Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the resolution of light microscopes?

A
  • Resolution depends on:
    • Angular aperture
    • Refractive index of the medium (between the specimen and objective lens)
    • Wavelength of light
  • Conventional light microsope resolution = 0.2 um
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2
Q

What is the configuration of a bright field light microscope?

A
  • LIght from a tungsten lamp (under the stage) shines through the condenser lens and focuses on the specimen
  • Above the stage, the viewer looks through a projection lens and an objective lens to see the specimen
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3
Q

What does the image under a bright field microscope look like?

A
  • Image has little detail
  • Specimen isn’t well defined, compared to other two types of microscopes
  • Light shines through the specimen
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4
Q

What does the image under a phase-contrast microscope look like?

A
  • More detailed than bright field, but less detailed than DIC
  • Suitable for single cells or a thin cell layer
  • Thicker specimen show less detail
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5
Q

What is the configuration of a phase contrast light microscope?

A
  • From below the stage, the light shines through an annular diaphram and condenser lens to focus a ring of light on the specimen
  • Above the stage, if the light is unobstructed by the speciment, it will go through the objective lens to a thick gray ring on the phase plate.
  • Some of the light is absorbed and the rest passes through the projection lens.
  • Light obstructed by the specimen is refracted, passes through the objective lens, through an inner clear region on the phase plate and through the projection lens.
  • The refracted and unrefracted lights come together to form the image.
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6
Q

What does the image under a differential-interference-contrast (DIC) microscope look like?

A
  • Can visualize small details
  • Works for thick or thin sections of specimen
  • The microscope works by splitting a light beam in two, passing it through the specimen, and then recombining the beams to observe interference patterns and look at contrast.
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7
Q

What is histological staining and how is it done?

A
  • Histological staining - staining specimen with histological stains to better see subcellular details
    1. Fixation
    2. Processing
    • Fixed tissue is dehydrated by soaking in a series of alcohol-water solutions, ending with an organic solvent compatible with the embedding medium
      3. Embedding
    • The tissue is placed in a liquid paraffin and hardened into a block.
      4. Sectioning
    • Once the block is hard, it is mounted on the arm of a microtome and sliced with a knife.
    • Slices are around 0.5-50 um thick for light microscopes
      5. Staining
    • The slices are then stained and counterstained with the appropriate agents
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8
Q

What is hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining?

A
  • Hematoxylin - used to illustrate nuclear detail in cells
  • Eosin - counterstain to distinguish between the cytoplasm and nuclei of cells
  • Can be used with frozen sections, fine needle aspirates and paraffin fixed embedded tissues
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9
Q

What is immunohistochemistry (IHC) and what are the basic steps/processes?

A
  • IHC: lab method that uses antibodies to check for certain antigens (markers) in a sample of tissue
  • Label can be fluorescent dye, enzyme or gold particles
  • Direct labeling - adding only 10 antibody
  • Indirect labeling - adding 10 and 20 antibodies
  • Indirect labeling with signal amplification - adding 10 antibody, biotinylated 20 antibody and amplifying streptavidin substance.

Steps
1. Prep
* Prepare sample and place on microscope slide
2. Incubate
* Incubate with primary antibody, then wash away any unbound antibody
3. Incubate x2
* Incubate with fluorochrome-conjugated secondary antibody, and then wash away anything unbound
4. Mount and observe
* Mount specimen and observe in fluorscence microscope

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10
Q

What is commonly used as the enzyme catalyst for chemogenic subtrate-based staining of target antigens in IHC and why?

A
  • Peroxidases (usually horseradish peroxidase, HRP) are commonly used as the enzyme catalyst for chromogenic substrate-based staining
  • Peroxidase reacts with hydrogen peroxide to reduce 3,3’-diaminobenzidine (DAB) substrate, or other peroxidase substrates, resulting in nonspecific staining of the tissue
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11
Q

What is immunofluorescence (IF) staining?

A
  • IF staining: a process where fluorescent dyes are bound to functional groups contained in biomolecules, so that they can be visualized by fluorsecence imaging
  • Can be multi-colored
  • Improved fluorescent dyes are highly sensitive and stable, and do not interfere with the function of target molecules (so you can track them in vitro and in vivo)
  • Detection and localization of a wide variety of antigens in different types of tissues
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12
Q

What are the fluorophores used in IF?

