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Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
Gram + or Gram -?

A

Gram +

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2
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
Species affected?

A

ruminants

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3
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
Associated with:

A

CNS infection in ruminants, septicemia in monogastrics, abortion in ruminants

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4
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
Shape

A

Rod

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5
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
Aerobe/Anaerobe?

A

Facultative anaerobe

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6
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
intra/extracellular?

A

facultative intracellular

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7
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
predisposing factors?

A

nutritional deficiency, immunosuppression, pregnancy. poor quality feed, high environmental load

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8
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
entry

A

most commonly by ingestion. infrequently by inhalation

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9
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
encounter

A

endogenous: carried in the intestinal tract of many animals
exogenous: soil, decaying vegetation, contaminated feed

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10
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
Testing

A

aerobic culture, PCR

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11
Q

Listeria monocytogenes:
Tx

A

Abx: penecillin and tetracyclines. Supportive care.

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12
Q

Streptococcus suis:
species/age associated

A

pigs, usually between 3-12 weeks of age, but all ages susceptible

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13
Q

Streptococcus suis:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram +

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14
Q

Streptococcus suis:
shape

A

cocci in chains

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15
Q

Streptococcus suis:
aerobe/anaerobe?

A

facultative anaerobe

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16
Q

Streptococcus suis:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

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17
Q

Streptococcus suis: found as a part of the ? of mucous membranes and GI tract

A

microbiota

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18
Q

Streptococcus suis:
alpha or beta hemolytic?

A

alpha hemolytic

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19
Q

Streptococcus suis:
encounter

A

endogenous: many pigs carry it in the tonsils and nasal cavity
Exogenous: introduction of carrier pigs, fomite transmission

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19
Q

Streptococcus suis:
entry

A

inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with carriers

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20
Q

Streptococcus suis:
testing

A

aerobic culture, PCR, may consider antimicrobial susceptibilty testing

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21
Q

Streptococcus suis:
Tx

A

abx therapy: penicillin or ampicillin. Supportive care. Reduce stress.

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22
Q

Streptococcus suis:
prevention

A

stress mitigation, hygeine. No commercial Vx available

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23
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
alpha or beta hemolytic?

A

beta hemolytic

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24
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
causative agent of?

A

equine strangles

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25
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
affected species?

A

equine

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26
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
gram + or gram -

A

Gram +

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27
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
shape

A

cocci in chains

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28
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
aerobe/anaerobe?

A

facultative anaerobe

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29
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

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30
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
encounter

A

exogenous: contact with horses with active Dz

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31
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
normal flora?

A

NO

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32
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
entry

A

inhalation, ingestion, direct contact, fomite transmission

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33
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
Testing

A

PCR, Aerobic culture, SeM ELISA

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34
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
Tx

A

supportive care. Abx therapy is controversial.

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35
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp equi:
prevention

A

Vx, quarantine of new additions, isolation in affected horses

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36
Q

Yersenia pestis:
causative agent of?

A

plague

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37
Q

Yersenia pestis:
species associated

A

companion animals (mostly cats) and wildlife

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38
Q

Yersenia pestis:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram -

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39
Q

Yersenia pestis:
Shape

A

Rod

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40
Q

Yersenia pestis:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

facultative anaerobe

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41
Q

Yersenia pestis:
intra/extracellular

A

facultative intracellular

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42
Q

Yersenia pestis:
encounter

A

exogenous: contact with rodent fleas or infected rodents. soil contaminated with bacteria

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43
Q

Plague is maintained in a ? cycle between ? and ?

A

maintained in a sylvatic cycle between rodents and rodent fleas

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44
Q

Yersenia pestis:
entry

A

inhalation, percutaneous (flea bites, cuts, wounds)

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45
Q

Yersenia pestis:
Testing

A

PCR, aerobic culture

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46
Q

Yersenia pestis:
Tx

A

Aminoglocosides, doxycycline, fluoroquinolones, supportive care

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47
Q

Yersenia pestis:
prevention

A

avoid rodent areas in endemic areas, environmental hygeine, insect repellent, PPE, know geographic risk!

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48
Q

Francisella tularensis:
causative agent of?

A

tularemia

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49
Q

Francisella tularensis:
species affected?

A

most common in rodents and lagomorphs. also in cats.

