Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Antihyperlipidemics

A

agents which decrease the concentration of circulating lipoproteins

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2
Q

Least dense lipoproteins

A

Chylomicrons

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3
Q

lipoproteins transform form of GI absorbed triglycerides

A

chylomicrons

rapidly removed from circulation into adipose tissue and skeletal muscle

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4
Q

VLDL are synthesized in ___________.

A

liver

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5
Q

Which lipoproteins transport lipids to peripheral tissues?

A

Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL)

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6
Q

Which lipoproteins are the major transporter of cholesterol?

A

low density of lipoproteins (LDL)
bad lipoprotein

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7
Q

Where are LDL’s synthesized?

A

liver

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8
Q

Where are HDL synthesized?

A

liver

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9
Q

Which lipoproteins are reverse cholesterol transporters (tissue to liver)?

A

High-density lipoproteins
“good” lipoprotein

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10
Q

Atherosclerotic plaques develop with addition of:

A

Cholesterol
Calcium
Collagen
Fibrin

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11
Q

High concentrations of ___________ lead to an increased risk of atherosclerosis based on the movement of “sticky” cholesterol to vessel walls and the build-up of plaques.

A

LDL

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12
Q

Increased ratio of ____________ is considered desirable.

A

HDL: LDL

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13
Q

Is dietary cholesterol the only source of body cholesterol?

A

no-liver synthesized cholesterol based on body levels.

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14
Q

What levels of plasma concentration should be decreased in order to help lower cholesterol levels?

A

triglycerides because they are used to synthesize cholesterol

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15
Q

Hyperlipidemia occurs in _____% of the population.

A

15-20%

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16
Q

Risk factors of hyperlipidemia

A

PEGSS

Poor diet
Excessive alcohol consumption
Genetics
Smoking
Sedentary lifestyle

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17
Q

Primary goal in treatment of hyperlipidemia

A

to lower LDL and triglycerides while increasing HDL/LDL ratio

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18
Q

What is the first-line therapy in hyperlipidemia?

A

diet modification and excercise plans

-however, not likely to be extremely effective at lowering very high cholesterol and triglyceride levels
-diet rich in unsaturated fats decreases LDL and increases HDL

-drug therapy can be very effective and useful in most patients

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19
Q

Which agents are recommended for use in patients with high LDL but near normal Triglyceride levels?

A

Bile acid binding resins

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20
Q

Drugs that are bile acid binding resins

A

Cholestyramine (Questran)
Colestipol (Colestid)
Colesvelam (Welchol)

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21
Q

are bile acid-binding resins water soluble?

A

no, water insoluble cation exchange resins that bind up released bile salts (and their attached cholesterol) in the GI tract and prevent their reabsorption

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22
Q

Bile-Acid binding resins result in a ________% decrease in circulating LDL cholesterol (plasma triglycerides may increase due to increased hepatic LDL receptors and increased LDL catabolism.

A

30%

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23
Q

Bile-acid binding resins adverse effects

A

-constipation
-poor compliance (sand-like consistency)
-abdominal cramping
-absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
-may bind to several other drugs (ex. digitalis, beta-blockers etc.) so separate doses

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24
Q

What are considered first-line antihyperlipidemics ?

A

bile acid binding resins

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25
Q

What is the MOA of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (Statins)?

A

inhibit the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis (3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase)
-therefore block cholesterol synthesis (not dietary) and decrease LDL cholesterol.
-decreased LDL levels also stimulate the production of hepatic LDL receptors and thus further decreases the plasma LDL level
-all act in primarily in the liver to decrease production of cholesterol

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26
Q

Statins are considered first-line therapeutics, however their side effect profile is _______________ than bile acid binding resins.

A

greater

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27
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitor drugs

A

-Lovastatin
-Atorvastatin (lipitor)
-Fluvastatin (Lescol)
-Pravastatin (Pravachol)
-Simvastatin (Zocor)
-Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
-Pitavastatin (Livalo)

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28
Q

Which agents are very useful in cases of genetic hypercholesterolemia?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

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29
Q

Which antihyperlipidemics should be avoided in pregnancy?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

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30
Q

Statins decrease plasma cholesterol by up to ____% and decrease triglyceride levels by _______%.

A

30%
10-20%

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31
Q

Statins have a ________ (high or low) first-pass effect.

A

high

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32
Q

Adverse effects of Statins

A

-may increase plasma aminotransferase levels (d/c if levels increase more than 3x normal)
-skeletal muscle weakness/pain
-linked to increased plasma creatinine phosphokinase
-may become severe leading to rhabdomyolysis and renal failure
-more common when taking certain drugs such as macrolide Abx and antifungal agents
- effects may be less with Flubastatin
-Rosuvastatin may be more likely to cause

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33
Q

Which medication should be avoided in patients taking Statins?

A

Sux unless absolutely necessary

-linked use of Sux in patients taking statins with increased risks of muscle pain and injury up to rhabdomyolysis and related kidney damage

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34
Q

How are Statins metabolized?

A

partly CYP3A4

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35
Q

Which statin is metabolized by CYP2C9 which is not affected by grapefruit juice?

A

Pitavastatin

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36
Q

How does grapefruit juice affect statins?

A

-grapefruit juice contains compounds (furanocoumarins) which inhibit CYP3A4 thus increasing duration of many statins and possibly leading to increased risk of rhabdo or other myopathy and muscle pain
-especially seen with SAL :)
-Simvastatin
-Atorvastatin
-Lovastatin

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37
Q

MOA of Niacin (Nicotinic Acid)

A

-decreases both VLDL and LDL plasma levels
-mech unclear, believed to act by increasing VLDL clearance and decreasing VLDL synthesis which then leads to decrease in conversion to LDL
-inhibits free fatty acid release from adipose tissue

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38
Q

Niacin can lower LDL by ____ with up to a _______ decrease in triglycerides.

A

30%
50%

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39
Q

Niacin increased HDL levels ______%

A

20-30%

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40
Q

Adverse effects of Niacin

A

-benefits closely linked to dose, higher doses not well tolerated
-large doses can lead to hepatic damage, which is believe to be due to a direct hepatic effect
-hyperglycemia
-increased plasma uric acid levels
-potent vasodilator, which leads to flushing, headaches and potential orthostatic hypotension and syncope
-flushing (and pruritus) is prostaglandin mediated and can be avoided by pretreatment with aspirin
-abdominal pain and diarrhea
-increased risk of skeletal muscle myopathy when given with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.

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41
Q

What are the fibrate drugs?

A

Fenofibrate
Gemfibrozil
Clofibrate

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42
Q

MOA of Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

A

-stimulation of lipoprotein lipases which break down triglycerides
-used mainly to treat patients with increased triglycerides without increased LDL cholesterol

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43
Q

Gemfibrozil (Lopid) lowers triglycerides up to _____% and increase HDL up to____%.

A

50%
20%

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44
Q

How is Gemfibrozil eliminated?

A

renal in unchanged form, care in renal compromised patients

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45
Q

Adverse effects of Gemfibrozil

A

-small increase in patient development of gallstones
-increased risk of skeletal muscle myopathy, esp administered with Statins
-GI upset
-Arrythmias are possible and so should not be used in patient with a history of heart disease

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46
Q

How do fenofibrates effect levels?

A

-more effective at lowering triglycerides than cholesterol
-increases HDL cholesterol somewhat but not very effective at lowering LDL cholesterol

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47
Q

Ezetimibe (Zetia) MOA

A

-different than other agents
-inhibitor of intestinal cholesterol transport
-does not inhibit liver synthesis of cholesterol or increase biliary excretion
-reduces LDL cholesterol while increasing HLD cholesterol in patients with hypercholesterolemia

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48
Q

Metabolism of Ezetimibe (Zetia)

A

liver glucuronidation then excreted in urine
unchanged form excreted primarily in feces
enterohepatic recycling occurs

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49
Q

t1/2 of Ezetimibe

A

22 hours

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50
Q

Which med is recommended only when other agents either are not effective or tolerated but to controversy concerning true effectiveness?

A

Ezetimibe (Zetia)

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51
Q

PCSK9 inhibitor drugs

A

Alirocubmab (Praluent)
Evolocumab (Repatha)

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52
Q

When were PCSK9 inhibitors approved?

A

2015

newest class for lowering cholesterol

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53
Q

How do PCSK99 inhibitors work?

A

-monoclonal antibodies which inhibit human proprotein convertase subtilisin kexin 9 binding to liver LDL receptors allowing more LDL particles to be reabsorbed by the liver and decrease circulating LDL

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54
Q

Which agents are for patients no able to take other antihypercholesterolemics or other agents are not working?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

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55
Q

Which med is a prodrug activated by coenzyme A which inhibits adenosine triphosphate citrate lyase in liver?

A

Bempedoic acid (NExletol)

enzyme is needed for cholesterol synthesis

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56
Q

which drug was approved for use in familial hypercholesterolemia in combination with statin therapy and dietary control?

A

Bempedoic acid (Nexletol)

-not first line therapy

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57
Q

Side effects of Bempedoic acid

A

-muscle spasms, back and limb pain , gout, diarrhea
-more serious SE include tendon rupture (0.5%)
-weak transport protein inhibition may account for increased gout attacks and increased blood statin levels (simvastatin and pravastatin mainly)

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58
Q

Withold ______ during perioperative period. Can decrease platelet counts and increase prothrombin time.

A

Niacin

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58
Q

Which med caused cutaneous and peripheral vasodilation (flushing) which can lead to hypotension with general anesthetics.

A

Niacin

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59
Q

Which agents have higher risk of rhabdomyolysis than the statins in hospitalized patients and should be d/c’d prior to surgery?

A

fibrates

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60
Q

Antiplatelet drugs action

A

to decrease plt aggregation and formation of a plt plug

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61
Q

Anticoagulants inferfere with the____________.

A

coagulation cascade, thus blocking thrombus formation

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62
Q

How is the platelet plug strengthened?

A

addition of fibrin to form a cross-linked matrix via the coagulation cascade

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63
Q

Platelets contain mainly ______ and since they do not contain _____ they cannot synthesize additional _______.

A

cox-1
DNA
COX

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64
Q

How does high intracellular cAMP levels interfere with platelet aggregation?

A

high CaMP inhibits aggregation

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65
Q

How do low intracellular cAMP levels interfere with platelet aggregation?

A

low CaMP enhance aggregation

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66
Q

cAMP levels are controlled by ______.

A

TX-A2 (and other mediators)

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67
Q

Dipyridamole (Persantine) is a _______ inhibitor.

A

PDE-5 inhibitor, however it is only weakly antiplatelet and usually given with warfarin to decrease thrombus formation in heart valve replacement or with aspirin.

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68
Q

What can dipyridamole (Persantine) induce?

A

angina in susceptible patients due to a vasodilatory property which can increase cardiac steal.

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69
Q

Which are prodrugs that are activated in the liver and covalently bind to the P2Y12 receptor protein, decreasing platelet aggregation?

A

Clopidogrel (plavix)
Ticlodipine

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70
Q

Uses of Ticlodipine

A

decreases embolus risk after coronary stent placement and use in patients who cannot tolerate aspirin

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71
Q

Uses of Clopidogrel

A

-prevent secondary MI, Stroke, PVD, bypass graft surgery

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72
Q

How is Cangrelor (Kengreal) different than Clopidogrel?

A

it is an active compound so does not require metabolic activation
-it is an IV agent that has been shown to decrease mortality when used with Clopidogrel in CV stent placement in MI patients

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73
Q

What is an oral P2Y12 irreversible inhibitor used to decrease clotting risks in CV stent patients?

A

Prasugrel (Effient)
-similar to Clopidogrel
-used with low dose aspirin

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74
Q

What is a oral P2Y12 reversible inhibitor?

A

Ticagrelor (Brilinta)
acts on a different site and produces an allosteric change blocking ADP binding
-CYP3A4 inhibitors (grapefruit juice, ketoconazole etc) can lead to increased risk of excessive bleeding

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75
Q

What is considered the final pathway in aggregation?

A

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor

GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet surface is the location that binds fibrinogen allowing platelets to bind together during aggregation. Blocking this binding site keeps platelets from aggregating

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76
Q

What are the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists

A

-Abciximab (reopro)
-eptifabatide (Integrilin)
-Tirofiban (aggrastat)

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77
Q

Which Glycoprotein IIB/IIIa receptor antagonist is a monoclonal antibody for IV use?

A

Abciximab (reopro)

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78
Q

What is the t1/2 of Abciximab?

A

12-24 hours
affinity for receptor very strong (almost irreversible)
-recommend with aspirin or warfarin to decrease SE risk

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79
Q

How do you reverse Abciximab?