A
  • Fluorescein IsoThioCyanate (FITC)
  • Derivatives of rhodamine (TRITC)
  • Coumarin and cyanine
  • Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) - naturally occuring, can be used to label living cells genetically
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13
Q

What are some similarities and differences between IHC and ICC?

A
  • IHC
    • Tissue selection - cryostat (frozen) section or paraffin (wax) section
    • Place on poly-L-lysine coated glass slide
    • Antigen retrieval (enzymatic digestion, microwave, pressure cooking)
    • Antibody staining
    • Detection and analysis - Colorimetric (enzyme mediated) or fluorescence (Rhodamine, Cy5, etc.)
  • ICC
    • Cell culture - cell suspension or adherent cells
    • Place on glass coverslip
    • Antibody staining
    • Detection and analysis - Colorimetric (enzyme mediated) or fluorescence (Rhodamine, Cy5, etc.)
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14
Q

What is Immunocytochemistry (ICC)? What are the basic steps/process?

A
  • ICC: lab method that uses antibodies to check for certain antigens (markers) in a sample of cells
  • Detects specific proteins in cells using antibodies
  • Cells must be fixed to solid surface and permeabilized to allow 10 to enter cell and bind to protein
  • 20 antibody with conjugate fluorophore binds to 10 antibody, to allow for visualization

Steps
1. Prepare sample and place on microscope slide
2. Incubate with 10 antibody, then wash away unbound antibody
3. Incubate with fluorochrome-conjugated 20 antibody, then wash away unbound antibody
4. Mount specimen and observe in fluorescence microscope

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15
Q

What is the configuration of fluorescent light microscopes and what does the image look like?

A
  • Configuration:
    • (Above the specimen) Beam of light from a mercury lamp is directed to the excitation filter, which allows only the correct wavelength of light to pass through
    • Light is then reflected off a dichroic mirror and through the objective lens, which focuses it on the specimen
      Fluorescent light emittd by the speciment passes up through the objective lens, then through the dichroic mirror, and is focused and recorded on the detector at the image plane

Image: specific features of small specimen (such as microbes), visually enhances 3D features at small scales

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16
Q

What is fluorescence?

A
  • Fluorescence: the emission of light by a substance that has absorbed light or other electromagnetic radiation
  • The excited electron relaxes to the lowest energy in its shell by way of vibration (phonons) before emitting fluorescent light
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17
Q

What is double-label fluorescence microscopy?

A
  • Uses two fluorescent colors to visualize the relative distributions of two different proteins
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18
Q

How can you monitor relative concentrations of Ca2+ in different regions of a live cell?

A
  • Fura-2: a Ca2+ sensitive fluorochrome that can be used to monitor the relative concentrations of cytosolic Ca2+ in different regions of a live cell
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19
Q

What is the structure of Green Fluorescent Proteins (GFP) and what do they do?

A
  • Protein composed of 238 amino acids
  • Exhibits bright green fluorescence when exposed to UV rays
  • Tags proteins that can be detected under fluorescent microscopes
  • Can separate recombinant protein from wild-type protein in a cell
  • Different proteins can be tagged with different variants of GFP (which exhibit different colors)
  • Useful if you don’t have an antibody to a protein
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20
Q

What is confocal microscopy and what does the image look like?

A
  • Based on fluorescent microscopy
  • Obtains images from a specific focal plane and excludes light from other focal places, and collects a series of images vertically (therefore, can generate accurate 3D representations of a specimen
  • Image produced is a sharp and in-focus optical section through thick cells
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21
Q

What is the path of light and configuration for point-scanning confocal microscopes?

A
  1. A single-wavelength point of light from an appropriate laser is reflected off a dichroic mirror and bounces off two scanning mirrors.
  2. Light passes through the objective lens to illuminate a spot in the specimen.
  3. The scanning mirrors rock back and forth in such as way that the light scans the specimen in a raster fashion
  4. The fluorescence emitted by the specimen passes back through the objective lens and is bounced off the scanning mirrors onto the dichroic mirror
  5. The light passes through a pinhole, which excludes light from out-of-focus focal planes, so the light reaching the photomultiplier tube comes almost exclusively from the illuminated spot in the focal plane
  6. A computer takes these signals and reconstructs the image
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22
Q

What is the light path and configuration of spinning disk confocal microscopes?

