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BMS 301 Exam #2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of the vertebral column:

A
  1. Protect the spinal cord.
  2. Support the U.L., head, and ribs.
  3. Extensive muscle attachment.
  4. Provides locomotion.
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2
Q

Cervical vertebrae:

A
  1. There are 7 cervical vertebrae, but 8 cervical spinal nerves
  2. Have transverse formina.
  3. Has a cervical enlargement.
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3
Q

Why are there vertebral enlargements?

A
  1. There are two enlargements, lumbar and cervical.
  2. These areas of the spinal cord have more axons, so we can provide U.L. and L.L. with innervation.
  3. Provide structure support and strength where the limbs branch off.
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4
Q

Thoracic vertebra:

A
  1. Have articulations on the lateral sides. (Transverse processes)
  2. Articulate with the ribs in structures called costal fascets.
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5
Q

Lumbar vertebrae:

A
  1. Are very big.
  2. Have large transverse processes.
  3. Have a lumbar enlargement.
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6
Q

Sacrum:

A

5 fused vertebrae.

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7
Q

What are the two common problem areas of the spine?

A
  1. The cervical region - Has a lot of movement.
  2. The lumbar region - Bares a lot of weight.
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8
Q

Flexion in TAP:

A

Head forward - TAP forward bend

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9
Q

Extension in TAP:

A

Head back - bending TAP backward.

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10
Q

Lateral flexion in TAP:

A

Bending TAP left or right. DO NOT USE AD OR AB DUCTION

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11
Q

Rotation in TAP:

A

Twisting spine.

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12
Q

How do vertebrae provide movement?

A

A single vertebrae cannot provide movement, but when many are stacked together they provide large movement due to articulations.

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13
Q

Inferior and superior articulating processes of the spine:

A
  1. Between adjacent vertebral bodies.
  2. Over 100 of them.
  3. Synovial joint.
  4. Has an intervertebral disc between them, that is made of cartilage and slightly movable.
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14
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint:

A
  1. between C1 and the skull.
  2. Allows for inferior and superior movement of the spine, sometimes called the yes joint.
  3. C1 has no vertebral body.
  4. Synovial planar gliding.
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15
Q

What is special about C1 vertebra?

A

C1 has no vertebral body.

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16
Q

Atlanto-axial joint:

A
  1. Between C2 and C1
  2. Is synovial rotation joint.
  3. Moves the skull medial and lateral - sometimes called the no joint.
  4. The C1 vertebrae rotates around the C2 Dens structure to give no movement.
  5. Dens goes thru the vertebral foramen of C1.
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17
Q

Sacroiliac joint:

A
  1. Between the scrum and the ilium
  2. Transfers weight from pelvic girdle to the femur.
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18
Q

Curves of the spine:

A
  1. Cervical curve.
  2. Thoracic curve.
  3. Lumbar curve.
  4. Sacral curve.
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19
Q

Why does the cervical curve form:

A

Makes the cervical portion stronger when an infant is learning to hold their head up.

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20
Q

Why does the lumbar curve form:

A

Makes lumbar portion stronger when infants learn to stand and walk.

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21
Q

Scoliosis:

A

A abnormal lateral curve of the spine.

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22
Q

Kyphosis:

A
  1. Exaggerates thoracic curve
  2. Mostly seen in older women and can be caused by osteoporosis.
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23
Q

Lordosis:

A
  1. Exaggerated lumbar curve.
  2. Pregnant women will develop temporary lordosis.
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24
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament:

A
  1. Is on the anterior surface of the body of the vertebrae.
  2. Runs the whole spine - Is continuous.
  3. Limits extension of the spine.
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25
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament:

A
  1. Is on the posterior surface of the body of the vertebrae.
  2. Runs the whole length of the spine - Is continuous.
  3. Limits flexion of the spine..
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26
Q

Ligamentum flavum:

A
  1. Connects adjacent lamina - runs in between them.
  2. Limits lateral flexion.
  3. Is discontinuous.
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27
Q

Interspinous ligament:

A
  1. Connects adjacent spinous processes.
  2. Discontinuous
  3. Limits flexion.
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28
Q

Supraspinous ligament:

A
  1. Limits flexion.
  2. Continuously runs over the top of spinous processes.
  3. In the cervical region it is called the nuchal ligament, and hold up the head.
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29
Q

Soft gel-like center of intervertebral disc, mostly made of H2O.

A

Nucleus pulposus

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30
Q

Why are we slightly shorter by the end of the day?

A

Compression of the nucleus pulposus when standing upright.

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31
Q

The tough outer ring of the intervertebral discs.

A

Annulas fibrous.

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32
Q

In what direction do intervertebral disc herniations occur, and why?

A
  1. Will happen posterior and lateral direction.
  2. This is because the posterior longitudinal ligament will not let it herniate in a posterior medial direction, so it has to move to sides.
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33
Q

An L4/L5 intervertebral disc hernia would impinge on what spinal nerve?

A

L5.

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34
Q

Vertebral Hernias will always:

A

affect the next lowest spinal nerve when nucleus propusus is effected.

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35
Q

Extrinsic muscles of the back:

A
  1. Attach from back to U.L.
  2. Trapezius m. and latissimus Dorsi m.
  3. Inn = Ventral Rami of spinal nerves.
  4. attach from back to upper limb, not all attachments are in the axial skeleton.
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36
Q

____________ are the true back muscles.

A

Intrinsics muscles.

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37
Q

All intrinsic back muscles are innervated by -

A

Dorsal rami of spinal nerves.

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38
Q

Intrinsic back muscle attachments will all be in the -

A

Axial skeleton.