A

with platelet infusions

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80
Q

Which Glycoprotein IIB/IIIa receptor antagonist is a synthetic peptide with a high affinity but shorter t1/2 (2-4 hours) than Abciximab?

A

Eptifibatide (Integrilin)

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81
Q

Which Glycoprotein IIB/IIIa receptor antagonist is a non-peptide tyrosine analog with t1/2 2-4 hours?

A

Tirofiban (Aggrastat)

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82
Q

Which anticoags are useful for arterial and venous thrombotic disease?

A

Thrombin inhibitors

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83
Q

Which are the Thrombin inhibitors?

A

-Bivalrudin (Angiomax)
-Argatroban (Acova)
-Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
-Lepirudin
-Recombinant Hirudin

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84
Q

What are the ADP inhibitors?

A

also known as P2y12 inhibitors:
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Prasugrel (Effient)
Ticagrelor (Brillinta)
Ticlodipiine (Ticlid)

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85
Q

Which thrombin inhibitors can be used as a heparin replacement in patients not responding to heparin or experiencing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Recombinant Hirudin (Desirudin)

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86
Q

Which thromin inhibitor is a peptide that directly inhibits thrombin without the need of antithrombin that heparin requires?

A

recombinant hirudin

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87
Q

Which is a synthetic peptide similar to Hirudin?

A

Bivalrudin (Angiomax)

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88
Q

Which is a arginine derivative used in place of heparin that is a thrombin inhibitor?

A

Argatroban (acova)
in addition to its direct thrombin inhibition, it triggers nitric oxide release which increases perfusion in peripheral vascular disease

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89
Q

Where is heparin found?

A

in mast cell and nerve terminal vesicles

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90
Q

What is heparin structurally?

A

strongly acidic glycosaminoglycan of high molecular weight chains with 10-100 monosaccharide residues

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91
Q

Heparin is _______ at physiologic pH , which explains most SE.

A

polyanionic

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92
Q

What does heparin require for action?

A

a cofactor–>antithrombin III

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93
Q

What factors does Heparin inhibit?

A

Coag factors:
IXa
Xa
XIa
XIIa
thrombin activity

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94
Q

Heparin metabolism

A

50% metabolized
50% eliminated unchanged in the urine

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95
Q

t1/2 heparin

A

1-2 hours
increases dramatically in liver or renal disease

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96
Q

Can heparin be given in pregnancy?

A

yes, fairly safe since it does not cross placenta

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97
Q

Heparin activity is due to a specific _________________ sequence.

A

pentasaccharide

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98
Q

Heparin effects can be immediately reversed with _________ which is a _____________.

A

Protamine
ionic binder

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99
Q

Low-molecular weight heparins

A

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Dalteparin (Fragmin)

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100
Q

How is low-molecular weight heparin produced?

A

by cleavage of heparin into smaller polysaccharide chains
-all have the specific pentasaccharide required for activity like heparin
-more bioavailable than Heparin when given SQ

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101
Q

Why do LMWH decrease side effects?

A

less binding to cells and other proteins due to lower overall charge

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102
Q

Which anticoagulant acts with antithrombin to inhibit factor Xa but not thrombin?

A

Fondaparinux (Arixtra)

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103
Q

Warfarin administration should be d/c’d how many days prior to surgery?

A

2-5 days

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104
Q

What can be given to reverse effects of warfarin if needed for emergency surgery?

A

Vitamin K or FFP to provide prothrombin

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105
Q

Warfarin clearance rate is decreased with:

A

Amiodarone
Cimetadine
Omeprazole

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106
Q

Should Warfarin be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Yes! crosses placenta into fetus and produces exaggerated actions in fetus

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107
Q

How do oral anticoagulants such as warfarin work?

A

-act as competitive inhibitors of Vitamin K, which is needed for synthesis of prothrombin
-therefore they decrease the amount of prothrombin available to be converted to thrombin by factor Xa
-due to this mechanism, these agents have fairly slow onsets (24-48 hours) and long durations (2-5 days_

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108
Q

Thrombin converts _______ to ________ which are crosslinked by factor _____ to form thrombotic web.

A

fibrinogen to fibrin
crosslinked by factor XIIIa

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109
Q

Is Dabigatran considered safer than warfarin?

A

yes

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110
Q

Which oral anticoagulant is an esterase prodrug form activated by plasma and liver esterases?

A

dabigatran (Pradaxa)
-binds to bound free and clot-found thrombin

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111
Q

How is Dabigatran metabolized and excreted?

A

80% renally excreted
remainer metabolized by liver

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112
Q

D/C Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) _______ hours prior to surgery?

A

24-48 hours

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113
Q

D/C Apixaban (Eliquis) _______ hours prior to surgery?

A

24-48 hours

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114
Q

D/C Edoxaban (savaysa) _______ hours prior to surgery?

A

24-48 hours

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115
Q

What newer oral anticoagulants is a new variant of factor Xa inhibitors specifically approved for hospitalized and transitioning patients to prevent DVT And VTE formation?

A

Betrixaban (Bevyxxa)
-d/cd by manufacturer in 2020 prior to corporate buy-out

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116
Q

Which drug is a recombinant product to reverse factor Xa inhibotrs?

A

Adexanet alfa (Andexxa)

effective but very expensive :25k

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117
Q

Thrombolytic agents MOA

A

-used to dissolve formed clot
-primary indication is emergency tx of a coronary occlusion
-convert plasminogen to plasmin which is an enzyme responsible for cleaving fibrin molecules, thus breaking apart the ‘web’ matrix of a thrombus
recommended in patients within 12 hours of onset of MI symptoms with ST segment elevation

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118
Q

Thrombolytic agents (drugs)

A

Streptokinase (Streptase)
Alteplase (Activase)

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119
Q

Which thrombolytic agent is isolated from beta-hemolytic streptococci?

A

Streptokinase (Streptase)
-acts by binding to plasminogen causing other molecules to be converted to plasmin which then breaks down fibrin
-allergic reactions possible in patients who have been exposed to beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections

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120
Q

Which is a recombinant form of tissue plasminogen activator?

A

Alteplase (Activase)
more expensive than streptokinase

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121
Q

Blood composition

A

92% water
8% solutes

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122
Q

Plasma is _______ % of blood volume

A

50-55%

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123
Q

What is serum?

A

plasma that has been allowed to clot to remove fibrinogen (may interfere with diagnostic tests)

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124
Q

polycythemia

A

too many cells

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125
Q

anemia

A

too few cells
-reduction in the total number of erythrocytes in circulating blood or in the quality or quantity of hemoglobin

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126
Q

Causes of anemia:

A

-impaired erythrocyte production
-acute or chronic blood loss
-increased erythrocyte destruction
-combination of above

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127
Q

Classification of anemia

A

-etiologic factor(cause)
-size
identified by terms that end in ‘cytic”
macrocytic (large)
microcytic (Small)
normocytic (normal)
-hemoglobin content
-identified in terms that end in “chromic”
-hypochromic (decreased amount)

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128
Q

Anisocytosis

A

-RBC are present in various sizes

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129
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

RBCs present in various shapes

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130
Q

Clniical manifestations of anemia

A

-reduced O2 carrying capacity: hypoxia
-snycope, angina, compensatory tachycardia, and Jordan dysfunctions
Classic anemia symptoms:
-fatigue
-weakness
-dyspnea
-elevated HR
-pallor

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131
Q

Treatment of anemia

A

-transfusions
-dietary correction
-administration of supplemental vitamins or iron
-correction of underlying condition

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132
Q

What are macrocytic-normochromic anemias also termed?

A

Megaloblastic anemias

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133
Q

What is the patho of macrocytic-normochromic anemia?

A

RBCs are unusually large.
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis is defective.
Due to deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate.
Co-enzymes for nuclear maturation and the DNA synthesis pathway
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) processes occur at a normal rate.
Results in unequal growth of the nucleus and cytoplasm.

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134
Q

What is the most common macrocytic anemia?

A

Pernicious anemia

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135
Q

What is pernicious anemia caused by?

A

vitamin B12 deficiency
-lacks intrinsic factor from gastric parietal cells required for vitamin B12 absorption
-may be a congenital or autoimmune disorder
-autoantibodies against intrinsic factor

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136
Q

Conditions that increase risk of pernicious anemia

A

-past infection with Helicobacter pylori
-gastrectomy
-proton-pump inhibitors

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137
Q

Clinical manifestations of pernicious anemia

A

-weakness, fatigue
-paresthesias of feet, fingers, difficulty walking
-loss of appetite, abdominal pain, weight loss
-sore tongue that is smooth and beefy red, secondary to atrophic glossitis
-“lemon yellow” (sallow) skin as a result of a combo of pallor and icterus
-neuro symptoms from nerve demyelination-not reversible even with tx
-often unrecognizable in older adults because of its subtle slow onset and presentation

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138
Q

Evaluation of pernicious anemia

A

-methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels elevated early in disease
-gastric bx

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139
Q

Treatment of pernicious anemia

A

-parenteral or high oral doses of vitamin B12
-if left untreated,death
-life-long tx required

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140
Q

What is folate deficiency anemia?

A

Folate is an essential vitamin for RNA and DNA synthesis.
Absorption of folate occurs in the upper small intestine; is not dependent on any other facilitating factors.

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141
Q

folate deficiency anemia is common in:

A

Is common in alcoholics and individuals with chronic malnourishment.

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142
Q

Folate deficiency anemia is associated with what in fetus?

A

neural tube defects

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143
Q

Clinical manifestations of folate deficiency anemia

A

Severe cheilosis: Scales and fissures of the lips and corners of the mouth
Stomatitis: Mouth inflammation
Painful ulcerations of the buccal mucosa and tongue: Characteristic of burning mouth syndrome
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), flatulence, and watery diarrhea
Neurologic symptoms: Usually not seen

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144
Q

Treatment of folate deficiency

A

Oral dose of folate is administered daily until normal blood levels are obtained.
Life-long treatment is not necessary.

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145
Q

causes of microcytic-hypochromic anemias

A

Disorders of iron metabolism
Disorders of porphyrin and heme synthesis
Disorders of globin synthesis

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146
Q

Microcytic-hypochromic anemia characterized by:

A

Are characterized by RBCs that are abnormally small and contain reduced amounts of hemoglobin

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147
Q

Most common type of anemia worldwide

A

iron-deficiency anemia

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148
Q

Highest risk of iron deficiency anemia

A

Older adults, women, infants, and those living in poverty

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149
Q

Which anemia is associated with cognitive impairment in children

A

iron deficiency anemia

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150
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anemia

A

Inadequate dietary intake
Excessive blood loss
Chronic parasite infestations
Metabolic or functional iron deficiency
Menorrhagia (excessive bleeding during menstruation)
Use of medications that cause gastrointestinal bleeding (aspirin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs [NSAIDs])
Surgical procedures that decrease stomach acidity, intestinal transit time, and absorption (e.g., gastric bypass)
Insufficient dietary intake of iron
Eating disorders, such as pica (craving and eating nonnutritional substances such as dirt, chalk, and paper)

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151
Q

Clinical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia

A

Fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath
Pale earlobes, palms and conjunctivae
Brittle, thin, coarsely ridged, and spoon-shaped (concave or koilonychia) nails
Red, sore, painful tongue
Angular stomatitis: Dryness and soreness in the corners of the mouth
Become symptomatic: When hemoglobin (Hgb) 7 to 8 g/dl

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152
Q

Tx of iron-deficiency anemia

A

Iron replacement therapy: Iron dextran
Sodium ferric gluconate complex in sucrose (Ferrlecit) and iron sucrose injection (Venofer)
Duration of therapy: Usually 6 to 12 months after the bleeding has stopped but may continue for as long as 24 months

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153
Q

Evaluation of iron-deficiency anemia

A

serum ferritin

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154
Q

What is sideroblastric anemia?

A

Makes up a group of disorders characterized by anemia.
Is caused by a defect in mitochondrial heme synthesis.
Altered mitochondrial metabolism causes ineffective iron uptake and results in dysfunctional hemoglobin synthesis.
Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are diagnostic.
Sideroblasts: Erythroblasts contain iron granules that have not been synthesized into hemoglobin.

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155
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of sideroblastic anemia?

