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Microbiology GHC > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of a macronutrient?
A. a trace element
B. a vitamin
C. an organic molecule necessary for life
D. the most abundant elements found in living cells

A

D. the most abundant elements found in living cells

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2
Q

Amino groups are an important component of which of the following macromolecules?
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. nucleic acids
D. proteins

A

D. proteins

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3
Q

The building blocks of polymers are called which of the following?
A. inorganic molecules
B. macromolecules
C. monomers
D. nucleic acids

A

C. monomers

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4
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four major types of carbon-based macromolecules
found in cells?
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. macronutrients
D. nucleic acids

A

C. macronutrients

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5
Q

Which of the following is the typical, stable shape of glucose in cells?
A. a branched chain
B. a double ring
C. a ring
D. a tetrahedron

A

C. a ring

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6
Q

In which form do plants generally store sugar molecules?
A. cellulose
B. chitin
C. glycogen
D. starch

A

D. starch

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7
Q

Which term specifically describes fatty acids that do not have any double bonds, triple bonds,
or rings?
A. esterified
B. polyunsaturated
C. saturated
D. unsaturated

A

C. saturated

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8
Q

Which of the following best describes the difference between steroids and sterols?
A. Steroids are the most common type of sterol.
B. Steroids contain rings, whereas sterols do not.
C. Sterols are a type of steroid with an OH group.
D. Sterols are present in prokaryotes and steroids are not.

A

C. Sterols are a type of steroid with an OH group.

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9
Q

Which best describes oligopeptides?
A. a molecule consisting of two amino acids
B. long chains of amino acids
C. polymers of about 20 amino acids
D. polymers of about 50 amino acids

A

C. polymers of about 20 amino acids

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a lipid?
A. a fatty acid
B. a glyceraldehyde
C. a wax
D. an isoprenoid

A

B. a glyceraldehyde

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11
Q

How many single covalent bonds can oxygen form?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

A

B. two

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12
Q

Which of the following molecules is an organic molecule?
A. CO2
B. CaCO3
C. CH3OH
D. H2O

A

C. CH3OH

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13
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a micronutrient?
A. carbon
B. nitrogen
C. phosphorus
D. potassium

A

D. potassium

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes glucose, fructose, and galactose?
A. achiral
B. enantiomers
C. stereoisomers
D. structural isomers

A

D. structural isomers

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15
Q

Why does it matter which enantiomer of a molecule is used for a medication?
A. Enantiomers can have different pharmacologic effects and only one may be effective.
B. It is usually easier to prepare one enantiomer than mixtures of both.
C. The D form is typically more effective than the L form.
D. The L form is typically more effective than the D form.

A

A. Enantiomers can have different pharmacologic effects and only one may be effective.

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16
Q

Which of the following shows a ketone?
A. a carboxylic acid
B. an ester
C. an internal carbonyl group
D. an internal ether

A

C. an internal carbonyl group

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17
Q

Which of the following types of bonds joins monosaccharides together to form a
polysaccharide?
A. glycosidic bonds
B. hydrogen bonds
C. peptide bonds
D. phosphodiester bonds

A

A. glycosidic bonds

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes the molecule lactose?
A. disaccharide
B. monosaccharide
C. polysaccharide
D. trisaccharide

A

A. disaccharide

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19
Q

Which of the following is an important component of insect exoskeletons?
A. cellulose
B. chitin
C. glycogen
D. starch

A

B. chitin

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20
Q

Which describes the hydrocarbon tails in the plasma membrane?
A. amphipathic
B. hydrophilic
C. hydrophobic
D. polar

A

C. hydrophobic

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21
Q

In a protein, which type of chemical linkage joins the amino acids?
A. disulfide linkages
B. glycosidic linkages or bonds
C. hydrogen bonds
D. peptide bonds

A

D. peptide bonds

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22
Q

Which is a common type of secondary structure of proteins?
A. the α helix
B. the β helix
C. the Δ helix
D. the ω helix

A

A. the α helix

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23
Q

Disulfide bridges are most important in which of the following?
A. primary structure of proteins
B. secondary structure of proteins
C. structure of carbohydrates
D. tertiary structure of proteins

A

D. tertiary structure of proteins

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24
Q

Which enantiomers rotate plane polarized light in a clockwise direction?
A. + or d
B. + or l
C. – or d
D. – or l

A

A. + or d

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25
Q

C6H12O6 is an example of which type of molecule?
A. amino acid
B. fatty acid
C. monosaccharide
D. nucleotide

A

C. monosaccharide

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26
Q

The phospholipid molecules in the plasma membrane are which of the following?
A. amphipathic
B. hydrophilic only
C. hydrophobic only
D. in the shape of micelles