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50
Q

Francisella tularensis:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram -

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51
Q

Francisella tularensis:
shape

A

rod

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52
Q

Francisella tularensis:
aerobe/anaerobe?

A

facultative anaerobe

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53
Q

Francisella tularensis:
intra/extracellular

A

facultative intracellular

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54
Q

Francisella tularensis:
encounter

A

exogenous: contact with infected rodents and lagomorphs. contact with water and soil contaminated carcasses. contact with arthropods

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55
Q

Francisella tularensis:
entry

A

arthropod bites, ingestion, inhalation, direct contact

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56
Q

Francisella tularensis:
minimally or highly infectious?

A

highly infectious (</= 10 cfu!!)

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57
Q

Francisella tularensis:
clinical signs

A

fever, lymphadenopathy, lethargy

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58
Q

Francisella tularensis:
Testing

A

Aerobic culture (chocolate agar!), PCR, serology

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59
Q

Francisella tularensis:
Tx

A

usually only pursued in cats and dogs. Antimicrobial therapy (gentamycin, doxy, fluoroquinolones), supportive care.

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60
Q

Francisella tularensis:
prevention:

A

avoid rodent/rabbits in endemic areas. Environmental hygeine, insect repellent, PPE, know geographic location!

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61
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
causative agent of

A

anthrax

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62
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
species affected

A

ruminants (but zoonotic!)

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63
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram +

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64
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
shape

A

rod

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65
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate aerobe

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66
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
intra/extracellular

A

facultative intracellular

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67
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
encounter

A

exogenous: spore contaminated soils/food and water. Geography: certain soil conditions maintain B. anthracis

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68
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
entry

A

ingestion, inhalation, percutaneous

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69
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
clinical signs

A

peracute septicemia, peracute death, unclotted blood, lack of rigor

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70
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
Tx

A

antibacterial agents (penicillin, tetracyclines)

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71
Q

Bacillus anthracis:
Prevention

A

Vx in endemic area (strain lacks pOX2 encoding capsule), proper disposal of carcasses, post-exposure prophylaxis, PPE

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72
Q

Mycobacteria:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram +, Acid Fast +

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73
Q

Mycobacteria:
shape

A

rod

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74
Q

Mycobacteria:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate aerobe

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75
Q

Mycobacteria:
intra/extracellular

A

facultative intracellular

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76
Q

Mycobacteria:
testing

A

Caudal fold test

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77
Q

Mycoplasma:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram + (NO CELL WALL!)

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78
Q

Mycoplasma:
shape

A

pleiomorphic (can have many shapes)

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79
Q

Mycoplasma:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

facultative anaerobe

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80
Q

Mycoplasma:
intra/extracellular

A

facultative intracellular

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81
Q

Mycoplasma:
Tx limitation?

A

cannot use Beta Lactams! they act to inhibit cell wall synthesis

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82
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
causative agent of

A

botulism, flaccid paralysis

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83
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
species affected

A

wild birds, horses, ruminants, mink, foxes. Dogs, cats and pigs are resistant!

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84
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram +

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85
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
shape

A

large rod

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86
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate anaerobe

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87
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

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88
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
encounter

A

exogenous: aquatic enviros and soil contaminated with vegetative cells, spores, and toxin. rotting plant and animal matter contaminated with vegetaive cells, spores, and toxin.

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89
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
entry

A

ingestion, introduction into wounds

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90
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
Dx

A

mainly based off of clinical signs: absence of fever,muscular incoordination, mydriasis, dysphagia, flaccid paralysis

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91
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
testing

A

mouse bioassay to detect toxin, ELISA, Anaerobic culture or PCR if toxicoinfectious form is suspected

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92
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
Tx

A

Antitoxin (will not impact bound toxin), supportive care. May is antimicrobials for toxicoinfectious cases.

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93
Q

Clostridium botulinum:
prevention

A

Toxoid Vx in high-risk species, proper food preservation, carcass management on farms. difficult in wild birds.

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94
Q

Clostridium tetani:
causative agent of

A

tetanus, spastic paraylsis

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95
Q

Clostridium tetani:
species affected

A

all mammals susceptible, but there are varying levels. horses and humans more susceptible.