A

Iron overload (hemochromatosis)
Enlarged spleen (splenomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly)

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156
Q

Evaluation of sideroblastic anemia

A

Bone marrow examination: Diagnostic
Dimorphism: Normocytic and normochromic cells concomitantly observed with microcytic-hypochromic cells

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157
Q

Reversible sideroblastic anemia associated with

A

alcoholism

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158
Q

Treatment of sideroblastic anemia

A

Identify causative agents (drugs or toxins)
Transfusion
Iron-depletion therapy
Phlebotomy
Prolonged administration of erythropoietin
Hereditary: Pyridoxine (B6) therapy; life-long maintenance therapy at a lowered dose
Congenital: Stem cell transplantation
Myelodysplastic syndrome: Recombinant human erythropoietin

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159
Q

Normocytic-normochromic anemia

A

Are characterized by RBCs that are relatively normal in size and hemoglobin content but insufficient in number.
No common cause, pathologic mechanisms, or morphologic characteristics exist.
Are less frequent than macrocytic-normochromic and microcytic-hypochromic anemias.

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160
Q

Pancytopenia

A

reduction or absence of all three types of blood cells

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161
Q

Pure RBC aplasia

A

only RBCs affected

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162
Q

Faconi anemia

A

rare genetic anemia from defects in DNA repair

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163
Q

Clinical manifestations of aplastic anemia

A

Hypoxemia, pallor (occasionally with a brownish pigmentation of the skin)
Weakness along with fever and dyspnea with rapidly developing signs of hemorrhaging if platelets are affected

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164
Q

Patho of aplastic anemia

A

Hypocellular bone marrow that has been replaced with fat

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165
Q

Evaluation of aplastic anemia

A

bone marrow bx

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166
Q

Tx of aplastic anemia

A

Bone marrow transplantation
Peripheral blood stem cell transplantation
May receive radiation or chemotherapy before procedure
Immunosuppression
Antithymocyte globulin with cyclosporin
Corticosteroidal medications
Identification of high-risk individuals
If not treated or identified, death occurs

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167
Q

Post-hemorrhagic anemia

A

Acute blood loss from the vascular space
Clinical manifestations
Depends on the severity of the blood loss
Treatment
Intravenous administration of saline, dextran, albumin, or plasma
Large volume losses: Fresh whole blood

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168
Q

Clinical manifestations of hemolytic anemia

A

May be asymptomatic
Jaundice (icterus)
Splenomegaly

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169
Q

Evaluation of hemolytic anemia

A

Bone marrow: Abnormally increased numbers of erythrocyte stem cells (erythroid hyperplasia)

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170
Q

Tx of hemolytic anemia

A

Acquired: Removal of the cause or treatment of the underlying disorder
First line: Corticosteroids
Second line: Splenectomy and Rituximab (Rituxan) (monoclonal antibody)
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria: Eculizumab (Solaris)

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171
Q

Pathologic mechanisms of anemia

A

Decreased erythrocyte lifespan
Suppressed production of erythropoietin
Ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin
Altered iron metabolism

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172
Q

Relative polycythemia

A

Is a result of dehydration.
Fluid loss results in relative increases of RBC counts and hemoglobin and hematocrit values.
Resolves with fluid intake.

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173
Q

Polycythemia

A

overproduction of RBCs

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174
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

Deficiency in CD55 and CD59: Cause complement-mediated intravascular lysis and release of hemoglobin
Anemia, hemoglobinuria, severe fatigue, abdominal pain, and thrombosis

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175
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Autoantibodies against antigens normally on the surface of erythrocytes

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176
Q

Drug induced hemolytic anemia

A

Form of immune hemolytic anemia that is usually the result of an allergic reaction against foreign antigens
Called the hapten model
Penicillin, cephalosporins (more than 90%), hydrocortisone

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177
Q

Disease leading to anemia of chronic disease

A

-AIDS
-Malaria
-RA
-Lupus
-Hepatitis
-Renal Failure
-Malignancies

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178
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A

Chronic neoplastic, nonmalignant condition
Overproduction of RBCs (frequently with increased levels of WBCs [leukocytosis] and platelets [thrombocytosis])
Splenomegaly

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179
Q

Patho of Polycythemia vera

A

Is an acquired mutation in Janus kinase 2 (JAK2).
Negates the self-regulatory activity of JAK2 that allows the erythropoietin receptor to be constitutively active, regardless of the level of erythropoietin.
Disease can convert into acute myeloid leukemia.

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180
Q

Polycythemia vera s/s

A

Spleen becomes enlarged, frequently with abdominal pain and discomfort.
As the disease progresses, blood cellularity and viscosity increases.
Intense, painful itching is intensified by heat or exposure to water (aquagenic pruritus

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181
Q

Treatment of polycythemia vera

A

Phlebotomy: Withdrawal of 300 to 500 ml of blood at a time to reduce erythrocytosis and blood volume
Low-dose aspirin
Interferon-α
Hydroxyurea
Radioactive phosphorus

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182
Q

Hereditary Hemochromatosis

A

Common inherited, autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism
Characterized by increased gastrointestinal iron absorption with subsequent tissue iron deposition
Excess iron deposited in the liver, pancreas, heart, joints, and endocrine gland, causing tissue damage

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183
Q

s/s of hereditary hemochromatosis

A

Fatigue, malaise
Abdominal pain, arthralgias, and impotence
Hepatomegaly, abnormal liver enzymes, bronzed skin, diabetes, and cardiomegaly

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184
Q

Treatment of Hereditary hemochromatosis

A

Phlebotomy; refrain from taking iron and vitamin C supplements and consuming raw shellfish; alcohol use in moderation

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185
Q

What are the myeloproliferative RBC disorders?

A
  1. Polycythemia vera
  2. Relative Polycythemia
  3. Hereditary Hemochromatosis (iron overload)
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186
Q

Quantitative disorders of leukocyte function

A

-Increases or decreases in cell numbers
-Bone marrow dysfunction or premature destructionof cells
-Response to infectious microorganism invasion

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187
Q

Qualitative disorders of leukocytes

A

Disruption of leukocyte function
Phagocytic cells (granulocytes, monocytes, macrophages) may lose their phagocytic capacity to function.
Lymphocytes may lose their capacity to respond to antigens.

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188
Q

Leukocytosis

A

-Counts are higher than normal.
-Is a normal protective physiologic response to stressors or to the invasion of microorganisms.
-Can be pathological

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189
Q

Leukopenia

A

Counts are lower than normal.
Is always abnormal.
Low white blood cell (WBC) count predisposes a person to infections.

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190
Q

What is evident in the first stages of infection or inflammation?

A

Granulocytosis (Neutrophilia)
-If the need for neutrophils increases beyond the supply, then immature neutrophils (banded neutrophils) are released into the blood.
-Premature release of immature leukocytes is termed a shift-to-the-left-producing more of precursor cells (bands or stabs)
Leukemoid reaction

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191
Q

Causes of Neutropenia

A

-Prolonged severe infection
-Decreased production
-Reduced survival
-Abnormal neutrophil distribution and sequestration

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192
Q

Congenital Neutropenia

A

Cyclic neutropenia and neutropenia with congenital immunodeficiency diseases
Multiple syndromes

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193
Q

Acquired neutropenia

A

Multiple conditions (hypoplastic anemia, aplastic anemia, leukemias, lymphomas [Hodgkin, non-Hodgkin]; myelodysplastic syndrome)

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194
Q

Secondary Neutropenia

A

Lower count from other disorders (e.g., immune disorders and drugs); toxin, drug or environmental

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195
Q

Causes of Granulocytopenia (Agranulocytosis)

A

-Interference with hematopoiesis
-Immune mechanisms
-Chemotherapy destruction
-Ionizing radiation

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196
Q

Eosinophilia

A

-eosinophil count increased
-hypersensitivty reactions trigger release of eosinophilic chemotactic factor or anaphylaxis from mast cells

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197
Q

Causes of Eosinophilia

A

-allergic disorders
-parasitic invasions

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198
Q

Eosinopenia

A

eosinophil count decreased

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199
Q

Primary cause of eosinopenia

A

-migration of cells to inflammatory sites

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200
Q

Other causes of eosinopenia

A

-Surgery
-Shock
-Trauma
-Burns
-Mental distress

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201
Q

Basophilia

A

-Circulating numbers of basophils increase.
-Occurs in inflammation and hypersensitivity reactions.
-Contain histamine that is released in allergic reactions

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202
Q

BAsopenia

A

-Circulating numbers of basophils decrease.
-Occurs in acute infections, hyperthyroidism, and long-term steroid therapy

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203
Q

Monocytosis

A

-Numbers of circulating monocytes increase.
-Usually occurs with neutropenia in later stages of bacterial infections.
-Found in chronic infection and correlates with extent of myocardial damage.

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204
Q

Monocytopenia

A

-Numbers of circulating monocytes decrease.
-Very little is known about this condition.
causes:
Prednisone treatments
Hairy cell leukemia

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205
Q

Lymphocytosis

A

-Circulating lymphocytes increase.
-Occurs from acute viral infections
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
-Other causes
Leukemia, lymphomas, some chronic infections

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206
Q

Lymphocytopenia

A

Circulating lymphocyte counts decrease.
Occurs from immune deficiencies, drug destruction, viral destruction, radiation, or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

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207
Q

Infectious Mononucleousis

A

Acute, self-limiting viral infection of B lymphocytes
Commonly caused by the EBV—85%
Transmission: Usually by saliva through personal contact (e.g., kissing, hence the term kissing disease)

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208
Q

Clinical manifestations of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Malaise, arthralgia
Classic triad of symptoms:
Fever
Pharyngitis
lymphadenopathy of the cervical lymph nodes

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209
Q

Diagnostic test for infectious mononucleosis

A

Monospot qualitative test for heterophilic antibodies

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210
Q

Treatment of infectious mononucleosis

A

Rest and alleviation of symptoms with analgesics and antipyretics and penicillin or erythromycin-takes about 6 weeks to clear
Ibuprofen, not aspirin, for children and adolescents because of reported incidence of Reye syndrome

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211
Q

Leukemias

A

Are malignant disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs.
Exhibit uncontrolled proliferation of malignant leukocytes.
Overcrowding of bone marrow
Decreased production and function of normal hematopoietic cells
Classification
Predominant cell of origin: Myeloid or lymphoid
Rate of progression: Acute or chronic

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212
Q

Acute leukemia

A

Presence of undifferentiated or immature cells, usually blast cells
Rapid onset with short survival

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213
Q

Chronic Leukemia

A

Predominant cell is mature but does not function normally
Slow progression

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214
Q

Risk Factors of Leukemia

A

-Cigarette smoking, exposure to benzene, and ionizing radiation
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis C, human -T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)
-Drugs that cause bone marrow depression-chemotherapeutic drugs

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215
Q

Pancytopenia

A

reduction in all cellular components of the blood

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216
Q

What is the most common childhood leukemia?

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

greater than 30% lymphoblasts in bone marrow or blood

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217
Q

What is the cause of ALL?

A

Genetic anomaly: Philadelphia chromosome
Reciprocal translocation (portion of one chromosome gets transferred to another chromosome and they swap) results in abnormal chromosome.
Occurs between chromosomes 9 and 22.

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218
Q

Risk factors of ALL

A

Prenatal x-ray exposure
Postnatal exposure to high-dose radiation
Viral infections with HTLV-1: Can cause a rare form of ALL and EBV
Down syndrome

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219
Q

What is the most common adult leukemia?

A

acute Myelogenous leukemia (AML)

mean age, 67 years

Down syndrome increases risk

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220
Q

AML results from

A

-Abnormal proliferation of myeloid precursor cells
-Decreased rate of apoptosis-
-Arrest in cellular differentiation
-Mutation in the receptor tyrosine kinase FLT3

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221
Q

Risk factors of AML

A

Exposure to radiation, benzene, and chemotherapy
Hereditary conditions

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222
Q

Clinical manifestations o Leukemia

A

-Fatigue caused by anemia
-Bleeding resulting from thrombocytopenia (reduced -numbers of circulating platelets)
-Fever caused by infection
-Anorexia, weight loss, diminished sensitivity to sour and sweet tastes, wasting away of muscle, and difficulty swallowing
-Central nervous system (CNS) involvement

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223
Q

Treatment of Leukemia

A

Chemotherapy
Supportive measures
Blood transfusions, antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals
Allopurinol: Prevents the production of uric acid (which is elevated from cellular death because of treatment)-killing of cells can lead to build up of purines leading to increased uric acid
Stem cell transplantation
Bone marrow transplant

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224
Q

Complications of Leukemia

A

Anemia
Treatment: Blood products
Neutropenia
Treatment: Granulocyte colony-stimulated factor (G-CSF) or granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
Low WBC count
Treatment: Colony-stimulating factors to prevent infections

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225
Q

Chronic myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

A

Is usually diagnosed in adults.
Is a myeloproliferative disorder that also includes polycythemia vera, primary thrombocytosis, and idiopathic myelofibrosis.
Philadelphia chromosome is often present and BCR-ABL1 causes initiation of CML

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226
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

A

Affects monoclonal B lymphocytes.
Has a familial tendency.-genetic component
Is common in adults older than 50 years.