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39
Q

Superficial intrinsic back muscles:

A

The splenius muscle -
1. A = spinous processes + nuchal ligament.
2. B = Transverse processes + skull.
3. Action = Bilateral contraction - the extension of the vertebral column/neck/back
4. Function = Unilateral flexion + rotation of the vertebral column

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40
Q

Intermediate muscles of the back intrinsics:

A

Erector spinae muscle group:
1. Iliocostalis, longussimus, spinous mm.
2. all run from scarum/ilium to the skull.
3. Action = Bilateral contraction - extension of back ??
4. Inn = dorsal rami of spinal nerves.

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41
Q

Deep muscles of the back intrinsics:

A

Transversospinous muscle group:
1. Attach transverse process to spinous process.
2. Inn = dorsal rami of spinal nerves.
3. Action = Bilateral contraction (Extends the back) and unilateral contraction (rotates back)
4. Function = Stabilize the vertebral column.

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42
Q

Spinalis muscle:

A

Attaches from spinous process to spinous process up the spine.

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43
Q

Longissimus muscle:

A

Connects transverse process to transverse process up the spine.

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44
Q

Iliocostalis muscle:

A

Connects ilium to rib to rib to rib up the spine.

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45
Q

Spinal cord starts where?

A

At the foramen magnum - The large whole in the posterior skull.

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46
Q

Spinal cord functions:

A
  1. Sensory processor - goes to the brain stem, cerebellum, cerebrum, different regions of the spinal cord, etc, for communication.
  2. Motor outflow - Done by lower motor neurons (LMN) cell bodies in the ventral horn, know as the common final pathway. This is influenced by the upper motor neurons (UMN).
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47
Q

What part of the brain allows for reflexes to be independent from consciousness?

A

The cerebrum.

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48
Q

External anatomy of the spinal cord:

A
  1. Give rise to two bilateral spinal nerves.
  2. Have enlargements - The lumbar and cervical.
  3. the conus medularis
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49
Q

Conus medularis:

A
  1. Is the end of the spinal cord.
  2. Happens are boney level of L2 vertebra.
  3. Is nerve tissue.
  4. Happens cause our spine grows longer, but our spinal cord does not, as we aged.
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50
Q

Lumbar cistern:

A

The space below the L2 boney level, where CSF is found.

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51
Q

Cauda equina:

A

Collection of spinal nerves inferior to the conus medularis. Horse tail.

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52
Q

Internal anatomy of the spinal cord:

A
  1. Dorsal horn, ventral horn, and lateral horn.
  2. Spinal cord does not align with boney levels - rule of 1s
  3. White matter.
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53
Q

Dorsal horn of the spinal cord:

A
  1. Contains interneuron cell bodies.
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54
Q

Ventral horn of the spinal cord:

A
  1. Contains cell bodies for motor neurons.
  2. Lower motor neurons.
  3. This is wwhere the final common pathway is - if this is damaged everything is ruined, resulting in flaccid paralysis (no tone).
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55
Q

Lateral horn of the spinal cord:

A
  1. Is for the sympathetic autonomic nervous system.
  2. IS only found in T1-L2.
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56
Q

What is the function of the white matter?

A

To protect the cell bodies - made of myelin fat.

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57
Q

Miniges:

A
  1. are connective tissue coverings.
  2. Support the CNS.
  3. Protect the CNS.
  4. Suspend CNS in cerebrospinal fluid protecting it from banging around in it’s enclosure.
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58
Q

If there is a spinal cord injury at T10, how would this present above the level of the injury?

A

We will have normal reflexes and full feeling.

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59
Q

If there is a spinal cord injury at T10, how would this present at the level of the injury?

A

The would be no feeling, no reflexes (areflexia), complete lack of voluntary movement. This is called flacid paralysis.

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60
Q

If there is a spinal cord injury at T10, how would this present below the level of the injury?

A
  1. There would be no voluntary movement.
  2. There would be hypereflexia - where there are still local reflexes. This is called spastic paralysis.
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61
Q

Dura mater, Pia mater, and arrachnoid matter are all _______.

A

miniges.

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62
Q

Which minige is directly against the spinal cord, supplying a vascular layer, and makes up the filum terminale.

A

The Pia Mater.

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63
Q

The arachnoid mater has a _____________ space between itself and pia mater, which is filled with _______________ _______ to suspend and protect the CNS.

A
  1. Sub-arachnoid space.
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid.
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64
Q

Which minige is the outermost layer, that attaches the spinal cord to the spinal bone?

A

Dura mater.

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65
Q

__________ space is a real space that contains fat and vasculature, where we often will inject numbing drugs.

A

epidural space.

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66
Q

True or false: The sub-dural space is a real space between the dura mater and pia mater, that holds CSF.

A

False -
1. The sub-dural space is the space between the dura mater and arachnoid and is a potential space that only exists during disease conditions.

  1. There is no space between the dura mater and pia mater, because the arachnoid runs between them.
  2. The space that holds CSF is the sub-arachnoid space, between the arachnoid mater and pia mater. This is a real space, not potential.
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67
Q

The posterior longitudinal ligament runs along what surface, and has what function?

A
  1. Runs continuously along the posterior surface of the body of the vertebrae.
  2. The function of the post. longitudinal ligament prevents flexion (bending forward) of the spine.
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68
Q

The anterior longitudinal ligament runs along what surface, and has what function?

A
  1. Runs along the anterior surface of the body of the vertebrae.
  2. The function of the ant. longitudinal ligament is to prevent extension of the spine (Bending back).
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69
Q

Boundaries of the thoracic wall:

A
  1. Anterior = Sternum/Costal cartilage.
  2. Posterior = Ribs/thoracic vertebrae.
  3. Lateral = Ribs.
  4. Inferior = Respiratory diaphragm.
  5. Superior = thoracic inlet.
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70
Q

Innervation of the thoracic wall:

A

Somatic innervation.

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71
Q

Innervation of thoracic viscera (organs):

A

Autonomic innervation.

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72
Q

Protection of the thoracic/abdominal viscera (organs, supporting the U.L, and respiration are all functions of the _______________.

A

Thoracic cage (wall).

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73
Q

Which vessels will go in-between the ribs, and branch directly off of the aorta?