A

A. amphipathic

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27
Q

Amylose is a component of which of the following?
A. cellulose
B. disaccharides
C. nucleotides
D. starch

A

D. starch

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28
Q

Chitin is a polymer of which of the following?
A. amylase and amylopectin
B. glycosaminoglycan
B. N-acetyl glucosamine
C. N-acetyl muramic acid

A

B. N-acetyl glucosamine

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29
Q

Dextromethorphan and levomethorphan are best described as which of the following?
A. achiral
B. biologically identical
C. enantiomers
D. structural isomers

A

C. enantiomers

30
Q

Which type of molecule is CH3(CH2)14COOH?
A. amino acid
B. fatty acid
C. monosaccharide
D. nucleotide

A

B. fatty acid

31
Q

A triglyceride contains which subcomponents?
A. a glycerol and two fatty acids
B. a glycerol and two sugars
C. a glycerol and three fatty acids
D. a glycerol and three sugars

A

C. a glycerol and three fatty acids

32
Q

The phospholipids of the plasma membrane contain which subcomponents?
A. a wax, a glycerol, and a phosphate group
B. two fatty acids, a glycerol, and a phosphate group
C. three fatty acids, a glycerol, and a phosphate group
D. four sphingolipids and a phosphate group

A

B. two fatty acids, a glycerol, and a phosphate group

33
Q

Which monomers make up lipids?
A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. lipids do not consist of monomers
D. monosaccharides

A

C. lipids do not consist of monomers

34
Q

Which are the components found in starch?
A. amylose and amylopectin
B. amylose and glycogen
C. cellulose and glycogen
D. glucosamine and muramic acid

A

A. amylose and amylopectin

35
Q

Which of the following is not true of triglycerides?
A. They are a type of phospholipid.
B. They are considered simple lipids.
C. They are hydrophobic.
D. They contain glycerol and three fatty acids.

A

A. They are a type of phospholipid.

36
Q

FAME analysis involves which of the following?
A. gas chromatography
B. high-pressure liquid chromatography
C. immunological testing
D. mass spectrometry

A

A. gas chromatography

37
Q

Which of the following refers to the term metabolism?
A. all the reactions in a cell or organism
B. all the reactions in a cell that break down molecules only
C. all the reactions in a cell that build new molecules only
D. all the reactions in a cell that decompose molecules only

A

A. all the reactions in a cell or organism

38
Q

Which of the following best describes an endergonic reaction?
A. absorbs energy from the environment
B. is coupled with another reaction
C. is involved in biosynthesis
D. releases energy into the environment

A

A. absorbs energy from the environment

39
Q

Chemotrophs obtain their energy from which of the following?
A. inorganic chemical reactions only
B. light energy
C. organic chemical reactions only
D. organic and inorganic chemical reactions

A

D. organic and inorganic chemical reactions

40
Q

Which of the following describes a molecule that had an electron removed?
A. anabolized
B. electronated
C. oxidized
D. reduced

A

C. oxidized

41
Q

Which of the following best describes the subcomponents of pyrophosphate?
A. two inorganic phosphate molecules
B. two organic phosphate molecules
C. three inorganic phosphate molecules
D. three organic phosphate molecules

A

A. two inorganic phosphate molecules

42
Q

Which molecule is often called the cell’s energy currency?
A. adenosine triphosphate
B. flavin adenine dinucleotide
C. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
D. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate

A

A. adenosine triphosphate

43
Q

Which site on an enzyme is where substrates bind?
A. the activation site
B. the active site
C. the catalyst site
D. the lock and key site

A

B. the active site

44
Q

Which of the following are inorganic molecules that bind to enzymes?
A. apoenzymes
B. coenzymes
C. cofactors
D. holoenzymes

A

C. cofactors

45
Q

Which of the following best describes catabolic pathways?
A. They always absorb energy.
B. They break down large molecules into smaller components.
C. They build up large molecules from smaller components.
D. They must be coupled with the breakdown of ATP.

A

B. They break down large molecules into smaller components.

46
Q

Which group comprises all lithotrophs?
A. algae
B. autotrophs
C. microbes
D. plants

A

C. microbes

47
Q

Which is a common electron acceptor in catabolic reactions?
A. ATP
B. FADH2
C. NAD+
D. NADPH

A

C. NAD+

48
Q

The reaction that breaks down ATP to form ADP and inorganic phosphate is classified as
which of the following?
A. endergonic
B. exergonic
C. nonspontaneous
D. reduction

A

B. exergonic

49
Q

Which of the following is an inhibitor that binds to the active site of an enzyme?
A. a competitive inhibitor
B. a noncompetitive inhibitor
C. an allosteric inhibitor
D. an uncompetitive inhibitor

A

A. a competitive inhibitor

50
Q

Glycolysis produces a net gain of which of the following?
A. two ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates
B. two ATP, two NADH, and four pyruvates
C. two ATP, four NADH, and two pyruvates
D. four ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates