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227
Q

Clinical manifestations of CLL

A

Is asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis.
Lymphadenopathy is the most common finding.
Suppresses humoral immunity, and increases infection with encapsulated bacteria.

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228
Q

CML phases

A

Infections, fever, and weight loss
Chronic phase
Lasts 2 to 5 years
Symptoms: May not be apparent
Accelerated phase
Lasts 6 to 18 months
Primary symptoms develop: Splenomegaly-cells get trapped in spleen
Terminal blast phase
“Blast crisis”
Survival: Only 3 to 6 months

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229
Q

Tx of CML

A

Chlorambucil (chemotherapeutic), administered with or without corticosteroids, on a daily or intermittent schedule
Chemotherapy
No cure for CML
Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (e.g. Imatinib (Gleevec))
Combined chemotherapy
Biologic response modifiers
Allogeneic stem cell transplantation-from different genetic lines, not from direct close relative

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230
Q

Lympadenophathy

A

enlarged lymph nodes that become palpable and tender

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231
Q

Local lymphadenopathy

A

Drainage of an inflammatory lesion located near the enlarged node

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232
Q

General Lymphadenopathy

A

Occurs in the presence of malignant or nonmalignant disease

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233
Q

Causes of Lympadenopathy

A

Neoplastic disease
Immunologic or inflammatory conditions
Endocrine disorders
Lipid storage diseases
Unknown causes

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234
Q

Primary lymphoid tissue

A

Thymus
Bone marrow

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235
Q

Secondary Lymphoid Tissue

A

SLIT
Spleen
Lymph nodes
Intestinal Lymphoid tissue
Tonsils

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236
Q

2 categories of malignant lymphomas

A

-Hodgkin Lymphoma–linked to EBV
-non-hodgkin lymphoma

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237
Q

What is necessary for the diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphoma but not specific to Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph nodes

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238
Q

What are Reed Sternberg cells derived from?

A

Are derived from malignant B cells that usually become binucleate.
Release cytokines-signaling substances that signal other immune system cells to proliferate

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239
Q

Clinical manifestations of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

Enlarged painless neck lymph nodes
Lymphadenopathy, causing pressure or obstruction
Mediastinal mass
Fever, weight loss, night sweats, pruritus, fatigue

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240
Q

Tests for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Chest x-rays, lymphangiography, and biopsy (biopsy most indicative of Hodgkin lymphoma)

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241
Q

Tx of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Approximate cure rate: 75%
Combined treatment with radiation therapy and chemotherapy
High-dose chemotherapy with bone marrow or stem cell transplantation
Monoclonal antibodies
Nonmyeloablative allogeneic stem cell transplantation

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242
Q

Clinical manifestations of Non-hodgkin lymphoma

A

Localized or generalized painless lymphadenopathy
Nodal enlargement and transformation over months or years
Retroperitoneal and abdominal masses with symptoms of abdominal fullness and back pain
Ascites (fluid in the peritoneal cavity) and leg swellin

243
Q

Treatment of non-hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Survival: Extended periods but less than the survival rate for Hodgkin lymphoma
Dependent on the type (B cell or T cell), tumor stage, histologic status (low, intermediate, high grade), symptoms, age, and any co-morbidities
Chemotherapy or radiation
Combination of chemotherapy and radiation
Monoclonal antibody: Rituximab
Radioimmunotherapy: Combination of radiation therapy with monoclonal antibody therapy

244
Q

Burkitt Lymphoma

A

Highly aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Very fast-growing tumor of the jaw and facial bones (Africa); rare in the United States
EBV in 90% of cases
Abdominal swelling for people affected in the United States
Biopsy or bone marrow findings
Treatment
Radiotherapy and cyclophosphamide
Adjuvant monoclonal antibody therapy with rituximab

245
Q

Lymphoblastic Lymphoma

A

Is a relatively rare variant of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (2% to 4%).
Accounts for almost one third of cases in children and adolescents with a male predominance.
More than 85% have T-cell origins.
Clones of relatively immature T-cells become malignant in the thymus.

246
Q

First sign of lymphoblastic lymphoma

A

Painless lymphadenopathy in the neck.

247
Q

treatment of lymphoblastic lymphoma

A

Treatment: Combined chemotherapy with multiple drugs.

248
Q

Conditions that mimic lymphomas

A

Tuberculosis (TB)
syphilis
systemic lupus erythematosus
lung cancer
bone cancer
Important distinction

249
Q

Plasma cell malignancies

A

multiple myeloma
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

250
Q

Clinical manifestations of multiple myeloma

A

Hypercalcemia, renal failure
Anemia
Lytic lesions (round, “punched out” regions of bone)
Skeletal pain
Hyperviscosity syndrome
Recurring infections due to loss of the humoral immune response

251
Q

Tx of Multiple myeloma

A

Prognosis poor
Combinations of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and plasmapheresis (exchange) and bone marrow transplantation
High-dose chemotherapy, followed by blood-forming stem cell transplantation
Tandem transplant, or thalidomide, or both (are showing promise)
Bisphosphonates: To reduce skeletal damage
Hydration and diuretics: To maintain a high urine output
Antibiotics: To treat recurring infections

252
Q

What is monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

A

Occurs before multiple myeloma.
Is diagnosed by the presence of an M protein in the blood or urine without additional evidence of multiple myeloma.
Considered nonpathologic and requires no treatment.
Asymptomatic multiple myeloma: Is referred to as smoldering myeloma and indolent myeloma

253
Q

What is Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

A

Is also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma.
Is a rare type of slow-growing plasma cell tumor that secretes a monoclonal immunoglobulin M (IgM) molecule.
Arises from plasma cells that have genetic rearrangement of region genes (V, D, J).

254
Q

Manifestations of Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

A

Weakness and fatigue
bleeding (from gums and nose)
weight loss
bruising

255
Q

Treatment of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

Combined chemotherapy with nucleoside analogs, alkylating agents, and monoclonal antibody (e.g., rituximab).

256
Q

Thombocytopenia

A

Platelet count <100,000/mm3

257
Q

Platelets <50,000/mm3:

A

hemorrhage from minor trauma

258
Q

Platelet count <15,000/mm3:

A

spontaneous bleeding

259
Q

Platelet count <10,000/mm3:

A

severe bleeding that can be fatal

260
Q

Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

A

IgG antibody targets platelet glycoproteins.
Antibody-coated platelets are sequestered and removed from circulation.
Acute form develops after viral infections.
Is one of the most common childhood bleeding disorders.
Chronic form usually is found in adults.

261
Q

Clinical manifestations of ITP

A

Petechiae and purpura, progressing to major hemorrhage

262
Q

Treatment of ITP

A

Palliative, not curative
Prednisone
Romiplostim (Nplate), Eltrombopag (Promacta)
Both stimulate thrombopoietin to increase thrombocytes
Splenectomy
If unsuccessful, immunosuppressive drugs are used

263
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

A

A thrombotic microangiopathy
Platelets aggregate and cause occlusion of arterioles and capillaries.

264
Q

TTP Pathognomonic Pentad

A

Extreme thrombocytopenia
Intravascular hemolytic anemia
Ischemic signs and symptoms most often involving the CNS (approximately 65% exhibit memory disturbances, behavioral irregularities, headaches, or coma)
Kidney failure
Fever

265
Q

Treatment of TTP

A

Untreated acute TTP: Mortality rate of 90%
Prompt treatment of acute TTP: Mortality rate reduced to 10% to 20%
Plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma
Steroids
Splenectomy: Performed if no response to treatment
Immunosuppressive therapy: Azathioprine (Imuran)

266
Q

Thrombocythemia

A

Also called thrombocytosis
Platelet counts: >400,000/mm3
Cause: Accelerated platelet production in the bone marrow
Types: Primary or secondary (reactive)
Causes intravascular clot formation (thrombosis), hemorrhage, or other abnormalities

267
Q

Essential (primary) thrombocythemia (ET)

A

Chronic myeloproliferative disorder
Characterized by excessive platelet production, resulting from a defect in megakaryocyte progenitor cells
Rare hereditary type of ET: Familial essential thrombocythemia (FET)

268
Q

Clinical manifestations of Essential thrombocythemia

A

Chronic myeloproliferative disorder
Characterized by excessive platelet production, resulting from a defect in megakaryocyte progenitor cells
Rare hereditary type of ET: Familial essential thrombocythemia (FET)

269
Q

Clinical manifestations of ET

A

Microvascular thrombosis, erythromyalgia, possible bleeding

270
Q

treatment of ET

A

Interferon, anagrelide (Agrylin), aspirin; prevent clots or bleeding

271
Q

Prolonged bleeding can result from alterations in platelet function:

A

Adhesion between platelets and the vessel wall
Platelet-platelet adhesion
Platelet granule secretion
Arachidonic acid pathway activity
Membrane phospholipid regulation

272
Q

Vitamin K deficiency

A

Necessary for synthesis and regulation of prothrombin, procoagulant factors (VII, IX, X), and proteins C and S (anticoagulants)
Deficiency: Leads to bleeding
Treatment: Parenteral administration of vitamin K

273
Q

Virchow Triad

A

Injury to the blood vessel endothelium: Atherosclerosis, many others
Abnormalities of blood flow
Hypercoagulability of the blood

274
Q

Antiphospholipid snydrome

A

Autoimmune syndromecharacterized by autoantibodies against plasma membrane phospholipids and phospholipid-binding proteins
Treatment: Heparin with aspirin

275
Q

Deficiencies in Protein S and S and AT III contribute to a ________________ state.

A

hypercoagulable

276
Q

Advantages of using specific components instead of whole blood

A
  1. replacement of only the needed component
  2. minimizing the risk of circulatory volume overload
  3. minimizing the risk of allergic reactions to antibodies or antigens in donor plasma
277
Q

When is whole blood recommended?

A

in cases of severe hemorrhage to increase volume and oxygen carrying capacity

278
Q

Whole blood can be converted into specific components

A

-packed erythrocytes
-platelet concentrates
-Fresh frozen plasma
-dried plasma (FDA approved for EUA for military use)
-cryoprecipitated antihemophiliac factor
-Factor IX concentrate
-Fibrin Glue
-Granulocyte concentrates
-Albumin
-Plasma protein fraction
-immune globulin

279
Q

How are packed erythrocytes prepared?

A

by removing most of the plasma from whole blood

280
Q

How much of whole blood is packed erythrocytes?

A

30%

281
Q

Advantage of packed erythrocytes

A

-lower sodium, potassium, ammonia, citrate, and lactate than whole blood, so useful in patients with renal or hepatic impairment

282
Q

Shelf life of erythrocytes can be extended up to______ days in certain buffer/preservative solutions

A

49

283
Q

Can packed erythrocytes be frozen?

A

yes, can be frozen in glycerol (antifreez) for up to 3 years.

Cells must be washed of glycerol prior to use
-frozen storage is expensive so is only appropriate for rarest blood types

284
Q

Primary use of packed erythrocytes

A

to increase oxygen carrying capacity in non-hypovolemic states

285
Q

Packed erythrocytes administered with hypotonic diluents can cause:

A

osmotic lysis

286
Q

What are platelets prepared from?

A

Whole blood

287
Q

How many platelets/unit?

A

5-10 million

288
Q

How are platelets stored?

A

at room temp since refrigeration tends to decrease platelet aggregation ability
-bacterial growth at room temp is a problem so storage limited to 5 days

289
Q

normal thrombocytopenia use requires an average of ________ platelets.

A

40 million platelets (appro equivalent to 6 units of blood)

290
Q

True/false: due to large numbers of leukocytes in concentrate, patients should be given platelets from matching blood group donors (including Rh factors)

A

true

291
Q

How is fresh frozen plasma prepared?

A

from whole blood by separating from RBCs and platelets

292
Q

Which coagulant factors are present in FFP?

A

except for platelets, all other procoagulant factors are present

293
Q

Can FFP be frozen?

A

yes, can be kept up to 12 months in frozen state, once thawed must be used within a few hours

294
Q

How much FFP can be obtained from a unit of whole blood?

A

250mL

295
Q

Which electrolyte is high in FFP?

A

sodium load is high

296
Q

IS matching blood donor of FFP required?

A

use from matching blood donors prefered but not mandatory

Allergic reactions possible

297
Q

What is FFP used for?

A

to treat active bleeding in patients with low coagulation factors
-used in cases of warfarin overdose or surgery in patients taking warfarin
-use in treating hypovolemia not recommended

298
Q

Which blood factor is Cryoprecipitated antihemophiliac factor?