A

The posterior intercostal arteries.

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74
Q

Which vessels go in between the ribs near the sternum, and branch off of the internal thoracic arteries?

A

The anterior intercostal arteries.

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75
Q

True or false: The internal thoracic arteries branch off of the subclavian arteries.

A

True!

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76
Q

The posterior intercostal veins will drain blood from the _________, and dump it into the ________ vein.

A
  1. Intercostals.
  2. azygous.
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77
Q

Where does the azygos vein drain into?

A

The superior vena cava.

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78
Q

What are intercostal nerves?

A

Thoracic spinal nerve’s ventral rami, all of which run in the costal groove.

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79
Q

Superior opening of the thoracic cage is called the -

A

Thoracic outlet - connecting the chest and neck.

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80
Q

Explain the primary differences between the left and right lungs.

A

Right lung has three lobes and is larger. The left lung has two lobes and is smaller. this is because the apex of the heart points to the left side, giving less space for the left lung.

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81
Q

Define segmented lungs:

A

The lobes of the lungs are segmented, meaning that their blood supply/return/nerves are separate between each lobe.

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82
Q

The ________ is a set of incomplete cartilaginous rings.

A

Trachea.

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83
Q

Why is the posterior side of the trachea’s cartilaginous rings incomplete?

A

This allows space for a bolus of food to go down the esophagus, preventing choking.

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84
Q

What is the difference between the left and right primary bronchus?

A

The right primary bronchus is larger and more in line with the trachea, while the left primary is smaller and more angled outward.

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85
Q

When inhaling food during choking, the food is most likely to be stuck in the _____________.

A

Right primary bronchus.

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86
Q

Order of tubes in the lungs:

A
  1. Trachea.
  2. Primary bronchus.
  3. Secondary bronchus - Lobar (supply whole lobe)
  4. Tertiary bronchus - Segmented.
  5. Alveoli.
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87
Q

Serous membranes:

A
  1. Pleura in/around the lungs.
  2. Pericardium in/around the heart.
  3. Peritoneum in/around abdomen
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88
Q

What is the function of all serous membranes?

A

To prevent friction and protect the internal organs.

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89
Q

________ pericardium is against the surface of the heart.

A

visceral

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90
Q

_________ pericardium is the second layer surrounding the heart.

A

Parietal.

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91
Q

_________ pericardium anchors the heart anteriorly to the sternum and posteriorly to the diaphragm, and has very little flexibility.

A

Fibrous.

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92
Q

________ pleura lays directly on the surface of the lungs.

A

Visceral pleura.

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93
Q

_________ pleura is against the thoracic wall.

A

Parietal.

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94
Q

True or false: Pericardial and pleural cavities are potential spaces that are filled with serous fluid.

A

FALSE - Pericardial and pleural cavities are REAL spaces that are filled with serous fluid.

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95
Q

What would occur is the pleural cavity is punctured?

A

When the diaphragm contracts, air will flow into the pleural cavity instead of the lungs, limiting the amount of air going into the lungs.

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96
Q

What are the three directions by which we expand the thoracic cavity in order to create a negative vacuum in the lungs, to allow air in?

A
  1. Transverse, by elevating the ribs.
  2. Anterior to superior, by the ribs.
  3. Superior to inferior, by the respiratory diaphragm contracting.
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97
Q

True or false: All muscles that attach to the ribs will play a part in respiration.

A

TRUE.

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98
Q

The ________ nerves descend to supply the respiratory diaphragm, comprised of ___ ___ ___ spinal nerves.

A
  1. Phrenic nerves.
  2. C3, C4, C5 spinal nerves
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99
Q

What kind of muscle type is the respiratory diaphragm?

A

Skeletal muscle.

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100
Q

If the volume of the thoracic cavity increases, the pressure in the thoracic cavity will _______

A

decrease.

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101
Q

What veins drain the U.L. blood?

A

Left and right subclavian veins.

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102
Q

What is the function of the chordae tendonae and papillary muscles?

A

Holds the atrioventricular valves of the heart closed, preventing backflow of blood.

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103
Q

The ______ _______ gives rise to the coronary vessels.

A

Aortic sinus.

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104
Q

Branches of the right coronary artery:

A
  1. Marginal branch of the right coronary artery.
  2. Posterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery.
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105
Q

Branches of the left coronary artery:

A
  1. Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery.
  2. Anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery.
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106
Q

True or false: There are anastomosis between the interventricular braches and circumflex branch, that are functional.

A

FALSE - these are anatomical anastomosis, not functional.

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107
Q

Define a right dominant heart:

A

A right dominant heart has the posterior interventricular branch arising from the right coronary artery.

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108
Q

Define a left dominant heart:

A

A left dominant heart has the posterior interventricular branch arising from the left coronary artery.

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109
Q

Which vessel drains deoxygenated blood from the heart to the right atrium?

A

The coronary sinus. Seen on the posterior side of the heart.

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110
Q

Which coronary vessel drains blood from the anterior aspect of the heart? Where does it dump into?

A

The great cardiac vein. Dumping into the coronary sinus.

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111
Q

_____________________ drains blood from the posterior aspect of the heart, into the coronary sinus.

A

The middle cardiac vein.

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112
Q

In fetal blood supply, the fetus does not need to do what processes?

A

The fetus does not exchange gas or process nutrients or metabolites. Therefore, the baby does not need to actively use the lungs or liver.

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113
Q

Which fetal shunt will move blood around the liver in a fetus? How many are there?

A

Two Ductus venosus shunts.

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114
Q

Which fetal shunt directs blood around the lungs by attaching the pulmonary artery and the aorta?

A

Ductus arteriosus.

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115
Q

Which fetal shunt directs blood around the lungs by allowing blood to move from the right atrium to the left atrium?

A

Foramen ovale.

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116
Q

The ligamentum arteriosum is the fetal remnant of which fetal shunt?

a. Foramen ovalis.
b. Ductus arteriosus.
c. Ductus venosus.

