect of sympathetic stimulation on HR

A

Increases slope of SA side AP via increase F-type Na+ channels

133
Q

Effect of parasympathetic stimulation on HR

A

Increases permeability to K+ so that pacemaker potential starts from a more negative value

134
Q

Effect of sympathetic stimulation on Dromotropy

A

Increase of conduction velocity

135
Q

Effect of parasympathetic stimulation on Dromotropy

A

Decrease of conduction velocity

136
Q

What are the three dominant factors that alter force of ejection?

A

1) Change in EDV
2) Change in magnitude of sympathetic input
3) Change in after load

137
Q

3 major factors affect HR

A

1) activity of parasympathetic nerves to heart
2) activity of sympathetic nerves to heart
3) level of plasma Epinephrine

138
Q

What is the Frank-Starling Mechanism

A

As EDV increase, so does SV

139
Q

Effect of stretching cardiac muscle towards optimal length

A

1) Better overlap of thick-thin
2) decreased spacing between thick-thin
3) increased troponin sensitivity for binding Ca2+
3) increased Ca2+ release from SR

140
Q

How does the Frank-Starling ensure equality between CO and VR

A

Increase in VR results in a higher EDV, which then means a higher SV and a higher CO to match VR

141
Q

Effect of parasympathetic regulation on the ventricles

A

Trick question; Almost no parasympathetic innervation of the ventricles; would not affect contractility

142
Q

2 factors that increase contractility

A

1) Norepinephrine from sympathetic nerves on ß receptors
2) Circulating plasma Epinephrine on ß receptors

143
Q

Ejection Fraction

A

Method to quantify contractility
EF = SV/EDV

144
Q

EF normally and during exercise

A

50-60% at rest
up to 85% during exercise

145
Q

Effect of sympathetic stimulation on heart

A

Increased tension (contractility) and decreased duration of contraction and relaxation

Increase in Inotropy and Lusitropy

146
Q

PKA phosphorylation targets after NE or Epi binding to ß receptors

A

1) L-type Ca2+ channels
2) Phosphalamban
3) TroponinI
4) Titin

147
Q

PKA phosphorylation of L-type Ca2+ channels

A

Causes an increased influx of Ca2+ which activates RyR to release more Ca2+ from SR

Increases Inotropy

148
Q

PKA phosphorylation of Phosphalamban

A

Causes inactivation, allowing SERCA to uptake more Ca2+ into SR

Increased Lusitropy

149
Q

PKA phosphorylation of Troponin I

A

Causes a decreases in the affinity of TnC for Ca2+

Increased Lusitropy

150
Q

PKA phosphorylation of Titin

A

Titin is usually more stiff in heart to prevent overfilling
- phosphorylation decreases stiffness
- allows for more filling of the ventricles

151
Q

Label the PV loop, starting with A in bottom right corner

A

A: EDV
A-B: Isovolumetric contraction
B: DBP
B-C: Ejection phase
C: ESV
C-D: Isovolumetric relaxation
D-A: Relaxation
B-C peak: SBP

152
Q

Frank-Starling graph of failing heart

A

Curve shifted downward
- compensation can occur by fluid retention to increase EDV

153
Q

Effect of increased afterload on:
EDV
ESV
SV
E

A

Same EDV
Increased ESV
Decreased SV
Decreased EF

154
Q

Effect of increased contractility on:
EDV
ESV
SV
EF

A

Decreased EDV (minimal)
Decreased ESV
Increased SV
Increased EF

155
Q

Law of Laplace equation

A

σ = Pr/2h

σ = stress
h = wall thickness

156
Q

Explain high pressure on capillaries does not cause thick walls using the Law of Laplace

A

Their radius is so small, that the effect on stress is minimized and the thickness does not need to increase as much

157
Q

Long-term effect of increased Afterload

A

Weakens the heart an reduces SV

158
Q

Fick’s method equation

A

CO = VO2/(Ca-Cv)

VO2 - oxygen taken in by the body (spirometer)
Ca - concentration of O2 leading the lung (blood)
Cv - concentration of O2 entering the lung (blood)

159
Q

Explain indicator and thermo dilution

A

The average concentration of indicator tells you the volume into which the dye was diluted
- length of time the dye is detected allows you to determine the flow (vol/t) and CO