A

blood factor VIII

299
Q

What is cryoprecipitate??

A

precipitated forms when FFP is thawed

300
Q

How soon should cryo be used after thawing

A

within 3 hours

301
Q

What does Cryoprecipitated contain large amounts of?

A

fibrinogen
fibrinogenemia is possible with multiple dosing

302
Q

_____________is resuspended in 9-16ml plasma and stored frozen for up to 1 year.

A

cryoprecipitate

303
Q

What is a possibility when cryo is used in patients with type A, B, or AB blood groups?

A

hemolytic anemia, so use matching type form or type O if hemolytic anemia seen

304
Q

Primary use of cryoprecipitate?

A

treatment of patients with hemophilia A

also given prophylactically prior to surgery or giving birth in patients with congenital fibrinogen deficiency or von willebrands disease that is unresponsive to desmopressin.

305
Q

Desmopressin is a synthetic ADH analog which increases factor ____ activity in hemophiliacs and von willebrand patients.

A

8

306
Q

What is Factor IX concentrate also known as?

A

prothrombin complex

307
Q

How is Factor IX concentrate prepared?

A

prepared from pooled plasma

308
Q

is there a need for blood typing prior to use of Factor IX?

A

no

309
Q

Risk of Factor IX concentrate

A

hepatitis and thrombosis, especially in patients with liver disease

310
Q

Factor IX is stable for _____ hrs after reconstitution

A

12 hours

311
Q

__________is not found in cryoprecipitated antihemophiliac factor.

A

Factor IX concentrate

312
Q

Fibrin Glue

A

-prepared from bovine thrombin and human fibrinogen, which clots when mixed.
-used to seal bleeding suture holes
-allergic reactions reported

313
Q

How do antifibrinolytics work? ex. TXA

A

form a reversible complex with plasminogen and plasmin thus blocking plasminogen from interacting with fibrin and blocking plasmin’s proteolytic activity

314
Q

synthetic antifibrinolytics

A

aminocaproic acid
Tranexamic acid

315
Q

Natural antifibrinolytics

A

aprotinin

316
Q

Granulocyte concentrates

A

-used to treat some infections in patients with low granulocyte concentrations
-fever following administration is common and can be treated by giving antihistamines and antipyretics

317
Q

How is albumin obtained?

A

from human plasma fractions

318
Q

How long can albumin be stored?

A

for 3 yrs

319
Q

How is the risk of viral disease transmission reduced with albumin?

A

heating to 60 C for 10 hrs

320
Q

What is albumin used for?

A

to treat hypoalbuminemia by administering 25% solution (which is hypertonic and causes increased plasma volume by pulling interstitial fluid into vascular system)

321
Q

Plasma protein fraction contains at least _____% albumin and no more than _____% globulins in saline

A

83% albumin
17% globumin

5% protein solution

322
Q

What is equivalent osmotically to plasma?

A

plasma protein faction

323
Q

what is plasma protein fraction used for ?

A

to treat hypovolemic shock and hypoproteinemia

324
Q

Immunoglobulin

A

concentrated solution of globulins (mainly immunogobulins) prepared from human plasma
-used to modify infection progression of several dz (hep A, rubella, varicella)

325
Q

Where is heparin found?

A

mast cell and nerve terminal vesicles

326
Q

Structurally heparin is a ________.

A

glycosaminoglycan

327
Q

What does heparin require for action?

A

co-factor–Antithrombin III

328
Q

What does the heparin complex inhibit?

A

coagulation factors IXa, Xa, XIA, XIIa and thrombin activity

329
Q

How is heparin eliminated and metabolized?

A

50% metabolized and 50% eliminated unchanged in the urine with a t1/2 of 1-2 hours

t1/2 increases dramatically in liver or renal disease

330
Q

Topical hemostatics

A

Substances include:
-absorbable gelatin sponge (Gelfoam)
-absorbable gelatin film (Gelfilm)
-oxidized cellulose (oxycel)
-microfibrillar collagen hemostat (avitene)
-thrmobin powder

331
Q

Blood substitutes

A

-oxygen-carrying volume expanders
-longer shelf-life than most blood products
-no risk of disease transmission or blood-group reactions
-useful in instances of inadequate blood supplies
-do not have coagulation factors, so not much use in bleeding patients
-1/2 lives short so use limited to emergency hypovolemia or shock
-can cause nephrotoxicity, HTN and diminished coag component concentrations

332
Q

Blood substitute agents include:

A

-Hydroxyethyl starch
-dextrans
-perfluorocarbons
-hemoglobin-based substitutes

333
Q

Hydroxyethyl starch

A

-complex polysaccharide
-available in 6% solution for volume expansion
-fairly long half-life (similar to albumin solutions)

334
Q

Side effects of Hydroxyethyl starch

A

-increased serum amylase concentrations and pruruitis

may also cause prolongation of thromboplastin time and decreased factor VII, fibrinogen and von willebrand factor which results in decreased platelet adhesion and decreased clot strength

335
Q

Dextran ______ is a water-soluble glucose polymer.

A

70

336
Q

How is dextran 40 formed?

A

from dextran 70

337
Q

Dextran-40 is removed in _______ and Dextran-70 is converted enzymatically to ________

A

glomerulus
glucose

338
Q

How long do dextrans remain in plasma for?

A

12 hours

339
Q

What are dextrans used for ?

A

plasma fluid volume expansion

340
Q

Side effects of dextrans

A

-allergic rxn (dextran 40<70)
-increased bleeding times due to decreased platelet adhesion

341
Q

What are perfluorocarbons (Fluosol-DA 20)

A

sythetic compounds that act like HGB by binding large amounts of oxygen
-small size travel through narrowed vessels
-removed from market in 1994 but research continues on similar compounds (ie oxygen)

342
Q

Problems with use include:

A

-short shelf life
-temperature instability
-short 1/2 life
-side effects including disruption of pulmonary surfactant mechanisms, allergic reactions

343
Q

Hemoglobin based

A

-effective at carrying oxygen to tissues
-purified Hb cannot be given directly as it caused renal toxicity
-required very specific coatings/encapsulation to avoid toxicity and carry oxygen
-several products in development and clinical trials
-military especially interesting
-currently testing “dried blood” for reconstitution

344
Q

Erythropoiesis begins in the vessels of the _______.

A

yolk sac

345
Q

After ______ weeks gestation, the erythrocytes deliver oxygen.

A

2

346
Q

At _____ weeks gestation, erythrocyte production shifts to the liver sinusoids (peaks at 4 months).

A

8

347
Q

By ______months gestation, erythrocyte production beings in the bone marrow.

A

5

348
Q

At delivery, _________ is the only significant hematopoiesis site.

A

marrow

349
Q

Btwn ______ and ______ months of age: normal adult hgb percentages are established.

A

6-12 months

350
Q

Embryonic hemoglobins

A

Gower 1
Gower 2
Portland

351
Q

Fetal hemoglobin has how many alpha and gamma chains

A

2 alpha chains and 2 gamma chains

352
Q

Full term normal erythrocyte lifespan is ________ days.

A

60-80 days
have many reticulocytes

353
Q

Premature infants erythrocyte lifespan is __________.

A

20-30 days

354
Q

Children and adolescents erythrocyte lifespan =________________days.

A

120 days

355
Q

When does hemotopoiesis increase

A

-during fetal life
-trauma of birth
-cutting of umbilical cord

356
Q

What are all high at birth but start to decline to adult levels.

A

Neutrophils
eosinophils
monocytes

357
Q

Platelet counts in full-term neonates

A

comparable to platelet counts in adults and tend to remain so through infancy and childhood

358
Q

Lymphocyte levels at birth

A

high at birth and continue to rise in some healthy infants during the first year of life then a steady decline occurs throughout childhood and adolescence until adult values reached

359
Q

What is the most common blood disorder in children?

A

anemia

360
Q

Causes of anemia in children

A

-ineffective erythropoiesis
-premature destruction of erythrocytes
-most common cause: iron deficiency

361
Q

Hemolytic anemias

A

-premature destruction caused by intrinsic abnormalities of erythrocytes
-damaging extraerythrocytic factors
-inherited, congenital or both

362
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

-most common blood disorder of infancy and childhood
-stored iron: greatest stores are present 4–8 weeks after birth
-dietary iron-needed after 16-20 weeks of age
-lack of iron intake or blood loss

363
Q

clinical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia in children

A

-irritability
-decreased activity tolerance
-tachycardia
-weakness
-lack of interest in play
-pica
-may affect attention span, alertness and learning

364
Q

treatment of iron deficiency anemia in children

A

iron with vitamin C
cow’s milk restricted

365
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

A

-also: erythroblastosis fetalis
-as hemolysis progresses the fetus becomes anemic, as a result, erythropoiesis and immature nucleated cells (erythroblasts) are released into the blood stream
-maternal blood and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible
-maternal antibody is directed against fetal antigents
-between 20-25% ABO incompatible; less than 10% are Rh incompatible but is more severe

366
Q

what is an alloimmune disease?

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn/erythroblastosis fetalis

367
Q

Clinical manifestations of HDN

A

-anemia
-hyperbilirubinemia
-icterus neonatorum (neonatal jaundice)
kernicterus: bilirubin deposited in the brain and can cause death

368
Q

Test for HDN

A

Coombs

369
Q

Treatment of HDN

A

-prevention: Rh immune globulin (rhoGam)
-if not treated, phototherapy, exchange transfusion

370
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

-inherited x-linked, recessive disorder
-G6PD: enzyme helps erythrocytes maintain metabolic processes, despite injurious conditions
-deficiency shortens RBC lifespan

371
Q

s/s of G6PD

A

asymptomatic unless stressor are present
-icterus neonatorum
-acute hemolytic anemia-pallor, icterus, dark urine, back pain
-between hemlytic episodes: no anemia; erythrocyte survival is normal

372
Q

What happens without G6PD?

A

oxidative stressors damage hgb and the plasma membranes of erythrocytes (Heinz bodies-denatured hgb particles in erythrocytes)

373
Q

Treatment of G6PD

A

preventon: high-risk group tested
for hemolysis: blood transfusions and oral iron therapy
spontaneous recovery: generally follows tx

374
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis also called?

A

-congenital hemolytic anemia
-congenital acholuric jaundice

375
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

-autosomal dominant trait
-most common of hemolytic disorders in which no hgb abnormality exists
-abn of proteins or spectrins of the erythrocyte membrane leading to an increased concentration of intracellular sodium

376
Q

Clinical manifestations of hereditary spherocytosis

A

anemia
jaundice
splenomegaly

377
Q

treatment of hereditary spherocytosis

A

-daily folic acid supplementation to increase the production of healthy RBC
-may need partial splenectomy

378
Q

Sickle cell disease

A

-characterized by the precence of an abnormal hemoglobin (Hb S)
-autosomal recessive
-mutation causes valine to be replaced by glutamic acid
-deoxygenation and dehydration: RBC solidify and stretch into an elongated sickle shape
-sickle cell trait: child inherits Hb S from one parent and normal Hb A from other; heterozygous carrier rarely has symptoms

379
Q

Polymerization

A

sickled erythrocyte stiffens, changing from a flexible beneficial cell to an inflexible one that starves and damages tissues

380
Q

Aplastic crisis

A

transient cessation in RBC production occurs as a result of viral infection

381
Q

Sequestration crisis

A

large amounts of blood pool in the liver and spleen

382
Q

hyperhemolytic crisis

A

rate of RBC destruction is accelerated

383
Q

Acute chest syndrome

A

sickled RBC attach to the endothelium of the injured, underventilated and inflamed lung and fail to be reoxygenated

384
Q

Sickle Cell Hb C disease

A

usually milder than sickle cell anemia

385
Q

Clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease

A

infection: most common cause of death
-glomerular disease-the inability of the tubules of the kidneys to concentrate urine, bed wetting, proteinuria
-gallstones or cholecystitis

386
Q

Treatment of sickle cell disease

A

prevention of crises: avoid fever, infection, acidosis, dehydration, constricting clothes, exposure to cold
-immediate correction of acidosis and dehydration with appropriate IVF
-routine childhood immunizations
-infections: aggressive abx
-oxygen: not needed unless individual is hypoxic
-management of pain
-genetic counseling and psychologic support

387
Q

Thalassemias

A

-autosomal recessive disorders
-slowed or defective synthesis of globin chains of hgb molecule: alpha or beta
-major: homozygous inheritance
-minor: heterozygous inheritance