A

A. two ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates

51
Q

Which of the following is a pathway that breaks down glucose in some microbes?
A. the Calvin cycle
B. the Entner-Doudoroff pathway
C. the Krebs cycle
D. the tricarboxylic acid cycle

A

B. the Entner-Doudoroff pathway

52
Q

Which of the following best describes a transition reaction?
A. a reaction that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA with the release of carbon dioxide
B. a series of reactions that convert citric acid to oxaloacetate
C. an optional reaction that transports pyruvate into the mitochondrion
D. the reaction that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis

A

A. a reaction that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA with the release of carbon dioxide

53
Q

Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?
A. carbon dioxide
B. GTP, which is converted to ATP
C. NADH
D. pyruvate

A

D. pyruvate

54
Q

The Krebs cycle begins with the addition of acetyl CoA to which of the following?
A. citric acid
B. oxaloacetate
C. ribulose bisphosphate
D. succinate dehydrogenase

A

B. oxaloacetate

55
Q

Which of the following is the step in which CO2 enters the light-independent reactions
(Calvin cycle)?
A. fixation
B. reduction
C. regeneration
D. transition

A

A. fixation

56
Q

Carotenoids are pigments that are which of the following colors?
A. blue/green
B. green/orange
C. orange/yellow/red
D. purple/blue

A

C. orange/yellow/red

57
Q

Which of the following are enzymes that break down proteins?
A. amylases
B. oxidases
C. oxygenases
D. proteases

A

D. proteases

58
Q

Fatty acids are often degraded using which set of reactions?
A. β-oxidation
B. glycolysis
C. photophosphorylation
D. the tricarboxylic acid cycle

A

A. β-oxidation

59
Q

Triglycerides are broken down by which of the following?
A. lipases
B. nitrogenases
C. phospholipases
D. proteases

A

A. lipases

60
Q

During the Krebs cycle, FAD is reduced to which of the following?
A. FADH
B. FADH2
C. NADH
D. NADH2

A

B. FADH2

61
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of fermentation?
A. to produce carbon dioxide
B. to produce large quantities of additional energy
C. to regenerate NAD+
D. to regenerate oxygen

A

C. to regenerate NAD+

62
Q

ATP is produced through oxidative phosphorylation when which of the following occurs?
A. FADH2 donates electrons to succinate dehydrogenase
B. H+ moves through ATP synthase
C. NADH donates electrons to NADH dehydrogenase
D. the light-independent reactions fix CO2

A

B. H+ moves through ATP synthase

63
Q

Each pyruvate molecule contains how many carbon atoms?
A. two
B. three*
C. four
D. six

A

B. three

64
Q

When is the pentose phosphate pathway favored over other pathways to break down
glucose?
A. when biosynthesis is not needed
B. when phospholipids are needed
C. when the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins is needed
D. when the cell has a severe energy deficit and needs energy rapidly

A

C. when the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins is needed

65
Q

Which of the following occurs when molecules are broken down using β-oxidation?
A. Carbon dioxide is removed.
B. Three carbon propyl groups are removed.
C. Two carbon acetyl groups are removed.
D. Two carbon acyl groups are removed.

A

C. Two carbon acetyl groups are removed.

66
Q

Which of the following best defines chemiosmosis?
A. the disruption of the inner mitochondrial membrane, which dissipates energy
B. the movement of electrons from one acceptor to another
C. the movement of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase
D. the series of reactions that regenerate oxaloacetate

A

C. the movement of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase

67
Q

Which of the following is the most acidic location in a mitochondrion?
A. the intermembrane space
B. the matrix
C. within the outer membrane
D. within the thylakoid

A

A. the intermembrane space

68
Q

Which of the following is not a common electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration?
A. Fe3+
B. H2S
C. NO3–
D. PO4(3–)

A

D. PO4(3–)

69
Q

Why is the actual ATP yield of aerobic respiration often less than the maximum possible
yield of 38 ATP?
A. Aerobic respiration competes with anaerobic respiration for energy.
B. Aerobic respiration competes with fermentation for energy.
C. In eukaryotes, energy is used to move molecules across membranes.
D. No organisms complete all parts of aerobic respiration.

A
70
Q

How can enteropathogenic O157:H7 E. coli strain be recognized from other E. coli strains?
A. Unlike other E. coli, it cannot ferment lactose.
B. Unlike other E. coli, it cannot ferment mannose.
C. Unlike other E. coli, it cannot ferment pyruvate.
D. Unlike other E. coli, it cannot ferment sorbitol.

A

D. Unlike other E. coli, it cannot ferment sorbitol.

71
Q
A

Microbiology GHC (2 decks)

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