A
  1. The beam from a laser is spread to illuminate pinholes on the coupled spinning disks, the first consisting of microlenses to focus the light on pinholes in the second disk.
  2. The excitation light passes through the objective lens to provide point illumination of a number of spots in the specimen.
  3. The fluorescence emitted passes back through the objective lens and through the holes in the spinning disk.
  4. Then, it is bounced off a dichroic mirror into a sensitive digital camera
  5. The pinholes in the disk are arranged so that as it spins, it rapidly illuminates all parts of the specimen several times.
  6. As the disk spins (as fast as 3000 rpm), very dynamic events in live cells can be recorded.
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23
Q

What is two-photon excitation microscopy?

A
  • Used to visualize thicker specimen
  • Can be used on living animals
  • Laser illuminates one small area with light at wavelength of half the energy
  • It takes 2 photons to get emission
  • No out-of-focus signal or damage to specimen
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24
Q

How do the excitation methods differ between convention point-scanning confocal microscopy and two photon excitation microscopy?

A

Conventional system
* Absorption of single photon of the appropriate wavelength results in an electron jumping to the excited state
* After vibrational relaxation, electron falls back to ground sate with emission of one photon at a longer (lower energy), wavelength
Two-photon excitation
* When two photons of the appropriate wavelength arrive almost instantaneously, they can both be absorbed and induce the electron to jump to the excited state.
* Electron undergoes some vibrational relaxation and falls back to the ground state with the emission
of a photon