388
Q

alpha thalassemia

A

alpha chains affected

389
Q

Beta thalassemia

A

beta chains affected

390
Q

Beta-thalassemia major

A

cooley anemia
can be fatal

391
Q

Alpha-thalassemia minor

A

2 genes

392
Q

Alpha thalassemia major

A

4 genes; fatal

393
Q

hemoglobin H disease

A

3 genes

394
Q

Beta thalassemia minor

A

mild- to moderate hypochromic microcytic anemia, mild splenomegaly
bronze coloring of skin
hyperplasia of bone marrow
usually asymptomatic

395
Q

Beta thalassemia major

A

severe anemia
resulting in large CV burden

396
Q

Alpha trait s/s

A

symptom free
having mild microcytosis at most

397
Q

s/s alpha thalassemia minor

A

virtually idential to those of beta thalassemia minor

398
Q

alpha thalassemia major

A

hydrops fetalis-edema of fetus or infant involving multiple compartments
-fulminant intrauterine congestive heart failure-fetus has a grossly enlarged heart and liver
-dx usually made post mortem

399
Q

treatment for thalassemia major

A

-genetic counseling
-blood transfusions
-iron chelation therapy
-splenectomy
-bone marrow, cord blood and stem cell transplantation-currently only cure

400
Q

Hemophilia A

A

-classic hemophilia
-factor VIII deficiency
-X-linked

401
Q

Hemophilia B

A

-christmas disease
-factor IX deficiency

402
Q

Hemophilia C

A

Factor XI deficiency

403
Q

von Willebrand disease:

A

autosomal dominant trait of factor VIII deficiency

404
Q

two primary defects of hemophilias

A

point mutation
gene deletion

405
Q

Clinical manifestations of hemophilias

A

-hematoma formations
-persistent bleeding from relatively minor traumatic lacerations

406
Q

Tests of hemophilias

A

Phase III: thrombin time
Phase II: prothrombin time
Phase i: activated partial thromboplastin time, prothrombin consumption time, thromboplastin generation test (most sensitive)

407
Q

Treatment of hemophilias

A

-recombinant factor VIII
-recombinant antihemolytic factor plasma; albumin free method: for hemophilia A

408
Q

Congenital hypercoagulability and thrombosis

A

-thrombophilia
-defecting in clotting factors
-protein C deficiency
-neonatal purpura fulminans: fatal
-protein S deficiency
-antithrombin III (ATIII) deficiency

409
Q

treatment of congenital hypercoagulability and thrombosis

A

anticoagulants, especially heparin and recplacement of deficient factor

410
Q

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

-autoimmune or primary thrombocytopenic purpura
-antiplatelet antibodies bind to platelet plasma membranes, causing platelet sequestration and destruction
-occurs after a viral infection

411
Q

Clinical manifestations of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

-bruising
-gen petechial rash
-asymmetrical bleeding

412
Q

treatment of ITP

A

fresh blood or platelet transfusion and corticosteroids
-75% completely recover within 3 months, even without tx

413
Q

Autoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia

A

-immunologic destruction of platelets by antibodies (IgG)

414
Q

Autoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia purpura

A

maternal immunization against fetal paternally derived platelet specific antigens

415
Q

Autoimmune vascular purpura

A

-allergic purpura
-antibody mediated injury of blood vessel walls, typically arterioles and capillaries

416
Q

Leukemia

A

-most common malignancy of childhood
-acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) 75-80% of all leukemias in children
-unclear cuase-genetic susceptibility, environmental factors, viral infections

417
Q

Clinical manifestations of leukemia

A

-pallor
-fatigue
-petechiae
-purpura
-bleeding
-fever( hypermetabolism and infections)
-bone pain

418
Q

Treatment of leukemia

A

-combo chemo
-radiation
-induction of remission; preventitive therapy for CNS; intensification (consolidation) ; mainenance

419
Q

Non-hodgkin lymphoma

A

-implicated factors: defective host immunity, viral agent, chronic immunostimulation and genetic predisposition
-nodular and diffuse
-abdomen or chest
-tx: chemo
-prognosis: favorable with a 70-80% cure rate

420
Q

hydroureter

A

dilation of the ureters

421
Q

hydronephrosis

A

dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces

422
Q

ureterohydronephrosis

A

dilation of both the ureters and renal pelvis and calyces

423
Q

tubulointerstitial fibrosis

A

deposition of excessive amounts of extracellular matrix

424
Q

What is post obstructive diuresis caused by?

A

relief of the obstruction
-may cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance

425
Q

Risk factors for kidney stones

A

-male
-most develop before 50 years of age
-inadequate fluid intake: most prevalent
-geographic location: temperature, humidity, rain fall, fluid, and dietary patterns

426
Q

composition of kidney stones

A

composition of mineral salts
-calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate: 70-80%
-struvite (magnesium, ammonium, phosphate): 15%
-uric acid: 7%

427
Q

Staghorn calculi

A

-large and fill the minor and major calyces

428
Q

Genetic disorders of amino acid metabolism

A

excess in urine can cause cystinuric and xanthine, stone formation in the presence of low urine pH

429
Q

Kidney stone formation

A

supersaturation of one or more salts
-presence of a salt in a higher concentration than the volume is able to dissolve in the salt
precipitation of a salt form a liquid to a solid state
-temperature and pH
growth into a stone via crystallization or aggregation
-process by which crystals grow from a small nidus or nucleus to larger stones
-embedded in the matrix

430
Q

What increases the risk of calcium phosphate stone formation?

A

alkaline urinary ph

431
Q

What increases the risk of a uric acid stone?

A

acidic urine

432
Q

What prevents stone formation?

A

-potassium citrate
-pyrophosphate
-magnesium

calcium and phosphate and oxalate types

433
Q

Clinical manifestation of kidney stones

A

renal colic (pain)

434
Q

treatment of kidney stones

A

-parental and/or analgesics for acute pain
-medical therapy that promotes stone passage (alpha–antagonists or calcium channel blockers)
-high fluid intake
-alteration in urine pH
-removal of stones using percutaneous nephrolithotomy, uteroscopy, or ultrasonic or laser lithotripsy to fragment stones for excretion

435
Q

Neurogenic bladder

A

bladder dysfunction caused by neurologic disorders that interrupt innervation

436
Q

Neurogenic bladder affecting upper motor neurons

A

-dyssynergia: overactive or hyperreflexive bladder function
-detrusor hyperreflexia: uninhibited or reflex bladder
-detrusor hyperreflexia with vesicosphincter (detrusor sphinctor) dyssynergia: both the bladder and sphincter are contracting at the same time, causing a functional obstruction of the bladder outlet

437
Q

Neurogenic bladder affecting lower motor neurons

A

detrusor areflexia: underactive, hypotonic, or atonic bladder

438
Q

Causes of lower urinary tract obstruction

A

-prostate enlargement
-urethral stricture
-severe pelvic organ prolapse
-low bladder wall compliance

439
Q

clinical manifestations of lower urinary tract obstruction

A

-frequent daytime voiding: more often than every 2 hours while awake
-nocturia: night-time voiding
-urgency: often combined with hesitancy
-dysuria
-poor force of stream; intermittency of urinary stream
-feelings of incomplete bladder emptying despite micturition

440
Q

if determining poor detrusor contraction strength versus obstruction the following are needed:

A

-multichannel urodynamic testing
-video-urodynamic recordings
-functional imaging studies and serum creatinine
-electromyography

441
Q

treatment of lower urinary tract obstruction

A

-detrusor sphincter dyssynergia
-alpha adrenergic blocking and/or antimuscarinic medications or botulinum toxin
- intermittent catheterization in combo with higher dose antimuscarinic drugs
-condom catheter containment, supplemented by an alpha adrenergic blocking drug or transurethral sphincterotomy (surgical incision of the striated sphincter)

-obstruction
-medication
-bladder neck incision

442
Q

treatment of prostate enlargement

A

-caused by acute inflammation, benign prostatic hyperplasia, or prostate cancer
-medication (flomax)
-surgery

443
Q

treatment of low bladder wall compliance

A

-antimuscarinic drugs and intermittent catheterization
-severe cases: augmentation enterocystoplasty (englargement of bladder wall causing detubularized piece of small bowel), urinary diversion or long-term indwelling catheterization

444
Q

tx of urethral stricture

A

urethral dilation with a steel instrument shaped similar to a catheter (urethral sound) or a series of incrementally increasing catheter like tubes (filiforms and followers)
-long, dense strictures, typically requiring surgical urethroplasty

445
Q

Tx of prolapse

A

pressary: rubber or silicone device designed to compensate for vaginal wall prolapse
-intravaginally hormone replacement therapy and regular follow-up
-sx

446
Q

Overactive bladder syndrome

A

-chronic syndrome of detrusor overactivity
-symptom syndrome of urgency, with or without urge incontinence; usually associated with frequency and nocturia

447
Q

treatment of overactive bladder syndrome

A

-lifestyle modifications
-behavioral modifications
-pharmacotherapy (antimuscarinic agents, botulinum toxin)

448
Q

Are renal adenomas benign?

A

yes

449
Q

most common renal tumor

A

renal cell carcinoma

450
Q

What is caused by mutrations of the von-Hippel Lindau gene located on chromosome 3p

A

renal cell carcinoma

451
Q

clinical manifestations of renal cell carcinoma

A

-hematuria
-dull and aching flank pain

452
Q

tx of renal cell carcinoma

A

-localized: surgical removal of affected kidney (radical nephrectomy) or partial nephron sparing nephrectomy for smaller tumors
-surgery, chemo, radiation

453
Q

most common bladder tumor

A

urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma

454
Q

risk factors for urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma

A

-smoking
-exposure to metabolites of aniline dyes or other aromatic amines or chemicals
-highly arsenic in drinking water
-heavy consumption of phenacetin

455
Q

pyelonephritis

A

inflammation of upper urinary tract

456
Q

pyelonephritis

A

bladder inflammation

457
Q

Protective urinary mechanisms of UTI

A

-washed out of urethra during micturition
-low pH and high osmalality of urine
-presence of Tamm-Horsfall protein
-secretions from the uroepithelium: bactericidal effect
-uterovesical junction: closes to prevent reflux of urine to the ureters and kidneys
-women: mucous secretion glands
-men: length of male urethra
-lewis blood group

458
Q

Most common pathogens of UTI

A

-escherichia coli
-staphylococcus saprophyiticus

459
Q

Acute pyelonephritis

A

acute infection of the ureter, renal pelvis and/or renal parenchyma

460
Q

clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis

A

-flank pain
-fever, chill;
-costovertebral tenderness
-purulent urine

461
Q

treatment of pyelonephritis

A

abx

462
Q

chronic pyelonephritis

A

-persistent or recurrent infections of the kidneys leading to scarring of the kidneys
-inflammation and fibrosis, located in the intersitial spaces between tubules leading to chronic kidney failure.

Tx : abx

463
Q

Glomerulopathies

A

disorders that directly affect the glomerulus
-sig cause of chronic kidney disease and end stage renal failure worldwide

464
Q

Patho of acute glomerulonephritis

A

-formation of immune complexes (antigen/antibody) in the circulation with subsequent deposition in glomerulus
-antibodies produced against the organism that cross-react with the glomerular endothelial cells
-activation of complement
-recruitment and activation of immune cell and mediators
-decreased GFR as a result of inflammation
glomerular sclerosis (scarring)
-thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, but increased permeability of proteins and RBCs

465
Q

What is the most common form of acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Berger disease (immunoglobulin A, IgA) nephropathy

466
Q

Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)

A

-binding of abnormal IgA to mesangial cells in the glomerulus, resulting in injury and mesangial proliferation
-autoimmune?

467
Q

Most common cause of Bergers disease

A

membraneous nephropathy
-complement mediated gloumerular injury with increased glomerular permeability and glomerulosclerosis

468
Q

crescentic glomerulonephritis

A

-rapidly progressive
-injury that results in the proliferation of glomerular capillary endothelial cells with rapid loss of renal function

469
Q

mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

immune complex in the mesangium with mesangial cell proliferation

470
Q

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

involves mesangial cell proliferation, complement deposition and crescent formation

471
Q

Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis

A

-hematuria with RBC
-smoky, brown-tinged urine
-proteinuria exceeding 2-5g/day with albumin
-low serum albumin
-edema
-severe or progressive glomerular disease: eventual oliguria
oliguria: UOP <30ml/hr or <400ml/day

472
Q

nephrotic sediment clinical manifestations

A

Contains massive amounts of protein and lipids and either a microscopic amount of blood or no blood.

473
Q
A
474
Q

Nephritic sediment clinical manifestations

A

Blood is present in the urine with red cell casts, white cell casts, and varying degrees of protein, which is not usually severe.