A

B - ductus arteriosus.

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117
Q

The fossa ovalis is the fetal remnant of which fetal shunt?

a. Foramen ovale.
b. Ductus arteriosus.
c. Ductus venosus.

A

A - foramen ovale.

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118
Q

The ligamentum venosum is the fetal remnant of which fetal shunt?

a. Foramen ovalis.
b. Ductus arteriosus.
c. Ductus venosus.

A

C - Ductus venosus.

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119
Q

Explain when and how the foramen ovale becomes the fossa ovalis?

A

The foramen ovale becomes the fossa ovalis at the first breath of a newborn baby. This occurs because the pressure in the left atrium will be greater than the right atrium, as the blood returning from the lungs will force the foramen ovale closed.

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120
Q

Explain when and how the ductus arteriosus becomes the ligamentum arteriosum?

A

As the baby breathes, the pulmonary arteries will begin to be used to pump blood to the lungs. This will quickly cause the closing of the ductus arteriosus. This occurs because the baby will no longer receive gas exchange from the mother.

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121
Q

In fetal circulation, the pressure in the right atrium will always be ________ than the pressure in the left atrium, allowing the __________________ to remain open.

A
  1. Pressure in right atrium will be higher than the left atrium.
  2. This allows the foramen ovale to stay open.
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122
Q

True or false: The ductus venosus will shut when the blood supply from the placenta is ended, due to the blood pressure changes occurring at the level of the heart.

A

FALSE -
The ductus venosus will close when the blood supply from the placenta is ended, due to the umbilical cord being cut.

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123
Q

Function of the placenta:

A

To put mothers blood flow in very close proximity to the baby’s blood flow, for gas and nutrient transfer.

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124
Q

What vessel gives a fetus nutrient and gas supply from the placenta:

A

The umbilical vein supplies oxygenated and nutrient-rich blood to the fetus.

125
Q

The superior vena cava supplies blood to the fetal heart that will follow what pathway?

A

Pathway:
1. Inferior vena cava.
2. Right atrium.
3. Right ventricle.
4. Pulmonary trunk.
5. Ductus arteriosus (Pulmonary arteries to aorta)
6. Primarily to the aorta, small amount to the lungs.

126
Q

The inferior vena cava supplies blood to the fetal heart, that will follow what pathway:

A

Pathway:
1. Umbilical vein drain into the -
2. Inferior vena cava.
3. Right atrium.
4. Foramen ovale.
5. Left atrium.
6. Left ventricle.
7. Aorta.

127
Q

What is the relevance of the foramen ovale?

A

It will allow blood supply to go to the brain first, cause CNS tissue needs high blood demand during development.

128
Q

Superior boundary of the abdominal wall:

A

Diaphragm: Upper ribs, xiphoid, and vertebrae T10.

129
Q

The inferior boundary of the abdominal wall:

A

The pelvic inlet: is comprised of the Iliac crest, pubic symphysis, and vertebrae L5. Not a real structure.

130
Q

Innervation for the entire abdominal wall:

A

Somatic innervation.

131
Q

Superior boundary of the abdominopelvic cavity:

A

The respiratory diaphragm.

132
Q

Inferior boundary of the abdominopelvic cavity:

A

Pelvic diaphragm.

133
Q

Functions of the abdominal wall:

A
  1. Protection.
  2. Trunk movement.
  3. U.L movement.
  4. Controls abdominal pressure.
134
Q

Why does the abdomen wall control pressure?

A

When contracting the abdomen wall the diaphragm will be pushed up, abdominal volume will decrease and pressure will increase, causing a forced expiration of air from the lungs.

135
Q

True or false: the nerve supply to the abdominal wall comes from spinal nerves T7 - L5.

A

FALSE: The nerve supply to the abdominal wall comes from spinal nerves T7-T12. Forming the intercostal nerves.

136
Q

Blood supply to the abdominal wall, from both posterior and anterior perspectives:

A

Posterior side: lumbar arteries, there are four bilateral pairs.

Anterior side: The superior epigastric aa.

137
Q

Lumbar arteries arise off of what artery?

A

Lumbar arteries branch directly off of the abdominal aorta.

138
Q

What artery do the superior epigastric arteries branch off of?

A

The superior epigastric artery branches off from the internal thoracic arteries.

139
Q

_________ ________ artery will provide a connection between the upper limb and lower limb, by having an anastomosis with the _________ ________ artery.

A
  1. The superior epigastric artery.
  2. Inferior epigastric artery.
140
Q

The inferior epigastric artery is a branch off of what artery?

A

External iliac artery.

141
Q

Rectus abdominis muscle:

A
  1. Is an abdominal muscle, on the anterior side.
  2. Innervated by T7-L1 spinal nerves.
  3. A = Lower ribs.
  4. B = Inguinal ligament.
  5. Has tendonous intersections.
142
Q

Tendonous intersections:

A

Connective tissue segments on the surface of the rectus abdominis muscle. Give the ab definition is fit people.

143
Q

External abdominal oblique muscles:

A
  1. Fiber direction is lateral to medial.
  2. Most superficial of the flat abdominal muscles.
  3. Connects both sides at the midline - linea alba.
  4. Function = rotates the abdomen.
144
Q

Internal abdominal oblique muscle:

A
  1. Fiber direction is lateral to medial.
  2. Middle layer of the flat abdominal muscles.
  3. Function = rotates the abdomen.
145
Q

Transversus abdominis muscle:

A
  1. Most deep of the flat abdominal muscles.
  2. Function = regulate abdominal pressure.
146
Q

The ________________ is a connective tissue structure that connects both sides of the abdominal muscles.

A

Linea alba.

147
Q

What is the clinical benefit of the linea alba?

A

The linea alba allows a safe spot to cut open the abdominal cavity during surgery.

148
Q

What are the posterior abdominal muscles?