160
Q

Explain Echocardiography

A

Sound used to measure LV volume at the end of systole and diastole
- EDV - ESV = SV
- CO = SV x HR

161
Q

Active Hyperemia

A

Increased blood flow in response to an increase in metabolic activity

More metabolites leads to arteriolar dilation

162
Q

Myogenic responses

A

Increased blood pressure activates stretch-activated Ca2+ receptors to constrict

Protects downstream vessels from massive increases in BP

163
Q

Reactive Hyperemia

A

Massive increase in blood flow if the blockage is removed

Ex. Red finger after removing band-aid

164
Q

Eicosanoids

A

Released during tissue injury, cause vasodilation and swelling

165
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the blood vessels leads to what

A

Vasoconstriction

166
Q

3 CVS Effectors

A

Arterioles, Veins, Heart

167
Q

Arterioles contain which receptors

A

⍺1 and ß2 receptors

168
Q

Heart, including conducting system contain which receptors

169
Q

Do arterioles have parasympathetic innervation?

170
Q

Sildenafil and tadalafil mechanism of action

Bonus: which is cialis and which is viagra?

A

Enhance the NO pathway to mediate vasodilation

Sildenafil = Viagra, Tadalafil = Cialis

171
Q

Norepinephrine

Vasoconstrictor or vasodilator, and which receptor does it bind to?

A

Vasoconstrictor, binds ⍺ receptors

172
Q

Epinephrine

Vasoconstrictor or vasodilator, and which receptor does it bind to?

A

Vasoconstriction if ⍺ and vasodilation if ß2

173
Q

Angiotensin II

Vasoconstrictor or vasodilator, and which receptor does it bind to?

A

Vasoconstrictor, ⍺

174
Q

Vasopressin

Vasoconstrictor or vasodilator, and which receptor does it bind to?

A

Vasoconstrictor, ⍺

175
Q

ANP

Vasoconstrictor or vasodilator, and which receptor does it bind to?

A

Vasodilator, ß2

176
Q

How do substances released by endothelial cells induce vasoconstriction/dilation?

A

Secretion of paracrine agents from endothelial cells

177
Q

3 paracrine agents released from endothelial cells to induce vasoconstriction/dilation

A

1) NO
2) Prostacyclin
3) Endothelin-1

178
Q

Endothelin-1

A

Vasoconstrictor, and at high enough concentrations can function as a hormone and induce widespread arteriolar constriction

179
Q

Endothelium-released NO

Dilator or constrictor, basal secretion level,release stimulated by what

A

Vasodilator, has high basal secretion, release stimulated by bradykinin and histamine

180
Q

Endothelium-released Prostacyclin

Dilator or constrictor, basal secretion level

A

Dilator, low basal secretion level

181
Q

5 auto regulatory vasodilators

A

1) ↓ pO2
2) ↑ pCO2
3) ↑ in H+
4) ↑ in K+
5) ↑ in adenosine

182
Q

Where does the H+ as a metabolite come from?

A

Production of lactic acid

183
Q

Where does the K+ as a metabolite come from?

A

K+/Na+ ATPase does not bring all K+ back into the cell

184
Q

Where does the Adenosine as a metabolite come from?

A

Byproduct of reaction to convert ADP → ATP

produces a very small amount of ATP

185
Q

Intrinsic mechanisms that cause arteriolar vasodilation

A

1) Hyperpolarization to make smooth muscle less excitable
2) Less cytosolic Ca2+ to not activate MLCK
3) Activation of myosin light chain phosphatase

186
Q

What does stimulation of the Vagus nerve do?

A

Decrease in heart rate via parasympathetic nerve ACh release

Has no effect on contractility

187
Q

Which is the dominant of the pressor and depressor regions

A

Pressor region

188
Q

Depressor region

A

Drops BP via sympathetic inhibition

189
Q

Pressor region

A

Increases BP via sympathetic activation

190
Q

Why is the compliance of the aorta important for BP?

A

Low aortic compliance allows changes in blood volume to have a significant effect on the BP

191
Q

Is the sympathetic or parasympathetic innervation of the heart dominant at rest?

