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Critical Care > Exam #2 > Flashcards

Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are some assessments for oxygenation?

A

ABG, Pulse Ox, work of breathing, skin color, secretions, auscultation

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2
Q

what is the O2 range for NC?

A

1-6

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3
Q

what is the FiO2 for NC?

A

24-44%

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4
Q

what is the O2 range for Face mask?

A

5-8

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5
Q

what is the FiO2 for facemask?

A

40-60

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6
Q

what is the O2 range for the venturi mask?

A

4-11

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7
Q

what is the FiO2 for the venturi mask?

A

24-50%

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8
Q

what is the O2 range for partial rebreather?

A

8-11

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9
Q

what is the FiO2 range for the partial rebreather

A

50-75%

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10
Q

what is the O2 range for a non rebreather?

A

10-15

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11
Q

what is the FiO2 range for a non rebreather?

A

80-95%

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12
Q

what is the O2 range for HFNC?

A

30-60

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13
Q

what is the FiO2 for a HFNC?

A

100%

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14
Q

what type of pressure is provided with CPAP and BPAP?

A

positive pressure

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15
Q

what flow of pressure does Bipap have?

A

in and out

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16
Q

why would someone need to be intubated?

A

swelling of airway, cant clear secretions, seizures, surgery, tired for work of breathing, 50/50 rule

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17
Q

what supplies are needed for intubatin?

A

et tube, stylet, lubricant, mac/miller blade, larnygoscospe, syringe, flushes, bougjie, CO2 detector

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18
Q

what happens to the CO2 detector if you have the ET tube in the right spot?

A

the color will change

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19
Q

what lab should be run before intubation?

A

potassium

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20
Q

what do you do while waiting on the patient to be intubated?

A

ambu bag at 100% FiO2

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21
Q

do you sedate or paralyze your patient first?

A

sedate

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22
Q

where should the ET tube be placed?

A

into the trachea 2 cm above the carina

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23
Q

right after intubation what assessment should you do?

A

auscultate the breath sounds x2

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24
Q

what imaging should be done after intubation?

A

x ray

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25
Q

what lab should be done after intubation?

A

abg

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26
Q

what is pantoprazole used for?

A

stomach ulcer prevention

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27
Q

what is propofol used for?

A

anesthetic used for sedation

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28
Q

is propofol fast or long acting?

A

fast

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29
Q

is propofol titratable?

A

yes

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30
Q

what are side effects of propofol?

A

hypotension, brady cardia, resp depression, hyperlipidemia, elevated triglycerides

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31
Q

what is midazolam used for?

A

sedative

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32
Q

is midazolam short or long acting????

A
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33
Q

is midazolam titratable?

A

yes

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34
Q

what are side effects of midazolam?

A

hypotension, bradycardia, resp depression

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35
Q

what is dexmedetomidine?

A

fast acting sedative

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36
Q

what is special about dexmedetomidine?

A

it has minimal resp effects

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37
Q

what are side effects of dexmedetomidine

A

bradycardia and hypotension

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38
Q

what is vecuronium?

A

fast acting paralytic

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39
Q

why is vecuronium used?

A

it is used to paralyze the patient decreasing any extra oxygen use

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40
Q

what should be done for the patient when giving paralytics?

A

breath for the patient with ambu

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41
Q

what is the main side effect to worry about when giving paralytics?

A

apnea

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42
Q

is vec tirtrable ?????

A
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43
Q

what is succinylcholine?

A

fast acting paralytic that is used for intubation

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44
Q

what is the way to give succinylcholine?

A

iv push

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45
Q

what side effect should you watch for when giving succinylcholine

A

apnea and hyperkalemia

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46
Q

how much will succinylcholine raise K

A

by a point

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47
Q

what are signs of hyperkalemia?

A

chest pain, palpitations, N/v, abdominal pain, weakness, sob

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48
Q

what does the rate setting on vent control?

A

controls how many respirations in a minute

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49
Q

what does tidal volume on vent control?

A

volume of air per breath

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50
Q

what is the range for tidal volume?

A

500-600 ml

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51
Q

what is the FiO2 setting on vent control?

A

the percent of o2 in the air the patient is getting

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52
Q

what is PEEP on the vent control?

A

positive pressure that is the alveoli on expiration

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53
Q

what is the purpose of PEEP?

A

to prevent the lung from collapsing

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54
Q

what is pressure support?

A

constant pressure that is on the long throughout the breat

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55
Q

what is the assist control setting on vent?