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96
Q

Clostridium tetani:
Gram + or Gram -

A

Gram +

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97
Q

Clostridium tetani:
shape

A

large rod

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98
Q

Clostridium tetani:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate anaerobe

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99
Q

Clostridium tetani:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

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100
Q

Clostridium tetani:
encounter

A

exogenous: found in soil, can be found transiently in the intestines or horses and other animals

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101
Q

Clostridium tetani:
Entry

A

penetrating injuries, Sx, injections, invasive procedures, shearing, postpartum uterine infection, umbilical infections, small animal fights…..

102
Q

Clostridium tetani:
Dx

A

based on wound or Hx of recent infections.

103
Q

Clostridium tetani:
Testing

A

Anaerobic culture or PCR can be performed but not necessary in most cases.

104
Q

Clostridium tetani:
Tx:

A

Antitoxin (won’t impact bound toxin), wound care, Abx therapy (penicillin, metronidazole), sedatives and muscle relaxants, supportive care

105
Q

Clostridium tetani:
prevention

A

toxoid vaccination for highly susceptible species (equine, ruminants, humans), proper wound cleaning and dressing, aseptic surgical procedures +/- prophylactic antitoxin after Sx

106
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
member of

A

Rickettsiales

107
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
causative agent of

A

bovine anaplasmosis

108
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
Gram + or Gram -

109
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
shape

A

coccoid to short rod

110
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate aerobe

111
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
intra/extracellular

A

obligate intracellular

112
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
encounter

A

exogenous: geographic area of dermacentor tick vector. chronic, subclincally infected animals.

113
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
entry

A

tick bites, flea bites, iatrogenic

114
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
Testing

A

serology (ELISA), PCR of whole blood or tissue. Blood smear to look for organism in erythrocytes (will be in the outer margin!)

115
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
Tx

A

Oxytetracycline (less successful the lower the PVC), chlortetracycline, supportive care

116
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
prevention

A

allow cattle to become naturally infected at a young age. No vx

117
Q

Anaplasma marginale:
predisposing factors

A

adult animals >3 years most susceptible to severe Dz

118
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
member of

A

Rickettsiales

119
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
causative agent of

A

Salmon Poisoning Disease

120
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
species affected

A

dogs, wild canids, raccoons, bears

121
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
Gram + or Gram -

122
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
shape

A

coccoid to short rod

123
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
aerobe/anerobe

A

obligate aerobe

124
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
intra/extracellular

A

obligate intracellular

125
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
encounter

A

exogenous: complicated, found in the fluke Nanophyetus salmincola which has a snail and fish intermediate host

126
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
entry

A

ingestion of uncooked or undercooked infected fish tissue

127
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
testing

A

parasitology including fecal float and sedimentation. PCR (not usually performed on feces)

128
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
tx

A

doxycyline for bacterial infection, praziquantal for fluke infection. supportive care

129
Q

Neorickettsia helminthoeca:
prevention

A

do not feed uncooked or undercooked fish!

130
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
causative agent of

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

131
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
affected species

A

dogs and humans

132
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
Gram + or Gram -

133
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
shape

A

coccoid to short rod

134
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate aerobe

135
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
intra/extracellular

A

obligate intracellular

136
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
encounter:

A

exogenous: infected dermacentor ticks

137
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
entry

A

tick bite. conjunctival route, could be passed thru contact in a lab environment

138
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
testing

A

Ab titer testing, PCR, culture not routinely done

139
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
Tx

A

Antimicrobial therapy (doxycycline), supportive care

140
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia:
prevention

A

use of acaricides, avoidance of tick habitats

141
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
causative agent of

142
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
affected species

A

dogs, horses, people

143
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
Gram + or Gram -

144
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
shape

A

spirochete

145
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

micro-aerophilic

146
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

147
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
encounter

A

exogenous: infected ticks. Maintined in a sylvatic cycle between ticks, rodents, birds, and larger wild animals. maintained in tick transtadially

148
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
entry

A

Tick bite - tick must be attached for > 24 hrs for efficient transmission

149
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
testing

A

Serology most common.

150
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
Tx

A

antimicrobial therapy (doxy), supportive care depending on site affected

151
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
prevention

A

Vx (dog only), tick control, avoidance of tick habitat

152
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi Vx

A

against OspA or Osp A & Osp C

153
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi:
Osp A is found ?
how does this affect the Vx?

A

in the tick, so Ab in the Vx interacts with the bacteria in the tick

154
Q

Mannheimia Haemolytica:
member of what resp disease complex?