A
  1. Psoas muscle.
  2. Quadratis lumborum muscle.
149
Q

Attachments of the psoas muscle:

A

A = Transverse process of the vertebrae.
B = Femur.

150
Q

Attachments of the quadratis lumborum muscle:

A

A = Posterior lumbar vertebrae.
B = iliac crest.

151
Q

Which vertebrae help complete the posterior wall of the abdomen?

A

T10 - L 5 vertebrae.

152
Q

What muscles lay under the rectus sheath?

A

Just the rectus abdominis muscles, but it attaches to the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis.

153
Q

______ ______ is a specialized connective tissue, a form of aponeurosis.

A

Rectus sheath.

154
Q

In men, the inguinal canal is a passageway for -

A

The spermatic cord, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics.

155
Q

In women, the inguinal canal is a passage way for -

A

Round ligament of the uterus, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics.

156
Q

What is the most external muscle that the round ligament passes through?

A

The external abdominal oblique muscle.

157
Q

What is the most internal muscle that the spermatic cord passes through?

A

The transversus abdominis muscle.

158
Q

Two inguinal rings:

A
  1. Superficial (external) inguinal ring on the exterior abdominal oblique muscle.
  2. Deep (internal) inguinal ring on the transversus abdominis muscle.
159
Q

An ________ ________ occurs when the abdominal contents push out the inguinal canal.

A

Inguinal hernia.

160
Q

True or false: The peritoneum has all abdominal organs surrounded.

A

FALSE - some abdominal organs are intraperitoneal (surrounded) and some are retroperitoneal (sit on outside).

161
Q

Which organs are intraperitoneal?

A

GI organs.

162
Q

Which organs are retroperitoneal?

A

Urogenital organs.

163
Q

Parietal layer of the peritoneum is attached to the ____________.

A

Abdominal wall.

164
Q

Visceral layer of the peritoneum is attached to the __________.

A

To the viscera (organs)

165
Q

What is in between the two layers of the peritoneum?

A

Serous fluid.

166
Q

Two types of specialized peritoneum:

A
  1. Messentary.
  2. Greater omentum.
167
Q

Functions of the messentary:

A
  1. Allows for a track for vessels and nerves to go to the small intestines.
  2. Suspends the guts.
  3. Has two layers.
168
Q

The greater omentum info:

A
  1. 4 layers of peritoneum.
  2. Found in the anterior portion of the abdominal cavity.
  3. Site of fat accumulation.
  4. Functions: protective and temperature regulation.
169
Q

Nerve supply to all the abdominal viscera is __________, meaning organ function is ___________.

A
  1. autonomic nervous system.
  2. Unconcious.
170
Q

Parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system:

A
  1. Rest + digest response.
  2. Gives motor supply to the smooth muscle of the guts, glandular tissue, etc
171
Q

Sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system:

A
  1. Fight + flight response.
  2. Gives motor supply to the smooth muscle of vasculature - allows for vascular constriction.
172
Q

Why can we not tell exactly where a stomach cramp is?

A

There is little sensory innervation to the guts, making sensory poorly localized.

173
Q

Esophagus information:

A
  1. Runs from mouth to stomach.
  2. Top portion, in the mouth, is skeletal muscle (controlled)
  3. Bottom portion is controlled by smooth muscle (uncontrolled)
  4. It passes through the esophageal cavity.
174
Q

What happens in an esophageal hernia?

A

The abdominal contents spill into the thoracic cavity, and push on the apex of the heart.

175
Q

Stomach parts:

A
  1. Body.
  2. Fundus
  3. Pylorus/pyloric sphincter - keeps contents in the stomach.
  4. Lesser curvature.
  5. Greater curvature.
176
Q

In a gastric bypass surgery, what stomach structure is banded?

A

The fundus.

177
Q

Duodenum:

A
  1. The first part of the small intestine.
  2. Signals the gallbladder and pancreas to produce and release digestive enzymes.
178
Q

Pancreas:

A
  1. Endocrine function = Releasing insulin into the blood.
  2. Exocrine function = Release of digestive enzymes that are secreted into ducts.
179
Q

Digestive enzymes from the pancreas are dumped into the duodenum via the ___________.

A

Pancreatic duct + bile duct.

180
Q

Gallbladder:

A
  1. Stores and concentrates biles.
  2. Does not make bile.
  3. Is a two way street, and has valves. Because bile needs to enter from the liver, and be released into the duodenum.
181
Q

Liver:

A
  1. Has 4 lobes.
  2. Right/left lobes that are seen on the anterior aspect.
  3. Caudate/quadrate segments that are seen on the inferior side.
182
Q

True or false: The lobes of the liver receive the same blood supply, nerves, and lymphatics.

A

FALSE - the lobes of the liver are segmented.

183
Q

____________________ is the area of the liver that allows the proper hepatic arterys, left and right hepatic ducts, and the hepatic portal vein into the liver.

A

Doorway to the liver.

184
Q

Jejunum:

A
  1. Has a lot of nutrient absorption.
  2. Is continuous with the iliuem.
185
Q

Ileum:

A
  1. Has lots of absorption.
186
Q

Large intestine colon portions:

A
  1. Ascending colon.
  2. Transverse colon.
  3. Descending colon.
  4. Sigmoid colon.
187
Q

The single band of muscle along the large intestine, that helps with peristalsis, is called -

A

Taenia coli

188
Q

Cecum:

A
  1. Portion of the large intestine, but is not colon.
  2. Ileum dumps into it.
  3. Has a vermiform appendix on the posterior inferior side.
189
Q

Anal canal:

A

Very short and has a sphincter.

190
Q

What vessel combine to make the bile duct?

A
  1. The cystic duct coming from the gallbladder.
  2. The common hepatic duct from the liver.
  3. The pancreatic duct from the pancreas.
191
Q

The common hepatic duct branches into the ________________________, before reaching the _________.