A

this setting allows the patient to determine the rate of breath but delivers a steady tidal volume

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56
Q

what happens if patient doesnt initiate breaths on AC

A

the vent breaths for them

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57
Q

are there set rate and tidal volume with AC?

A

yes

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58
Q

is there a set rate and tidal volume with SIMV?

A

yes

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59
Q

what is simv vent setting?

A

typically a weaning mode where the patient can control the rate and tidal volume

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60
Q

what mode on the vent is pressure support used?

A

simv

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61
Q

why is pressure support only used on simv

A

??????????????

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62
Q

what is the goal o2 sat for vent patient?

A

at least 94%

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63
Q

how do you perform a breathing trial?

A

turn down patients sedation??????????????????

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64
Q

what lab is constantly drawn on vent patients?

A

ABG

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65
Q

when should extubation be considered?

A

when FiO2 is on low setting and ABGs are godo

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66
Q

what is the max amount of time you should suction vent patietn?

A

10-15 seconds

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67
Q

what oral care should be done for vent patien?

A

brushing teeth, mouth swabs,

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68
Q

what is VAP?

A

vent associated pneumonia

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69
Q

what are symptoms of VAP?

A

fever, chills, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, SOB, orthopnea, poor appetite, bloody sputum

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70
Q

if a gastric tube has to be placed what type is preffered?

A

OG tube

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71
Q

what should HOB be at for vent patient?

A

30 degrees

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72
Q

what should be check frequently on ET?

A

placement, position, and cuff pressure

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73
Q

how often should you reposistion et tub?

A

q 12

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74
Q

what should you with tube feedings when laying patient down?

A

pause

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75
Q

what are complications of intubation?

A

hypotension, fluid retention, barotrauma, tension pnuemo, volutruama, self extubation

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76
Q

what should be done if your patient self extubates?

A

ambu until md crna arives

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77
Q

why does intubation cause hypotension?

A

it reduces cardiac output

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78
Q

how do you extubate??? need to know?/??

A
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79
Q

what can cause ARDS?

A

Aspiration, pneumonia, covid, sepsis, burns, trauma, shock

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80
Q
A
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80
Q

what is occurring inside the lung during ARDS?

A

alveolar membrane is injured, more fluid, and less surfactant

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81
Q

what are symptoms of ARDS?

A

hypoxia, stiff lungs, pulmonary edema, infiltrates on x ray

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82
Q

how do you diagnose ARDS?

A

chest x ray, Pa O2 consistnetly low despite being on 100% FiO2, lungs might sound okay initally,

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83
Q

what lab is drawn to differentitate between CHF and ARDS

A

BNP

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84
Q

what does it mean if BNP is above 100?

A

most likely HF

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85
Q

what are vent settings for ARDS?

A

intubation, low tidal volume and high peep, prone, monitoring for fluid overload

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86
Q

what is a tracheostomy?

A

a hole is placed into the neck

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87
Q

what are indications for trach?

A

long term intubation, efficient suction, less or no sedation, less stress on larnyx/vocal cords, and easier to wean ff

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88
Q

what should be done before the trach procedure?

A

hold anticoags a shift before, NPO at midnight, prepare the room

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89
Q

what should be done post op for freshly intubated trach patient?

A

chest x ray, listen, assess site

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90
Q

what is the next step after taking trach patient off vent?

A

trach collar

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91
Q

is CO2 acidic or alkaline?

A

acidic

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92
Q

if CO2 increases what happens to pH

A

it goes down

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93
Q

if HCO3 increases what happens to pH

A

it goes up

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94
Q

is resp acid/alk a quick fix or long term fix?

A

quick

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95
Q

what do your lungs do if your pH is too low?

A

increased RR to blow off the acidic CO2

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96
Q

what do your lungs do if your pH is too high?

A

decreased RR to retain CO2

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97
Q

how long does metabolic acid/alk take to correct?

A

24 to 48 hours

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98
Q

how do your kidney control pH?

A

excreting or retaining hydrogen and bicarb

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99
Q

what do your kidneys do in metabolic acidosis?

A

excrete hydrogen and retain bicarb

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100
Q

what do your kidneys do in metabolic alkalosis?

A

retain hydrogen and excrete bicarb

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101
Q

on the test if ABG comes back odd what do you never do?

A

REDRAW

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102
Q

what can cause resp acidosis?