A

BRDC
bovine

155
Q

Mannheimia Haemolytica:
Gram + or Gram -

156
Q

Mannheimia Haemolytica:
shape

157
Q

Mannheimia Haemolytica:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

facultative anaerobe

158
Q

Mannheimia Haemolytica:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

159
Q

BRDC testing

A

aerobic culture, antimicrobial susceptibilty testing is recommended, PCR, serology available for viral pathogens

160
Q

BRDC Tx

A

Antimicrobial therapy

161
Q

BRDC Prevention

A

Vx for bacterial and viral resp pathogens, avoid co-mingling, reduce stress, adequate nutrition, air quality

162
Q

PRDC Testing

A

Aerobic culture, PCR. important to look for all agents of PRDC in pneumonia work-up

163
Q

PRDC Tx

A

Antimicrobial therapy

164
Q

PRDC prevention

A

Vx for bacterial and viral pathogens, all-in/all-out production, avoid co-mingling, reduce stress, adequate nutrition, air quality

165
Q

CIRDC/FRDC Testing

A

Aerobic culture, PCR. Important to look for all agents of CIRDC/FRDC in pneumonia work-ups

166
Q

CIRDC/FRDC Tx

A

most are mild and do not need abx therapy. for pneumonia: tetracyclines, flouroquinolones, beta-lactams (not for mycoplasma!)

167
Q

CIRDC/FRDC prevention

A

Vx for viral and bacterial diseases. Avoid co-mingling. Hygeine. Adequate Nutrition. Reduce stress. Air quiality.

168
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica:
component of

A

PRDC, CIRDC, FRDC

169
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica:
Gram + or Gram -

170
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica:
shape

171
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate aerobe

172
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

173
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae:
component of

174
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae:
Gram + or Gram -

175
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae:
shape

176
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

facultative anaerobe

177
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

178
Q

Equine Resp Disease components

A

Bacteria: streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus, actinobacillus equuli. Viral: equine herpesvirus-1 or 4, equine influenza virus

179
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
species/age

A

foals 1-6 mo (can cause abscesses in ruminants and pigs)

180
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
Gram + or Gram -

181
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
shape

A

short rod to coccobacilli

182
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

obligate anaerobe

183
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
intra/extracellular

A

facultative intracellular

184
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
encounter

A

found in the soil and can be found on most farms. soil contaminate with horse or farm animal manure promotes growth

185
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
entry

A

ingestion or inhalation

186
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
Tx

A

foals with small lesions and no clinical signs may spontanously cure w/o Tx. Abx therapy. Supportive care

187
Q

Rhodococcus equi:
prevention

A

No vx. Early detection of clinical infection. reduction of environmental load thru manure managment. decrease animal density.

188
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
component of

A

avian resp disease

189
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
causative agent of

A

infectious coryza

190
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
species/age

A

chickens of all ages, but susceptibilty increases with age

191
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
Gram + or Gram -

192
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
shape

193
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

facultative anaerobe

194
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

195
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
testing

A

Aerobic culture (chocolate agar!), PCR

196
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
Tx

A

Antimicrobial Tx (tetracyclines, macrolides)

197
Q

Avibacterium paragallinarum:
prevention

A

Vx, all-in/all-out, hygeine, stress reduction

198
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
infectious form?

A

elementary body

199
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
replicative form?

A

Reticulate body

200
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
persistent form?

A

aberrant body

201
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
causative agent of

A

psittacosis in humans

202
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
species affected

A

wild and domestic avian species (but zoonotic!)

203
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
Gram + or Gram -

204
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
shape

A

short rod to coccoid

205
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

facultative anaerobe

206
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
intra/extracellular

A

obligate intracellular

207
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
encounter

A

exogenous: subclinical carrier birds shed bacteria in resp secretions and feces

208
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
entry

A

inhalation. can be ingested

209
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
testing

A

PCR preferred

210
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
Tx

A

antimicrobial therapy (tetracyclines)

211
Q

Chlaymydia psittaci:
prevention

A

No Vx. All-in/All-out. Hygeine. Stress reduction.