A

Parasympathetic (Vagus) is dominant at rest

Both are active at basal levels

192
Q

What percentage of the blood volume is contained in the veins?

193
Q

Contractility relation to velocity of shortening

A

More contractility = greater velocity of shortening

194
Q

Effect of increased BP on CVCC

A

Increased Vagus and Depressor firing

195
Q

Effect of decreased BP in CVCC

A

Decreased Vagus and Depressor firing, increased firing of Pressor region

196
Q

Why does an increase in venous tone cause an increase in MAP and CO?

A

MAP: Increasing venous tone gives it an extra squirt, increase in resistance is negligible
CO: Increase in MAP with no TPR change will increase flow

197
Q

How does an increase in venous tone affect diastolic pressure?

A

Because more blood into cup (heart), more blood for same runoff time, Pdia increases

198
Q

Effect of increased HR on SP and DP

A

Increased DP (less time for runoff), no change in SP

199
Q

What is the equation for MAP

A

MAP = CO x TPR
or
MAP = TPR x Q

200
Q

Use the flow equation to get an equation for CO (and VR)

A

Q = ∆P/R = (Paorta - Pra)/TPR = CO = VR

201
Q

Main driver of venous return

A

the heart (vis a tergo)

202
Q

If someone is space does gravity get added to their venous pressure

203
Q

Endotherms

A

Can generate internal body heat

204
Q

Homeotherms

A

Can maintain body temp in narrow range with big external fluctuations

205
Q

What is the primary overall integrator of reflexes

A

Hypothalamus

206
Q

Nonshivering thermogenesis

A

Chronic exposure to cold, leads to an increase in brown fat activity

207
Q

Blood to skin is controlled by

A

sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves
- heat causes inhibition
- cold causes activation

208
Q

Insensible water loss

A

Loss via diffusion through skin and expiration

209
Q

Sweat glands are stimulated by what type of nerve

A

sympathetic nerves

210
Q

Thermoneutral zone

A

From 25-30C, outside of that, blood vessel regulation cannot compensate

211
Q

Temperature Acclimatization

A

sweating begins sooner, more, sweat, etc

212
Q

Fever

A

Increase in set point in the hypothalamus

213
Q

Endogenous Pyrogens

A

Released from macrophages near the site of infection
- circulate to act upon thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus
-

214
Q

Role of prostaglandins in fever

A

Immediate cause of set point reset
- EP cause local synthesis and release of prostaglandins

215
Q

Aspirin

A

Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

216
Q

Benefits of fever

A

Stimulates WBC

217
Q

Heat exhaustion

A

state of collapse (fainting) caused by hypotension due to loss of plasma volume (from sweating, dilation)

218
Q

Benefit of heat exhaustion

A

Functions as a safety valve to prevent over-taxing of heat loss mechanisms and heat stroke

219
Q

Heat stroke

A

complete breakdown of heat-regulating systems
- body temp keeps increasing
- sweating does not occur

220
Q

Heatstroke as a positive feedback mechanism

A

Increased body temp stimulates increased metabolism

221
Q

What are the three heat loss mechanisms dependent on temperature gradient?

A

1) Conduction
2) Convection
3) Radiation

222
Q

Which heat loss mechanism is dependent on heat capacity

A

Convection

223
Q

Which heat loss mechanism is depending on H2O vapor gradient

A

Evaporation

224
Q

Peripheral temperature sensors

A

Free nerve endings sensitive to either cold or heat, firing rate increases in both cases

225
Q

Why two types of thermoreceptors

A

Peripheral sensors alter the sensitivity of the core thermoreceptors

226
Q

Vasodilation in acral skin

A

Occurs via withdrawal of sympathetic adrenergic tone

227
Q

Vasodilation in non-sacral skin

A

Simulation of sympathetic vasodilator nerves via ACh

228
Q

Fever in a cold environment

A

Might not get a fever, because heat loss mechanisms already turned up

229
Q

How does UCP work

A

Cold stress triggers the realize of NE and T4

230
Q

NE function in UCP

A

binds ß3/⍺1 receptors to move fatty acids into the mitochondria

231
Q

T4 function in UCP

A

Gets converted into T3 which activates UCP