A

hypoventilation, COPD, Pneumonia, Obstruction, OD, Pulmonary edema,

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103
Q

what are symptoms of metabolic acidosis

A

headache, confusion, tired, tachypnea, N/v, decreased bp, and cold/clammy skin

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104
Q

what can cause metabolic acidosis?

A

ketoacidosis and lactic acidosis

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105
Q

what can cause lactic acidosis?

A

shock, kidney failure, aspirin, hypotension, diarrhea

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106
Q

what can cause metabolic alkalosis?

A

stomach acid loss, vomit, abusing diuretics, antacids

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107
Q

what can cause resp alkalosis?

A

hyperventilation, fever, hypoxia, aspirin tox,

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108
Q

what is the range for pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45

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109
Q

what is the range for Co2?

A

35-45

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110
Q

what is the range for HCO3?

A

22-26

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111
Q

what is the range for PaO2?

A

80-100

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112
Q

what is a uncomped abg?

A

abnormal ABG that

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113
Q

what is a partially comped abg?

A

abnormal abg where the body is attempting to return balance by adjusting other values

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114
Q

what is a comped abg?

A

pH is normal range but other values are not normal

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115
Q

what does the SA node do?

A

the natural pace maker of the heart that send electrical signals to the atria of the heart

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116
Q

what is the natural HR for the SA node?

A

60 -100

117
Q

where is the SA node found?

A

near the right atrium

118
Q

where does the AV node get electrical signal from?

A

the SA node

119
Q

what does the AV node do?

A

slows down the electrical impulse to allow the ventricles time to fill before contraction

120
Q

what is the intrinsic rate of the AV node?

A

40=60

121
Q

what is the intrinsic rate of atrial tissue?

A

60-100

122
Q

what is the intrinsic rate of ventricular tissue?

A

20-40 HR

123
Q

what is depolarization?

A

the contraction of the heart muscle

124
Q

what is repolarization?

A

recharging of the heart muscle

125
Q

what are P waves?

A

this is when the atria are depolarizing/contracting

126
Q

when a good P wave is present what node is firing appropriately?

A

SA

127
Q

what is the PR interval?

A

the time it takes to go from the SA node to AV node

128
Q

when looking at the EKG where is the PR interval?

A

starts the the end of the P wave and ends at the beginning of QRS

129
Q

what is the QRS complex?

A

ventricular depolarization/contraction

130
Q

what is the ST segment?

A

the time between depolarization and repolarization

131
Q

when looking at the EKG what does the ST segment start and end?

A

starts at the end of the QRS complex and ends at the beginning of the T wave

132
Q

what is the QT interval?

A

the times it takes for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize

133
Q

when looking at the EKG what does the QT interval look like

A

starts at the beginning of QRS and ends at the end of the T wave

134
Q

what meds can cause a prolonged QT?

A

zofran, levoflaxacin, fluoxetine, sertraline, haloperidol, H2s, BETA Blocker?????

135
Q

what can pronlonged QT lead to?

A

torsades V tach

136
Q

how long is each ekg strip on the exam?

A

6 seconds

137
Q

what are the characteristics of a sinus rhythm?

A

xxx

138
Q

what are the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm?

A

P wave, QRS, T wave, 60-100 HR, and regular

139
Q

what are characteristics of sinus bradycardia?

A

P wave, QRS, T wave, HR less than 60 , and regular

140
Q

what are characteristics of sinus tachycardia?

A

P wave, QRS, T wave, HR greater than 60 , and regular

141
Q

what are the symptoms of sinus brady?

A

sob, dyspnea, hypotension, LOC change

142
Q

what can cause sinus brady?

A

athlete, old age, SA node issues, Meds, increased ICP, MI

143
Q

what are non pharm interventions for sinus brady?

A

stimulation

144
Q

when should you do interventions for sinus brady?

A

only do interventions if the patient is symptomatic

145
Q

what interventions should you do for sinus brady?

A

First atropine, Epi, Dopamine

146
Q

what should be done with the sinus brady patient if they cant be treated with meds

A

External pacer

147
Q

what prevents atropine from working?

A

av blocks

148
Q

what causes sinus tach?

A

fever, dehydration, hypoxia, hypotension, caffeine, drugs,

149
Q

what are then treatments for sinus tach?

A

fever you give antipyretics, anxiety calm them down, dehydration fluids, BB or CCB

150
Q

what are symptoms of sinus tach?

A

xx

151
Q

what is atrial fibrillation?

A

this occurs when the atria of the heart are contracting randomly

152
Q

what does atrial fibrillation look like on ekg?

A

no P wave, no t wave, QRS present, irregular

153
Q

what is controlled a fib?