212
Q

Leptospira:
Gram + or Gram -

213
Q

Leptospira:
shape

A

spirochete (spiral shaped)

214
Q

Leptospira:
aerobe/anaerobe

A

facultative anaerobe

215
Q

Leptospira:
intra/extracellular

A

extracellular

216
Q

Leptospira:
encounter

A

exogneous: contact with urine, contaminated soil, water/wet areas

217
Q

Leptospira:
entry

A

penetration of damaged skin, penetration of mucous membranes, commonly oral conjunctival

218
Q

Leptospira:
Testing

A

serology - but must know Vx status, microagglutation (MAT), SNAP, culture, PCR - recommended direct detection method.

219
Q

Leptospira:
Tx

A

doxy, supportive care

220
Q

Leptospira:
prevention

A

Vx!! avoidance of high risk enviros.

221
Q

uncomplicated cystitis

A

AKA sporadic. generally occuring one or a few times over the lifetime of a healthy animal (1-2 times/year)

222
Q

complicated cystitis

A

may happen 3+ times a year. known predisposing factors for bacterial infection.

223
Q

dogs are more likely to have complicated/uncomplicated infections

A

uncomplicated

224
Q

cats are more likely to have complicated/uncomplicated infections

A

complicated

225
Q

cystitis encounter

A

endogenous: bacteria associated with cystitis are part of the lower urogenital and enteric flora

226
Q

cystitis entry

A

ascending infection to the bladder

227
Q

> 50% of UTIs in companion animals are from

A

E. coli (gram negative enteric)

228
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

infection of the kidney. generally caused by the same bacteria associated with cystitis (E. coli!!)

229
Q

Mycobacteria replication time

A

SLOW! 12 hours

230
Q

Mycobacterium bovis is the causative agent of

A

bovine tuberculosis

231
Q

Diagnosing bovine tuberculosis

A

caudal fold test

232
Q

Mycobacterium lepraemurium is the causative agent of

A

canine and feline leprosy

233
Q

mycobacterium smegmatis (soil saphrophytes): the causative agent of

A

ulcerative dermatitis

234
Q

Mycobacterium aviam ssp. paratuberculosis: causative agent of

A

Johne’s Dz

235
Q

Mycobacterium aviam ssp. paratuberculosis:
predisposition

A

young cattle

236
Q

Mycobacterium aviam ssp. paratuberculosis: encounter

A

fecal-oral, infection in utero

237
Q

Mycobacterium aviam ssp. paratuberculosis: diagnosis

A

Serology, PCR, Direct microscopy

238
Q

Mycobacterium aviam ssp. paratuberculosis Vaccine negative effect:

A

will affect M. Bovis testing!

239
Q

Mycoplamsa haemofelis encounter/entry

A

blood to blood contact: vector borne, animal fights, blood transfusion

240
Q

non-hemotrophic mycoplasma encounter

A

host commensals

241
Q

Most common age reange for Streptococcus suis infection in pigs?

A

3-12 weeks

242
Q

Which is not a typical clinical sign of S. Suid infection in pigs?
A. fever
B. lameness
C. Neurologic signs
D. Diarrhea

A

D. Diarrhea

243
Q

Which of the following is a rare, severe manifestation of streptococcus equi subsp equi infection?
A. Strangles
B. Bastard Strangles
C. Rhinitis
D. Pharyngitis

A

B. Bastard Strangles

244
Q

Which member of the Pasteurellacea family causes Glassers disease in pigs?
A. Pasteurella multicoda
B. Mannheimina Haemolytica
C. Glasserella parasuis
D. Actinobacillus equuli

A

C. Glasserella parasuis

245
Q

What is the causative agent of sleepy foal disease?
A. Streptococcus equi subsp. equi
B. Actinobacilllus equuli subsp. equuli
C. Rhodococcus equi
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

B. Actinobacilllus equuli subsp. equuli

246
Q

Which protein allows Listeria monocytogenes to pass from cell to cell, avoiding host immunity?

247
Q

see chains of “boxcar” shaped organisms with pink capsule

A

Bacillus anthracis

248
Q

which bacteria physically blocks the proventriculus of the rodent flea.

249
Q

which bacteria replicates in erythrocytes?

A

Anaplasma marginale

250
Q

Which bacteria releases Leukotoxin?

What type of toxin is Leukotoxin? (endo/exo)

A

Mannheimia haemolytica

exotoxin

251
Q

Which bacteria releases ApxI and ApxII (exotoxins)

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

253
Q

Rhodococcus equi

?? and the plasmid itself must be present for Dz to occur in foals

Bacti (2 decks)

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