475
Q

tx of acute glomerulonephritis

A

Antibiotics
Corticosteroids
Cytotoxic agents
Anticoagulants

476
Q

Diabetic nephropathy

A

Podocyte injury, progressive thickening and fibrosis of the glomerular basement membrane, and expansion of the mesangial matrix

477
Q

lupus nephritis

A

Inflammatory complication of the chronic autoimmune syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus
Formation of autoantibodies against double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and nucleosomes with glomerular deposition of the immune complexes

478
Q

chronic glomerulonephritis

A

-glomerular diseases with a progressive course, leading to chronic kidney failure
-Diabetic nephropathy
-lupus nephritis

479
Q

Clinical manifestations of chronic glomerulonephritis

A

-proteinuria
-hypercholesterolemia

480
Q

treatment of chronic glomerulonepritis

A

-dialysis
transplantation

481
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

Excretion of 3.0g or more of protein in urine
protein excretion as a result of glomerular injury

482
Q

tx of nephrotic syndrome

A

Normal-protein (1 g/kg body weight/day) and low-fat diet, salt restriction, diuretics, immunosuppression, and heparinoids
Immunosuppressive drugs and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors used when steroid-resistant

483
Q

Nephritic syndrome

A

Hematuria (usually microscopic) and red blood cell casts are present in the urine in addition to proteinuria, which is not severe.

484
Q

Advanced stages of nephritic syndrome

A

-HTN
-uremia
-oliguria

485
Q

cause of nephritic syndrome

A

Caused by increased permeability of the glomerular filtration membrane
Pore sizes enlarge.
Red blood cells and protein pass through.

486
Q

Renal insufficiency

A

decline of renal function to approx 25% of normal

487
Q

renal failure

A

significant loss of renal function (less than 15% of normal function)

488
Q

end stage renal failure

A

less than 10% of renal function remains

489
Q

uremia

A

Syndrome of renal failure
Elevated blood urea and creatinine levels
Fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, pruritus, and neurologic changes
Retention of toxic wastes, deficiency states, electrolyte disorders, and proinflammatory state

490
Q

Azotemia

A

Increased serum urea levels and frequently increased creatinine levels
Renal insufficiency or renal failure, causing azotemia
Both azotemia and uremia: Accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the blood

491
Q

Acute kidney injury

A

Sudden decline in kidney function with a decrease in glomerular filtration and accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the blood
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen

492
Q

classification of acute kidney injury

A

RIFLE: Risk; Injury; Failure; Loss; End-stage disease
Criteria to guide the diagnosis of renal injury

493
Q

prerenal acute kidney injury

A

renal hypoperfusion
most common cause

494
Q

infrarenal acute kidney injury

A

-disorders involving the renal parenchymal or interstitial tissue
–acute tubular necrosis (ATN) caused by ischemia
-most common cause

495
Q

post renal acute kidney injury

A

rare
disorders associated with acute urinary tract obstruction

496
Q

Oliguria

A

Less than 400 ml of urine output per day
Alterations in renal blood flow
Efferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
Impaired autoregulation

497
Q

oliguria processes-tubular obstruction

A

-necrosis of tubules causes sloughing of cells, cast formation or ischemia edema, which results in obstruction

498
Q

Backleak

A

-GFR remains normal, but tubular reabsorption or a “leak” of filtrate is accelerated from permeability

499
Q

initiation phase of AKI

A

Reduced perfusion or toxicity, during which renal injury is evolving.
Usually lasts 24 to 36 hours.
Prevention of injury is possible.

500
Q

Maintainance or oliguric phase of AKI

A

Period of established renal injury and dysfunction after the initiating event has been resolved.
May last from weeks to months.
Urine output is lowest, and serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and serum potassium increase, metabolic acidosis develops, and salt and water overload occurs.

501
Q

Recovery phase of AKI

A

Renal injury is repaired, and normal renal function is reestablished.
GFR returns toward normal, but the regenerating tubules cannot concentrate the filtrate.
Diuresis is common, with a decline in serum creatinine and urea and an increase in creatinine clearance.
Polyuria can result in excessive loss of sodium, potassium, and water.

502
Q

treatment of AKI

A

Correct fluid and electrolyte disturbances.
Manage blood pressure.
Prevent and treat infections.
Maintain nutrition.
Remember certain drugs can be toxic.

503
Q

tx of kyperkalemia

A

Hyperkalemia
Restrict dietary sources of potassium.
Use non–potassium-sparing diuretic agents, or use cation-ion exchange resins.
Administer glucose and insulin or sodium bicarbonate to drive potassium into the cells.
Administer calcium.
May need dialysis.

504
Q

Tx of azotemia

A

-adopt a low-protein, high- carb diet

505
Q

chronic kidney disease

A

Progressive loss of renal function associated with systemic diseases
Kidney damage: GFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 for 3 months or more, irrespective of cause
Clinical manifestations: Do not occur until renal function declines to less than 25% of normal

506
Q

theory of CKD

A

Intact nephron hypothesis
Loss of nephron mass with progressive kidney damage causes the surviving nephrons to sustain normal kidney function.

507
Q

Factors that advance CKD

A

Proteinuria
Contributes to tubulointerstitial injury by promoting inflammation and progressive fibrosis.
Angiotensin II
Promotes glomerular hypertension, and participates in tubulointerstitial fibrosis and scarring.

508
Q

actors that contribute to progression of disease

A

Glomerular hypertension
Hyperfiltration
Tubulointerstitial inflammation
Fibrosis

509
Q

Clinical manifestations of CKD

A

Affects every body system
Uremic syndrome
Proinflammatory state with the accumulation of urea and other nitrogenous compounds
Toxins
Alterations in fluid and electrolyte and acid-base balance

510
Q

Additional clinical manifestations of CKD

A

Calcium, phosphate, and bone
Decreased calcium, causing renal osteodystrophies
Hyperphosphatemia
Acid-base balance
Metabolic acidosis: Common
Protein, carbohydrates, and fats metabolism
Negative nitrogen balance, serum protein decreases
Glucose intolerance
High ratio of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) to high-density lipoprotein (HDL); high triglycerides
increased serum creatinine and urea levels
Cardiovascular system
Cardiovascular disease: Major cause of morbidity and mortality; dyslipidemia
Anemia: Lack of erythropoietin
Hypertension: Volume overload
Pulmonary system
Dyspnea and Kussmaul respirations
Hematologic alterations
Normochromic normocytic anemia
Impaired platelet function (bleeding) and hypercoagulability

511
Q

GI clinical manifestations of CKD

A

Gastrointestinal system
Uremic gastroenteritis: Bleeding ulcer and significant blood loss
Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or diarrhea
Uremic fetor: Bad breath caused by the breakdown of urea by salivary enzymes
Malnutrition: Common

512
Q

Endocrine and reproductive S/S of CKD

A

Decrease in circulating sex steroids
Decreased libido
Insulin resistance
Low thyroid hormone levels

513
Q

Integumentary system s/s of CKD

A

Anemia: Pallor
Bleeding: Hematomas and ecchymosis
Retained urochromes: Sallow skin color
Hyperparathyroidism and uremic skin residues, known as uremic frost: Irritation and pruritus with scratching, excoriation, and increased risk for infection

514
Q

Tx of CKD

A

Management of protein intake
Supplemental Vitamin D
Maintenance of sodium and fluid
Restriction of potassium
Maintenance of adequate caloric intake
Management of dyslipidemia
Erythropoietin as needed
ACE inhibitors or receptor blockers: Control systemic hypertension and provide renoprotection, particularly in the presence of diabetes mellitus
Dialysis
Renal transplantation

515
Q

2 main classes of diuretics used in the management of chronic HTN

A
  1. thiazides
  2. potassium sparing drugs
516
Q

Thiazide diuretics (i,e, hydrochlorothiazide) MOA

A

-cause inhibition of NaCl transport in the distal convoluted tubule
-due to inhibition of Na-Cl transport system increase sodium and chloride excretion
-by increasing sodium load in the distal renal tubule, they indirectly increase potassium excretion via the sodium/K exchange mechanism

517
Q

Amiloride and Triamterene

A

block sodium channels in the luminal membrane in the late distal tubule and collecting duct.
Such action inhibits the normal movement of Na+ into the cell.
Since K+ secretion in the late distal tubule and collecting duct are driven by the electrochemical gradient generated by Na+ reabsorption, K+ (and H+) transport into the urine is reduced.
By reducing the net negative luminal charge, amiloride/triamterene administration help conserve potassium. Therefore, they are called “potassium sparing”.

518
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors

A

Not used much now
Weak diuresis compared to others.
Used more in glaucoma to decrease aqueous humor production.
Main agent is Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Acts in proximal tubule to decrease the conversion of bicarbonate in the tubular fluid to CO2 + H2O, thus blocking reabsorption of bicarbonate, with the concomitant increase in tubular ion load and water loss.

519
Q

Major side effects of thiazide diuretics

A

hypokalemia
metabolic alkalosis (secondary to hypokalemia)
electrolyte imbalances
hyperglycemia (due to hypokalemic reduction of insulin secretion)
hyperuricemia due to inhibition of uric acid secretion in the proximal tubule, which can lead to attacks of gout.

520
Q

high ceiling diuretics

A

Useful for both left and right ventricular failure.
Care must be exercised to avoid excessive diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances.
Hypokalemia is especially problematic, since many patients are also taking the digitalis glycosides, and this can lead to an increased risk of digitalis toxicity.
Torsemide may cause less potassium loss than other loop diuretics.

521
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

A

newer class of drugs
competitive inhibitors of AT1 receptor
effects similar to ACE inhibitors, decreasing AT1-mediated vasoconstriction and fluid retention
ACE inhibitors also inhibit some bradykinin metabolism, and this may play a role in SE’s of ACE inhibitors.
Also, some angiotensin II produced by non-ACE mechanisms
approved for use as antihypertensives, but have been used in CHF

522
Q

adverse effects of loop diuretics

A

Ototoxicity
Furosemide (Lasix) and ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) block renal excretion of uric acid by competition with renal secretory and biliary secretory systems. Therefore these agents can precipitate gout.
Potassium depletion.

523
Q

loop diuretics

A

“High-ceiling” loop diuretics acting primarily at the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
The effectiveness of these agents is related to their site of action because reabsorption of about 30 - 40% of the filtered sodium and chloride load occurs at the ascending loop.
Distal sites are not able to compensate completely for this magnitude of reduction of NaCl reabsorption.
Loop diuretics increase urinary Ca++ in contrast to the action of thiazides.
Loop diuretics also increase renal blood flow by decreasing renal vascular resistance.
These drugs are rarely used in the management of hypertension because of their short duration of action and the availability of better drugs

524
Q

Main causes of PUD

A

-an increase in “attack” factors i.e. in colonization by helobacter pylori or increase acid and pepsin secretions-causing erosion, especially in duodenal ulcer
-a decrease in “defense” factors i.e. in resistance to acid- peptic attack

525
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

-much higher than twice normal twice normal due to increased gastrin release

526
Q

2 basic approaches to PUD therapy

A
  1. to decrease the acidity and/or peptic activity of gastric secretions by:
    -blocking secretion of acid/or pepsin (Decrease attack strength)
    -neutralization of HCl or inactivation of pepsin
    -eradicating H. pylori
  2. to enhance the resistance of the mucosa or to protect the base of the ulcer from actions of the acid and pepsin
527
Q

Proton pump inhibitors

A

Omeprazole (Prilosec, Zegerid [w/ NaHCO3]) – available OTC
Lansoprazole (Prevacid) – available OTC
Dexlansoprazole (Dexilant)
Rabeprazole (Aciphex)
Esomeprazole (Nexium) – available OTC, (Nexium I.V.)
Pantoprazole (Protonix and Protonix I.V.)

528
Q

H2 antihistamines

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet)
Ranitidine (Zantac)
Famotidine (Pepcid)
Nizatidine (Axid)

529
Q

Antacids

A

Mg(OH)2
Al(OH)3
CaCO3
NaHCO3,

530
Q

antimuscarinics to treat stomach acidity

A

Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
Dicyclomine (Bentyl)
Methscopolamine
Propantheline Bromide

531
Q

ABX used to treat H. pylori infection

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Tetracycline
Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
Amoxicillin (Multiple brands and Generic)

532
Q

Antidepressants used to treat stomach acidity

A

tricyclics

533
Q

Proton pump inhibitors

A

-proton pump involves an H+/K+ ATPase
-energy from the hydrolysis of ATP drives H+ into the parietal cell, from which H+ diffuses into the lumen of the stomach
-the ATPase appears to be unique and is not known to be in other cells; this may explain why selective inhibitors of the pump are essentially devoid of pharmacological side-effects
-because of the irreversible inhibition of the enzyme, profound inhibition of gastric acid secretion (95-100%) occurs that lasts several days
-increased risk of exposure of bacterial cells that get into food stuff

534
Q

Omeprazole

A

prototype inhibitor is a substituted benzimidazole prodrug that is activated at acid pH to a sulfenamide that binds to and irreversible inhibits the H/K ATPase
-it takes approx 5 days to synthesize new enzyme and insert it into the membrane.
-concern that such prolonged complete suppression may lead to GI bacterial overgrowth and subsequent colonization of the respiratory tract
-also, high prolonged doses of omeprazole have been reported to cause GI tumors in rats

535
Q

What is a reversible inhibitor of the pump and gastric acid suppression is not as prolonged not as big concern of bacterial overgrowth risk?