A

less than 100bpm

154
Q

what is uncontrolled a fib?

A

over 100 bpm

155
Q

how do you know if the a fib is controlled or uncontrolled on the exam?

A

the strips are 6 seconds so you multiply by 10 to determine the HR

156
Q

what causes a fib?

A

hypertension, stress, sleep apnea, stimulant use, smokers, alcohol

157
Q

what are symptoms of a fib?

A

tachycardia, palpitations, dizzy, fatigue, SOB, weak, decreased CO

158
Q

what are a fib patients at risk for developing?

A

stroke from blood clots

159
Q

what are the medications that help with the dysrhythmias for afib?

A

amiodarone, CCB/Diltiazem, Digoxin

160
Q

what meds to afib patients take to prevent clots

A

Heparin, warfarin, enoxaparin

161
Q

what long term anticoag do afib patients take?

A

warfarin

162
Q

what labs are monitored with heparin?

A

PTT

163
Q

what labs are monitored for patients taking Warfarin?

A

PT and INR

164
Q

where do you administer enoxaparin?

A

within one inch of the umbilicus

165
Q

what type of shock therapy may a afib patient get?

A

cardioversion

166
Q

what must you know med wise about cardioversion?

A

must be off anticaogs for 24-48 hours due to the risk of dislodging clot

167
Q

what operation might be performed on a afib patient?

A

ablation to remove heart muscle causing a fib

168
Q

what happens in the body during V tach?

A

the ventricles are constantly contracting without time to fill

169
Q

what does v tach look like on the EKG?

A

No p wave, no t wave, QRS present, regular

170
Q

what is the HR like in v tach?

A

over 100 typically above 160

171
Q

what is the criteria for v tach?

A

3 or more pvc and HR greater than 100

172
Q

what is sustained v tach?

A

lasting longer than 30 seconds

173
Q

what is unsustained v tach?

A

less than 30 seconds

174
Q

what can cause V tach?

A

MI, K levels being high or low, Blunt chest trauma, Ischemia

175
Q

when your patient is in v tach what is the first thing that you check?

A

pulse

176
Q

what are the symptoms of v tach?

A

tachycardia
Palpitations
Dizzy
Fatigue
Sob
weakness

177
Q

what is the pharm and non pharm treatment for v tach in a patient with a pulse?

A

Medication and getting the stim vagus nerve

178
Q

what medications do v tach patients get?

A

amiodarone and lidocaine

179
Q

how do you get a patient to stimulate vagus nerve?

A

bear down like a bm, blow into straw, scare them

180
Q

what is the treatment for v tach without a pulse?

A

meds, cpr, defib

181
Q

when doing cpr how mang compressions per minute?

A

100-120

182
Q

when doing cpr how often do you deliver a breath?

A

6 seconds

183
Q

what is v fib?

A

this happens when the ventricles are getting unsynchronized electricity causing there to be no contraction

184
Q

what does V fib look like on ekg?

A

No p wave, no t wave, no

185
Q

what is the treatment for v fib?

A

cpr and defibrillate

186
Q

what does asystole look like on ekg?

A

a flat line

187
Q

what is the treatment for asystole?

A

cpr

188
Q

do you shock asystole right away?

A

no

189
Q

when do you shock aystole?

A

the moment there is electrical signal on ekg

190
Q

what type of beat do you shock in asystole?

A

agonal beat

191
Q

what is the treatment for aystole?

A

CPR

192
Q

what causes aystole?

A

Hypovolemia, hypoxia, hydrogen from acidosis, hypothermia, Hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, Toxins like drugs/poisons, Cardiac tamponade, tension pneumo, thrombosis

193
Q

what is cardiac tamponade?

A

occurs when there is bleeding the pericardium

194
Q

what is tension pneumo?

A

this occurs when air is trapped inside the pleural space causing deviated trachea

195
Q

what are symptoms of cardiac tamponade?

A

hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds
pulses paradoxes…when there is a drop of 10mmhg of blood pressue on inspiration

196
Q

f

A
197
Q

what is the treatment for aystole?

A

epi and cpr

198
Q

are pvc always bad?

A

no but can be sign of v tach

199
Q

what rhythms are indicating MI?

A

xx

200
Q

what is coronary artery disease?

A

this occurs when plaque builds up in the arteries of the heart

201
Q

what are risk factors for CAD?

A

obese, smoking, alcohol, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, genetics, metabolic syndrome

202
Q

how do you prevent CAD?