A
  1. Left and right hepatic duct.
  2. Liver.
192
Q

Which blood supply is comprised of 3 unpaired arteries, all of which arise of the abdominal aorta?

A

G.I. blood supply.

193
Q

True or false - G.I. blood supply has extensive anatomical anastomosis.

A

FALSE - G.I. blood supply has extensive FUNCTIONAL anatomosis.

194
Q

Blood supply to the intestines have ______________, that extends to GI tubes via ____________.

A
  1. Arched arteries.
  2. Vasa recta.
195
Q

Renal artery is ________ to the renal vein:
1. Inferior.
2. Superior.
3. Posterior.
4. Anterior.

A

Posterior.

196
Q

Celiac trunk - Splenic artery:

A
  1. Supplies blood to the spleen, pancreas, and stomach.
  2. Goes to the upper left region.
  3. Spleen filters old RBCs.
197
Q

Celiac trunk - Common hepatic artery:

A
  1. Supplies 30% of blood supply to the liver.
  2. Supplies liver, gallbladder, duodenum, stomach, and pancreas.
  3. Turns into proper hepatic artery, once that unnamed branch splits off.
198
Q

Celiac trunk - Left gastric artery:

A
  1. Supplies stomach and esophagus.
  2. Is the one that goes superior and into the upper right quadrant.
199
Q

Superior mesenteric artery:

A
  1. Supplies some to the duodenum and pancreas.
  2. Primary supply for the ileum and jejunum.
  3. Supplies the cecum, ascending colon, and 1/2 of the transverse colon.
200
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery:

A
  1. Supplies 1/2 of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon, and the rectum.
  2. Much more inferior on the abdominal aorta.
  3. Smaller than the superior mesenteric artery.
201
Q

Renal arteries:

A
  1. Bilater urogenital vessel.
  2. Left renal artery is more inferior to the right.
  3. Blood supply to the kidneys.
202
Q

Gonadal arteries:

A
  1. Supply to the reproductive organs (testis and ovaries)
  2. Either called the testicular or ovarian arteries.
203
Q

Lumbar arteries:

A
  1. 4 bilateral pairs that branch directly off of the abdominal aorta.
  2. Supply blood to the posterior abdominal wall.
204
Q

The hepatic portal system has two capillary beds:

A
  1. Capillary bed for the wall of the GI organs.
  2. Capillary bed for the liver.
205
Q

GI Blood return pathway.

A
  1. Arterial blood.
  2. Capillary bed (in the organ)
  3. Venules.
  4. Veins.
  5. Hepatic portal vein. (Dumps into liver)
  6. Liver.
  7. Sinusoids (Liver capillary bed).
  8. Hepatic veins.
  9. Inferior vena cava.
206
Q

True or False: The hepatic portal system is dependent on the caval system.

A

FALSE - The hepatic portal vein runs independently from the caval or systemic circulations.

207
Q

What is the function of the spleen feeding into the hepatic portal system?

A

To supply immune function.

208
Q

Which duct joins onto the bile duct just before reaching the duodenum?

A. Splenic duct.
B. Cystic duct.
C. Pancreatic duct.
D. Common hepatic duct.

A

C. The pancreatic duct.

209
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the bile duct system?

A. Splenic duct.
B. Cystic duct.
C. Pancreatic duct.
D. Common hepatic duct.

A

Splenic duct - NOT A REAL THING.

210
Q

Veins that feed into the hepatic portal vein:

A
  1. Superior mesenteric vein.
  2. Inferior mesenteric vein.
  3. Splenic vein.
211
Q

What vessels pass through the doorway to the liver?

A
  1. Hepatic portal vein.
  2. Proper hepatic artery.
  3. Left + Right hepatic ducts.
212
Q

What is the advantage of the hepatic portal system not having valves?

A

This is important because if the hepatic portal vein is blocked, blood can backflow and be redirected to the vena cava’s via anastomosis with veins in the caval system.

213
Q

What is a specific property of the hepatic portal veins, that is not seen in most caval veins?

A

Absence of valves within the veins.

214
Q

What is a portacaval anastamosis?

A

A functional anastamosis between the vessels of the hepatic portal system and caval system. That occur primarily at the superior and inferior portions of the GI tract.

215
Q

Why do partocaval anastamosis occur specifically at the superior and inferior portions of the GI tract?

A
  1. Because the superior portion is the esophagus, which has no absorption of food.
  2. Because the inferior portion is the rectum, which has no absorption of food.
216
Q

Superior portacaval anastamosis:

A

Between the:
1. Left gastric vein, which would go to the live.
2. Esophageal veins, which will dump into the azygous vein, eventually being dumped into the superior vena cava.

217
Q

Inferior portacaval anastamosis:

A

Between the:
1. Inferior/Middle rectal vein, which dumps into the internal iliac vein, eventually being dumped into the inferior vena cava.
2. Superior rectal vein, which would dump into the inferior mesenteric vein, eventually being dumped into the hepatic portal vein.

218
Q

Chirrohis of the liver will cause ________________________, that will make it necessary to use the portacaval anastomosis to return appropriate amounts of blood into the ___________.

A
  1. Hepatic portal hypertension.
  2. Right atrium.
219
Q

_____ is comprised of the spinal cord and brain.

A

CNS.

220
Q

______ is comprised of the cranial nerves and spinal nerves.

A

Peripheral nervous system.

221
Q

Function of a spinal nerve:

A

Somatic functions and autonomic functions.

222
Q

Somatic function =

A

Voluntary movement, to the skeletal muscle.

223
Q

Autonomics =

A

Involuntary/unconscious control to the cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands.

224
Q

True or false: The cranial nerves communicate directly with the brain.

A

TRUE.

225
Q

The spinal nerves communicate directly with the __________.

A

Spinal cords.

226
Q

What part of the brain receives sensory supply and determines if we need to activate fight/flight or rest/digest responses.