A

lansoprazole
not good for long term tx of ulcers

536
Q

Which drugs depend on acidic pH for their absorption and may significantly be decreased with PPIs?

A

Ketoconazole
Iron salts
Digoxin
Ampicillin

require low pH to be well absorbed

doses should be spaced

537
Q

Side effects of PPIs

A

-headache
-diarrhea
-abdominal pain

-recent discovery that these agents increase risk of heart attacks and bone fractures

538
Q

PPI may inhibit metabolism of other drugs

A

-phenytoin
warfarin
diazepam

539
Q

H2 antihistamines has pronounced effects on both acid and pepsin secretion elicited by:

A

-histamine
-gastrin
-caffeine
-food
-insulin
-vagus stimulation

thus consistent with major role of histamine in acid secretion

540
Q

Pepsin secretion is ________in proportion to the decrease in volume of acid secreted.

A

decreased

541
Q

do H2 antihistamines directly effect gastrin secretion?

A

no

542
Q

do H2 antihistamines have a direct effect on GI motility and lower esophageal sphincter pressure?

A

no

543
Q

H2 antihistamines are most effective when taken when?

A

bedtime

544
Q

Which drugs decrease B12 absorption and then slow food absorption because of lack of acid?

A

H2 antihistamines

545
Q

Basal (fasting) and nocturnal acid secretion are potently inhibited by which drugs

A

H2 antihistamines

546
Q

When do peak blood levels occur in H2 antihistamines

A

1-2 hours

547
Q

With H2 antihistamiens, they heal duodenal ulcers usually within ____ weeks, usually somewhat longer for gastric ulcers

A

4-8

548
Q

A significant fraction of gastrin-induced secretion appears to be resistant to blockade by _________ in some patients.

A

H2 anithistamines

549
Q

OTC indications for H2 antihistamines

A

-acid indigestion
-sour stomach
-heartburn

550
Q

what is the prototype drug for H2 antihistamines

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet)

551
Q

ulcer coating to increase defense (ulcer coating)

A

-sucralfate (Carafate)
-bismuth compounds (pepto-bismol)
-Gaviscon

552
Q

Sucralfate (Carafate) structure

A

-complex of sulfated sucrose and aluminum hydroxide used in treatment of duodenal ulcers for up to 8 weeks and for maintenance therapy of duodenal ulcers

553
Q

Action of sucralfate

A

-local effect to selectively bind to free protein in the base of ulcer craters
-forms a complex which protects from acid, pepsin and bile salts (acids)
-absorbs acid and pepsin
-gel strongly adheres to ulcers for 6 hours
-may stimulate local production of prostaglandin E
-may directly absorb bile salts
-poorly absorbed systemically and is activated by acid (do not use within 30 minutes of antacids)

554
Q

SE of sucralfate

A

-metallic taste
-nausea
-constipationSuc

555
Q

sucralfate may bind some drugs:

A

-H2 blocker
-fluoroquinolones
-phenytoin
-quinidine
-tetracycline
-theophylline
-these drugs should be given 2 hours before sucralfate

556
Q

Bismuth compounds

A

-appear to selectively bind to ulcers providing coating and protectiong from acid and pepsin
-other mech include stimulating mucus production or increasing prostaglandin synthesis
-contraversial as to whether it has some antimicrobial effects

557
Q

Pepto is commonly used for eradicating H pylori when used in combo with:

A

tetracycline
metronidazole

558
Q

Gaviscon

A

antacid that contains alginate which foams and floats on surface of gastric contents
protects the mucosa and impairs gastric reflux so is more useful in treating GERD

559
Q

Misoprostol (cytotec)

A

-prostaglandin E1 analog that binds to EP receptors resulting in increased mucus and bicarb production and decreased acid production
-approved only for ulcer patient who cannot discontinue NSAID use

560
Q

Antacids

A

-substances that neutralize Hydrogen ion
-some may provide mucosal protection and may possibly bind injurious substances
-weak bases that react with acid to form salt and water thus neutralizing acid
-action is to increase pH of gastric content to 3.5-4.5 which pepsin activity is diminished,
-these agents consist of metal salts such as aluminum hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide or trisilicate, calcium carbonate, sodium bicarbonate
-number of mEq of HcL that can be brought to pH 3.5 in 15 min is the acid neutralizing capacity

561
Q

Antacid use

A

commonly used for dyspepsia and are used as adjuncts to other treatment for PUD
-do not provide good control of nocturnal secretion
-not used extensively for PUD due to high frequency dosing required

562
Q

Magnesium hydroxide

A

high neutralizing capacity but can cause diarrhea and hypermagnesemia (in patient with renal insufficiency)
-forms insolbule salts that act as cathartics and attract fluid into GIT

563
Q

Aluminum hydroxide

A

high neutralizing capacity but can cause constipation and absorb some drugs and decrease bioavailablilty
-can also cause hypophosphatemia

564
Q

calcium carbonate

A

moderate neutralizing capacity but if taken in large amounts can cause transient hypercalcemia and rebound acid secretion
-liberation of CO2 can lead to abdominal distension, nausea, flatulence and belching with acid reflux
-large doses can cause milk-alkali syndrome and nephrolithiasis

565
Q

sodium bicarbonate

A

high neutralizing capacity but should not be used chronically in ulcer patients because of systemic effects-systemic alkalosis, fluid retention etc
-also liberates CO@
-acid rebound is high despite good neutralizing capacity

566
Q

Triple therapy for the eradication of H. pylori

A

(LAC) Lansoprazole, Amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 10-14 days

(BMT) bismuth subsalicyclate, metronidazole, and tetracycline for 14 days

(OAC) Omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 10 days

567
Q

LES tone can be decreased by:

A

-smoking
-alcohol
-caffiene
-mint
-chocolate

568
Q

_________ decrease LES tone and should never be used for reflux esophagitis.

A

anticholinergics

569
Q

Which drugs also decrease LES tone:

A

-theophylline
-progesterone
-nitrates
-CCB

570
Q

Motilin receptors

A

-stimulate GI peristalsis and pepsin secretion
-erythromycin stimulates motilin receptors and may in part explain the diarrhea commonly seen with erythromycin and its analogs

571
Q

Metoclopramide (reglan)

A

-thought to be 5Ht3 antagonist and has potent antiemetic effect
-may also act as Dopamine (D2) antagonist
-may also have cholinomimetic effect-it sensitizes intestinal smooth muscle to ach and increases LES tone. These effects result in increased gastric emptying and so can control diabetic
-crosses BBB and can cause significant extrapyramidal symptoms

572
Q

SE of metoclopramide

A

-extrapyramidal symptoms and depression
-hyperprolactinemia
-nervousness
-dystonia
-abd cramping
-anticholinergic SE

573
Q

Domperidone (Motilium) (non-us)

A

-D2 antagonist used to treat gastric hypomotility in diabetics
-actions similar to those of reglan but does not cross BBB so no anticholinergic effects and better tolerated
-both prokinetic and antiemetic properties
-used to stimulate lactation

574
Q

N/V believes to be triggered by what

A

release of serotonin from enterochromaffin cells of SI which then activates 5HT3 receptors on vagal afferents, triggering the vomiting reflex

575
Q

Ondansetron (Zofran)

A

-can be administered orally or IV and can prevent emesis due to cisplatin or radiation
-oral bioavailability of 60% with effective blood levels appearing 30-60 min after administration
-metabolized by liver with plasma half =life of 3– 4 hours
-total daily dose of 32 mg
-mild SE: headache, constipation, dizziness

576
Q

Which 5HT3 antagonist is only approved for last chance in women with irritable bowel with severe potential gI SE

A

alosetron (Lotronex)

577
Q

Herbal Antiemetics

A

-ginger
-peppermint
-Ajwain (spice in india)

578
Q

Arepitant (Emend)

A

NK-1 receptor antagonist
-effective against chemotherapeutic induced N/V

579
Q

Fosaprepitant

A

-IV ester form for NK-1 antagonist that is converted to active form in plasma

580
Q

Rolapitant (Varubi)

A

NK-1 receptor antagonist
-good for delayed N/V (2-5 days) after chemotherapy dose
-avoid with Thioridizine (potent antimuscarinic) irregular heartbeat risk

581
Q

substance P

A

-undecapeptide is one of several compounds classified as tachykinins which are agonists at NK1 receptors

582
Q

NK-1 Receptor

A

-one of several tachykinin receptors in body
-G-protein coupled receptor complexes

583
Q

Antiemetic effects of Benzodiazepines

A

-efficancy derives from sedative, anxiolytic and amnesic properties
especially lorazepam and alprazolam can enhance effectiveness of antiemetic regimens

584
Q

lower GI beeding

A

Below the ligament of Treitz, or bleeding from the jejunum, ileum, colon, or rectum

585
Q

Achalasia

A

Denervation of smooth muscle in the esophageal sphincter and lower esophageal leading to decreased muscle wall and sphincter relaxation

586
Q

manifestations of GERD

A

Heartburn, regurgitation of chyme, and upper abdominal pain within 1 hour of eating

586
Q

upper GI bleed

A

stomach, esophagus, duodenum

587
Q

hiatal hernia

A

Sliding hiatal hernia – stomach usually only protrudes into chest cavity on swallowing
Paraesophageal hiatal hernia – stomach bulge protrudes into chest cavity beside esophagus

588
Q

pyloric obstruction

A

The blocking or narrowing of the opening between the stomach and the duodenum
Can be acquired or congenital

589
Q

S/s of pyloric obstruction

A

Epigastric pain and fullness
nausea
succussion splash (sloshing sound in abdomen after expected emptying)
vomiting, and with a prolonged obstruction, malnutrition, dehydration, and extreme debilitation

590
Q

intestinal obstruction vs. ileus

A

An intestinal obstruction is any condition that prevents the flow of chyme through the intestinal lumen or failure of normal intestinal motility in the absence of an obstructing lesion
An ileus is an obstruction of the intestines

591
Q

s/s of intestinal obstruction/ileus

A

Colicky pain, vomiting, distention, hypovolemia, metabolic acidosis

592
Q

simple obstruction

A

lesion or minor blockadge

593
Q

functional obstruction

A

loss of function or paralysis commonly seen after surgery, opioids

594
Q

small intestinal obstruction

A

pain in cramps and spasms with short (minutes) duration

595
Q

large intestinal obstruction

A

widespread lower abdominal pain, spasms last longer

596
Q

gastritis

A

inflammatory disorder of gastric mucosa

597
Q

Acute Gastritis

A

H.Pylori, NSAIDS

598
Q

chronic gastritis

A

Chronic fundal (fundus-upper region)gastritis
Less common but more severe, gastric mucosa degenerates from body to fundus
Decreases HCl and intrinsic factor leading to pernicious anemia
May be autoimmune, also seen in other autoimmune disorders such as diabetes and Addison’s disease
Chronic antral gastritis
Much less severe and can be caused by alcohol, NSAIDS, H. pylori, less severe in antrum baecause of heavier protection in antrum
Signs and symptoms of chronic gastritis often do not correlate with the severity of the disease

599
Q

curling’s ulcers

A

Ulcers that develop as a result of a burn injury

600
Q

cushing’s ulcers

A

Ulcers that develop due to increased intracranial pressure which stimulates vagal nerve and triggers increased gastric acid secretion

601
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

Rapid emptying of chyme from surgically created residual stomach into small intestine
A clinical complication of partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty surgery

602
Q

Developmental factors of dumping syndrome

A

Loss of gastric capacity, loss of emptying control, and loss of feedback control by the duodenum when it is removed

603
Q

late dumping syndrome

A

Less common, occurs 1-3 hours after eating
Due to hypoglycemia secondary to high-carb meal and large insulin secretion
Symptoms include weakness, confusion, sweating

604
Q

Marasmus

A

Protein energy malnutrition seen in absolute food deprivation
Results in dry skin, elimination of fat deposits, irritable behavior

605
Q
A