A

quit smoking, lower fat diet, monitor cholesterol, exercise, manage BP, manage diabetes

203
Q

what are symptoms of metabolic syndrome?

A

elevated fasting glucose, enlarged waist, high triglycerides, low HDL, hypertension

204
Q

what can chronic angina lead to?

A

necrosis of the heart and MI

205
Q

what is stable angina?

A

predictable chest pain usually caused by exertion that is relieved by rest

206
Q

how long does stable angina last?

A

less than 15 minutes

207
Q

what is the treatment for stable angina?

A

nitroglycerin

208
Q

at what point do you get help for angna

A

after you take your 3rd nitro

209
Q

what is unstable angina?

A

chest pain that is unpredictable

210
Q

what are interventions when angina patient comes to the ER?

A

ekg, nitroglycerin, IV, obtain cardiac labs

211
Q

will angina cause elevated cardiac labs?

A

no

212
Q

what is myocardial infarction

A

blockage of the coronary artery

213
Q

what is the bloods reaction to an MI?

A

the inflammatory response is triggered causing platelets to attract at the blockage site

214
Q

if patients chest pain is releived by nitro are they good to go?

A

not always because nitro can relax GI

215
Q

what are the symptoms of MI?

A

dull crushing chest pain, increased BP, low BP, crackles, SOB, Tachypnea, dyspnea, N/v, anxiety, weak, cool, clammy, diaphoresis, grey, decreased o2, impending doom, decreased urinary output

216
Q

where can you feel pain in MI?

A

Left arm, neck, jaw, back

217
Q

what are possible rhythms when having an MI?

A

PVC, ST elevated, Upside down t, normal sinus rhythm

218
Q

what labs are you looking at for potential MI patient?

A

WBC, Potassium, BUN, Creatinine, PTT, INR, PT, creatine kinase, troponin, creatine kinase myocardial bands, urinary output

219
Q

what happens to wbc during MI?

A

elevated wbc

220
Q

what happens to K during MI?

A

usually elevated due to it being released from dead tissue

221
Q

why is PT,PTT and INR checked during MI?

A

need to know base line before giving medications

222
Q

what happens to Creatine kinase during MI?

A

elevated

223
Q

what can cause elevated creatine kinase?

A

MI or rhabdo

224
Q

what happens to troponin during MI?

A

elevated

225
Q

what happens to Creatine kinase myocardial bands during MI?

A

elevated

226
Q

what can cause elevated creatine kinase myocardial bands?

A

MI and fast HR

227
Q

what happens to urinary out put during MI?

A

decreases because of low perfusion

228
Q

what do you give patient if their BUN/creatine levels are high before heart cath?

A

acetylcysteine to protect their kidney

229
Q

what is are non pharmecutical interventions for MI?

A

Assessment, history, previous stroke/mi, IV bilateraly, 12 lead ekg, 5 lead ekg, q15 vitals

230
Q

what meds are given to MI patients?

A

Clopidorgrel, Heparin, Enoxaparin, Ace inhibitors, Oxygen, Morphine, Beta blockers, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin, Statins, Alteplase, Tenecteplase, abciximab, tirofiban, epitfibatide

231
Q

what are the thienopyridine meds?

A

clopidogrel

232
Q

what do thienopyridine meds do?

A

prevent clotting

233
Q

what are the RASS medications?

A

ace inhibitors

234
Q

what is the ending for ace inhibitors?

A

pril

235
Q

why are ace inhibitors given to MI patients?

A

prevents ventricular remodeling from forming scar tissue on the heart

236
Q

why is morphine given to MI patietn?

A

vasodilator, pain reducer, and anxiety

237
Q

why are betablockers given to MI patients?

A

to decrease workload of the heart and decrease oxygen demand

238
Q

what patietns take statin meds?

A

CAD with high cholesterol

239
Q

why do MI patients take aspirin?

A

to thin blood

240
Q

what meds are salicylates?

A

aspirin

241
Q

what are the thrombolytics used during MI?

A

alteplase, Tenecteplase

242
Q

what should you watch out for when giving thrombolytics?

A

Another MI and arrythmias due to muscle being perfused again

243
Q

what do 2b/3a inhibitors do?

A

they coat platelets and prevent them from clotting together

244
Q

what are the 2b/3a inhibitors?

A

abciximab, tirofiban, eptifibatide

245
Q

do patients take aspirin if they are taking heparin?

A

yes

246
Q

what meds should you reconcile with patient before cabg?