A. Brain stem.
B. Hypothalamus.
C. Parietal lobe.
D. Cerebellum.

A

B - Hypothalamus.

227
Q

Sympathetic nervous system overview:

A
  1. Fight or flight response.
  2. An energy-consuming system - directs attention away from digestion.
  3. Fast acting.
  4. Widespread to whole body.
228
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system overview:

A
  1. Rest and digest.
  2. An energy-conserving system - directs attention toward digesting food.
  3. Slow acting.
  4. Localized.
  5. Does not occur in the limbs.
229
Q

True or false: most organs have either entirely sympathetic or autonomic innervation.

A

FALSE - Most organs have dual innervation with both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation. - ON EXAM.

230
Q

Body wall and limbs only have:

a. Sympathetic innervation.
b. Parasympathetic innervation.

A

a - sympathetic innervations.

231
Q

________________________ consists of 1 lower motor neuron, with no synapses or ganglion.

A

Somatic motor system.

232
Q

What is the target tissue of somatic motor innervation?

A

Skeletal muscle.

233
Q

________________________ consists of 2 motor neurons, 1 preganglionic and 1 postganglionic - with a synapse between them.

A

Autonomic motor system.

234
Q

What is the target tissue of the autonomic motor system?

A

Smooth muscles, cardiac muscle, or glands.

235
Q

Sympathetic nervous system axon lengths:

A
  1. Pre-ganglionic axon is short.
  2. Post-ganglionic axon is long.
236
Q

Pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons:

A
  1. Do thoracolumbar outflow - found in T1-L2 spinal segments.
  2. Found in the lateral horn of the grey matter spinal cord.
  3. Has short axons.
237
Q

Post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons:

A

All have long axons.

Two types:
1. Paravertebral ganglia - follow spinal nerves - such as the sympathetic trunk ganglia.
2. Preaortic ganglia - On the anterior side of the aorta, on gastrointestinal arteries. Follow the arteries to the target tissue.

238
Q

Parasympathetic axon lengths.

A
  1. Pre-ganglionic axons are long.
  2. Post-ganglionic axons are short.
239
Q

Pre-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons:

A

Always have long axons.

Can originate in two places:
1. Brainstem - cell bodies are called nuclei.
2. Spinal cord S2-S4 - Off the lateral horn.

240
Q

Post-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons:

A

Always have short axons.

Can originate in two places:
1. Intramural ganglia (In the organ walls)
2. Named ganglia (Next to target organs in the head.)

241
Q

Cranial nerves are exclusively __________________, such as the ________ nerve.

A
  1. Parasympathetic.
    2.Vagus nerve CNX.
242
Q

Vagus nerve is a ______________, _____ - ganglionic, cranial nerve.

A

Vagus nerve is a parasympathetic, pre-ganglionic, cranial nerve.

243
Q

Cranial nerve 10 (AKA vagus nerve or CNX) is a branch of what?

A

The brainstem.

243
Q

True or false: Cranial nerves 3, 7, and 9 all go to the head and are parasympathetic.

A

True.

243
Q

The ventral horn is comprised of:

A

Lower motor neurons.

244
Q

The lateral horn is found in what 2 regions, which have?

A
  1. Thoracic-lumbar region - has sympathetic neurons.
  2. Sacral region - Has parasympathetic neurons.
245
Q

All neurons in the PNS are -

A

Post-ganglionic.

246
Q

All neurons in the CNS are -

A

Pre-ganglionic.

247
Q

The mother’s blood in the placenta is in close contact with the __________ vein, which will have high ______ + _______, going towards the ductus venosus.

A
  1. Umbilical vein.
  2. Oxygen + nutrients.
248
Q

Which coronary vessel travels alongside the anterior side of the heart, with the anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery? What does it dump into?

A

The great cardiac vein is a coronary vessel that branches off of the coronary sinus, and runs with the anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery.

249
Q

Which coronary vessel travels alongside the posterior side of the heart, with the posterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery? What does it dump into?

A

The middle cardiac vein is a coronary vessel that branches off of the coronary sinus, and runs with the posterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery.

250
Q

Where does the fibrous pericardium anchor the heart to?

A
  1. The respiratory diaphragm.
  2. The sternum.
251
Q

What structure branches off the conus medularis and inferiorly anchors the spinal cord?

A

The filum terminale.

252
Q

Function of the denticulate ligaments of the spinal cord:

A

To anchor the spinal cord laterally.

253
Q

Which male urogenital organs ascend during development?

A
  1. Adrenal glands.
  2. Kidneys.
254
Q

Which male urogenital organs descend during development?

A

The gonads.

255
Q

In men, urinary and reproductive organs have a ____________________.

A

Common development.

256
Q

When the gonads descend, what structure do they pull down with them?

A

The parietal peritoneum.

257
Q

Male urinary components:

A
  1. Kidneys.
  2. Ureters.
  3. Urinary bladder.
  4. Urethra.
  5. Renal arteries and veins.
258
Q

The cord that guides the testis during descent:

A

The gubernaculum.

259
Q

The _______________ is the hellsman of the testis.

A

Gubernaculum.

260
Q

The scrotum contains the:

A

Layers of the abdominal cavity -

Flat muscles: Thoracis abdominis muscle, internal abdominal oblique muscle, external abdominal oblique muscle.

261
Q

What structure is the area responsible for most inguinal hernias in baby boys?

A

The processus vaginalis.

262
Q

Spermatic cord is made up of:

A
  1. Ductus deferns.
  2. Pampiniform venous plexus.
  3. Testicular artery and vein.
  4. Nerves.
  5. Lymphatics.
263
Q

The function of the ____________________, is to thermoregulate the semen.

A

Pampiniform venous plexus.

264
Q

What male reproductive organ is a primary sex gland?

A

The testicle.

265
Q

Exocrine function of the testicle:

A

Secrete sperm.

266
Q

Endocrine function of the testicle:

A

Secrete testosterone.