A

blood thinners, metformin, and garlic

247
Q

what is cabg?

A

a procedure where they bypass a clogged artery of the heart

248
Q

how quick should patient be ambulating after cabg?

A

3-4 hours

249
Q

what are the interventions for MI?

A

percutaneous cardiac intervention or CABG

250
Q

what is a PIC?

A

they go in through artery or vein to find clot suck it up and place metal mesh to hold open occluded area

251
Q

what posistion should patient be in post pic

A

flat for 4-6 hours

252
Q

when will you pull sheath from PIC?

A

when dr says its good and when clotting labs are in a good range

253
Q

how do you pull sheath?

A

give atropine, pain meds, 2 people present, hold pressure for 45 minutes for artery, and 1 hour 15 for combo

254
Q

what should you watch for after pulling sheath?

A

pain, bleeding, hematoma, absent pedal pulses, chest pain, stroke,

255
Q

what med is given after stent?

A

diuretics

256
Q

what meds are given post CABG

A

pain meds, stool softener, protonix, heparin,

257
Q

what labs are monitored post CABG

A

K, Mag, wbc

258
Q

what diet to post CABG patients need?

A

high cal high protein

259
Q

what are complications post CABG?

A

bleeding, BP issues, tamponade, excessive drainage, dysrhythmias

260
Q

what is considered excessive drainage?

A

more than 150ml per hour

261
Q

what are symptoms of left sided HF?

A

nocturnal dyspnea, crackles, wheezes, orthopnea, dyspnea, fatigue, weak, palpitations, oliguria, decreased peripheral pulses

262
Q

what are symptoms of right sided HF?

A

JVD distention, edema, weight gain, anorexic, ascites, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

263
Q

what are surgical interventions for HF?

A

impella, lvad, transplant

264
Q

what are nursing interventions for HF?

A

posistioning, rest, daily weights, oxygen, education on lifestyle changes

265
Q

what nutritional ed for HF?

A

low sodium, limit fluids, avoid large meals

266
Q

what meds are used to treat HF?

A

Digoxin, Nitroglycerin, morphine, diuretics, ace inhibitors, dobutamine, betablockers, entresto

267
Q

what should be done before giving a patient nitroglycerin?

A

iv needs to be in place incase you drop BP too much

268
Q

what do diuretics do for HF patient?

A

reduce pre and afterload

269
Q

what does dobutamine do for HF?

A

improves CO without raising heart effort

270
Q

what does entresto do?

A

increases the loss of sodium

271
Q

what is in entresto?

A

Sacubitril/valsartan

272
Q

what should be monitored when taking entresto?

A

Hypotension, dizzy, K level, kidney function

273
Q

what should be monitored in digoxin patients?

A

K level and digoxin levels

274
Q

what are symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A

confusion, irregular pulse, N/v, diarrhea, fast heartbeat, vision changes with lights

275
Q

what is a therapeutic range for digoxin?

A

0.8 to 2.0

276
Q

what is done for digoxin toxicity?

A

charcoal or gastric lavage

277
Q

what is pulmonary edema?

A

fluid around the lung that impairs gas exchange

278
Q

what are symptoms of pulmonary edema?

A

pink frothy sputum, crackles, dyspnea, confusion, tachycardia, hypertension, hypotension, PVC, anxiety, restless

279
Q

what are non pharm intervention for pulmonary edema

A

elevated HOB, tripod, rest, high flow o2,

280
Q

what are pharm intervention for pulmonary edema?

A

diuretics, nitro, morphine, dobutamine

281
Q

what meds should avoid dark leafy greens?

A

Warfarin

282
Q

what is the antidote for warfarin?

A

vitamin k

283
Q

what is the antidote for heparin?

A

protamine sulfate

284
Q

what is the antidote for enoxaparin?

A

protamine sulfate

285
Q

what are side effects of diuretics?

A

ototoxic, hypokalemia, and hypotension

286
Q

what are some major side effects of ace inhibitors?

A

dry cough, confusion and angioedema, trouble swallowing

287
Q

what are symptoms of respiratory acidosis?

A

hypoventilation, hypotension, headache, cyanotic, drowsiness, hyperkalemia, dysrhythmias

288
Q

what are symptoms of respiratory alkalosis?

A

hypotension, hypokalemia, hyperventilation, tachycardia, confusion, seizures

289
Q

what are symptoms of metabolic alkalosis?

A

hypoventilation, dysrhythmias, restless, confusion, N/v

Critical Care (3 decks)

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