267
Q

The tail of the epididymis is continuous with the ______________.

A

Ductus deferens.

268
Q

The function of the epididymis:

A

Sperm maturation.

269
Q

Which is a less invasive and safer procedure - getting the uterine tube tied or a vasectomy.

A

A vasectomy is less invasive and safer.

270
Q

2 accessory sex organs in men:

A
  1. The prostate gland.
  2. The seminal vesicle.
  3. The bulbourethral gland.
271
Q

Why does prostate cancer have a low rate of metastasis?

A

Because the prostate gland has a thick connective tissue sheath around it.

272
Q

True or false: The nervous supply to the prostate gland is only important for maintaining erection.

A

FALSE - The prostate gland has a nervous supply that is important for erection, urination, etc. Very important.

273
Q

The ductus deferens and seminal vesicle join together to make the:

A

Ejaculatory duct.

274
Q

The ejaculatory duct meets with the:

A

Urethra.

275
Q

What stucture makes most of the seminal fluid?

A

The seminal vesicles.

276
Q

What erectile tissue of the penis contains the urethra?

A

The corpus spongiosum.

277
Q

Corpus cavernosum has column(s), while corpus spongiosum has column(s) in men

A
  1. Corpus cavernosum has 2 columns.
  2. Corpus spongiosum has 1 column.
278
Q

True or false: deep fascia in the penis constricts venous return to maintain an erection for a long time.

A

TRUE!

279
Q

The key anatomical event predisposing males to indirect inguinal hernia is -

  1. The development of the scrotum
  2. increased intrabdominal pressure during lifting
  3. chronic constipation
  4. the descent of the testes
  5. puberty
A

the descent of the testes

280
Q

The umbilical arteries is ________, and is ____________.

A

The umbilical artery is PAIRED, and is BILATERAL.

281
Q

What vessel runs through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae?

A

Vertebral arteries and veins.

282
Q

What is the most superior process of the vertebra?

A

The articular processes.

283
Q

What runs along the costal groove of the ribs?

A
  1. Intercostal nerve,
  2. Intercostal arteries.
  3. Intercostal veins.
284
Q

The mediastinum -

A

Is a real space between the pulmonary cavities that contains the heart/pericardium/vessels.

285
Q

The umbilical vein is _________, and is not ___________.

A

The umbilical vein is UNPAIRED, and is not BILATERAL.

286
Q

What do we call the collection of many lumbar/sacral spinal nerves that branch off of the conus medularis?

A

Cauda equina.

287
Q

Unilateral contraction of the iliocostalis will cause -

A

Lateral flexion of the vertebral column

287
Q

In contrast to the male reproductive tract, the femlae reproductive tract will be ____________ from the __________ tract.

A
  1. Independant.
  2. Urinary tract.
288
Q

Fetal remnants of the gubernaculum in women:

A
  1. The round ligament of the uterus - Uterus to abdominal wall.
  2. The ovarian ligament - Ovary to uterus.
289
Q

Round ligament of the uterus attachments:

A
  1. Uterus.
  2. Labia majora
290
Q

Overview of the ovary:

A
  1. Ovary is the primary sex galnd of the female reproductive tract.
  2. Exocrine function = Secrete ova into the peritoneal cavity.
  3. Endocrine function = Secrete estrogen into the blood.
291
Q

Define the osteum of the uterine tube:

A

The osteum of the uterine tube is the opening into the peritoneal cavity, where an ova will enter.

292
Q

Path of the ova to the uterus:

A
  1. Ovary - secretes it into the
  2. Peritoneal cavity
  3. Ova breaks through the broad ligament of the uterus (peritoneal structure)
  4. Fimbrae of the uterine tube coax the ova into the uterine tube.
  5. In the uterine tube for fertilization.
    6 In the uterus for implantation.
293
Q

Anterior to posterior order of female urogenital external orifices:

A
  1. External opening of the urethra.
  2. Vaginal orifice.
  3. Anus.
294
Q

_____________ is when implantation of a fertilized ova occurs outside of the uterus.

A

Ectopic pregnancy.

295
Q

Endometrium overveiw:

A
  1. Is the inner lining of the uterus.
  2. If a ova is fertilized and implanted, this will eventually develop into the placenta.
  3. Endometritis when infected.
  4. Endometriosis when endometrial cells migrate.
296
Q

Where is the site of implantation?

A

The endometrium of the uterus.

297
Q

Where is the site of fertilization?

A

The uterine tube.

298
Q

Portions of the uterus:

A
  1. Body of the uterus.
  2. Cervix of the uterus.
  3. Fundus of the uterus.
299
Q

The vaginal _________, wraps all the way around the _______ of the uterus.

A
  1. Vaginal fornix.
  2. Cervix of the uterus.
300
Q

True or false: The urogenital tract is intraperitoneal.

A

FALSE - The urogenital tract is retro-peritoneal.

301
Q

Paraurethral gland is found where, and does what?

A
  1. Paraurethral gland is found on lateral sides of the external urethra.
  2. Paraurethral glands are found deep to the labia minora.
  3. Paraurethral glands provide lubrication to the urethra primarily.
302
Q

The vagina is considered to be _____________________.

A

Musculomembranous.

303
Q

What is the clitoris made of?

A

The clitoris is erectile tissue that is made of 2 columns of corpus spongiosum

304
Q

Labia minor vs labia majora:

A
  1. Labia majora has sweat and sabaceous glands, and can grown hair.
  2. Labia minora cannot do any of those things.
305
Q

Vestibular glands:

A
  1. Provide lubrication to the external opening of the vagina.
  2. Glandular openings for these are found on lateral sides of the vaginal orifice.
  3. Are found deep to the labia majora.
306
Q

Peritoneum will anchor _________________ organs, allowing it to act as ____________, in some cases.

A
  1. Urogenital.
  2. Ligaments.

ex - broad ligament of the uterus.

BMS 301 Exam #2 (1 decks)

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