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25
What is fluorescent recovery after photobleaching (FRAP)?
* If you use a high-intensity light to permenantly bleach the fluorochrome, there will initially be no fluorescence coming from it and it will look dark under the fluorescence microscope * If the components are in dynamic equilibrium with unbleached molecules elsewhere in the cell, the bleached molecules will be replaced by the unbleached ones, and the fluorescence will come back * **FRAP is the rate of fluorescence recovery (a measure of the dynamics of the molecule)**
26
What is fluorescence energy resonance transfer (FRET)?
* Can determine if two proteins interact in a cell * Each protein has a different GFP tag * Emission wavelength of one protein is close to the excitation wavelength of the second * When the first tag on a protein is excited, it transfers energy to the second tagged protein * This tag emits light at a specific wavelength * The proteins have to be close together for this to work
27
How can protein-protein interactions be visualized by FRET?
1. One fluorescent tag (CFP) is associated to protein 1 and a second tag (YFP) is associated with protein 2 2. The cell is illuminated with a specific light (433 nm) and CFP will emit a fluorescent signal (475 nm). 3. If protein 1 interacts with protein 2, it will bring CFP close to YFP and energy will be transferred by FRET. 4. YFP will emit a light (530 nm).
28
What is a FRET biosensor and how is it used?
* **FRET biosensor** - a fusion protein containing two fluorescent proteins, linked by a region sensitive to the environment being studied * Can be used to sense local biochemical environments in live cells **How it works:** * Protein construct consists of CFP linked to YFP by 2 regions * One region contains a particular sequence that can be phosphorylated by a specific kinase * Second region binds to the sensor domain when it is phosphorylated. * In absence of kinase activity, the two fluorescent proteins are too far apart to undergo FRET, * When locally phosphorylated by the active kinase, the sensor domain becomes phosphorylated, the ligand domain binds to it, and CFP and YFP are brought sufficiently close to undergo FRET. * Sensor can be deactivated when it encounters the appropriate phosphatase that removes the added phosphate. * Biosensor reports on the ratio of kinase to phosphatase activity in the local environment
29
What is electron microscopy (EM)? What are the basics of TEM and SEM?
* Images formed from electrons that pass through a specimen or are scattered from a metal-coated specimen * In both TEM and SEM, the entire column in maintained at a very high vacuum * **TEM**: transmission EM * Electrons are extracted from heated filament, accelerated by electric field, and focused on the specimen by a magnetic condenser lens * Electrons that pass through the specimen are focused by a series of magnetic objective and projector lenses to form a magnifed image on a detector * Detector may be a fluorescent viewing screen, a photographic film, or a charged couple device camera * Specimen must be thin (5-100 nm). Single cells and pieces of tissue are too thick to be viewed directly by standard TEM. * **SEM**: scanning EM * Electrons are focused by condenser and objective lenses on a metal coated specimen * Scanning coils move the beam across the specimen and electrons scattered from the metal are collected by a photomultiplier tube detector
30
What is TEM negative staining?
* Samples for TEM are mounted on small copper or gold grid that is coated with a thin film of plastic and carbon to which a sample can adhere * The sample is bathed in a solution of a heavy metal (like uranyl acetate), and excess solution is removed * The heavy metal solution coats the grid but is excluded from the regions where the sample has adhered, so that when we view the samples in the TEM, we see where the stain has been excluded. (The sample is said to be **negatively stained**).
31
What is TEM metal shadowing?
* Metal shadowing makes surface details on very small objects visible by TEM * Sample is spread on a mica surface and dried in a vacuum evaporator * The sample grid is coated with a thin film of a heavy metal, such as platinum or gold, that is evaporated from an electrically heated metal filament * The specimen is coated with a carbon film evaporated from an overhead electrode. * To stabilize the replica, the biological material is dissolved by acid and bleach. * The remaining metal replica is viewed in a TEM.
32
What is cryoelectron microscopy?
* Specimen is frozen at very low temperature (-196 0C) * Specimen stays hydrated in native state (no fixation or staining) * If you rotate specimen and get images from different directions, you can determine the 3D architecture of organelles and cells
33
What is cryoelectron tomography?
* Used to determine the 3D architecture of organelles * A semicircular series of 2D projection images is recorded from the 3D specimen that is located at the center * The specimen is tilted while the electron optics and the detector remain stationary * 3D structure is then computed from the collected 2D images
34
What is scanning electron microscopy (SEM)?
* Unsectioned metal coated specimens * Reveals the surface features of specimens * 3D appearance, very thin (10 nm) * **How it works** * Electrons are focused by condenser and objective lenses on a metal coated specimen * Scanning coils move the beam across the specimen and electrons scattered from the metal are collected by a photomultiplier tube detector
35
What are enzymes?
* Enzymes are proteins that catalyze reactions in cells * One way to study enzymatic mechanisms is by kinetic analysis of their behaviors * Suffix "ase" refers to enzymes * RNA enzymes are called ribozymes
36
How are enzymes classified?
* Classified based on the reactions they catalyze 1. Oxidoreductase * Transfer of electrons (hydride ions or H atoms) 2. Transferase * Group transfer 3. Hydrolase * Hydrolysis 4. Lyase * Cleavage of C-C/C-O/C-N, or other bonds by elimination, leaving double bonds or rings, or addition of groups to double bonds 5. Isomerase * Transfer of groups within molecules to yield isomeric forms 6. Ligase * Formation of C-C, C-S, C-O, C-N bonds by condensation reactions coupled to cleavage of ATP or similar cofactor 7. Translocase * Movement of molecules or ions across membranes or their separation within membranes
37
What are apoenzymes vs holoenzymes?
* **Apoenzymes**: inactive enzyme without its factor * **Holoenzyme**: complete, active enzyme with the factor
38
What are prosthetic groups, cofactors and coenzymes?
* **Prosthetic groups**: tightly and stably incorporated into a protein's structure by covalent or noncovalent forces * **Cofactors**: bind in a transient, dissociable manner either to the enzyme or to a substrate such as ATP * **Coenzymes**: serves as group transfer agents and transports many substrates from one point within the cell to another * All three are non-protein components that aid enzymes
39
# What enzyme do these metal ion cofactors aid? Cu2+ Fe2+ or Fe3+ K+ Mg2+ Mn2+ Mo Ni2+ Zn2+
* Cu2+ - cytochrome oxidase * Fe2+ or Fe3+ - cytochrome oxidase, catalase, peroxidase * K+ - pyruvate kinase * Mg2+ - hexokinase, G6Pase, pyruvate kinase * Mn2+ - arginase, ribonucleotide reductase * Mo - dinitrogenase * Ni2+ - urease * Zn2+ - carbonic anhydrase, alcohol dehydrogenase, carboxypeptidases A and B
40
# What metal ion serves as a cofactor for these enzymes? * Cytochrome oxidase * Cytochrome oxidase, catalase, peroxidase * Pyruvate kinase * Hexokinase, G6Pase, pyruvate kinase * Arginase, ribonucleotide reductase * Dinitrogenase * Urease * Carbonic anhydrase, alcohol dehydrogenase, carboxypeptidases A and B
* Cu2+ - cytochrome oxidase * Fe2+ or Fe3+ - cytochrome oxidase, catalase, peroxidase * K+ - pyruvate kinase * Mg2+ - hexokinase, G6Pase, pyruvate kinase * Mn2+ - arginase, ribonucleotide reductase * Mo - dinitrogenase * Ni2+ - urease * Zn2+ - carbonic anhydrase, alcohol dehydrogenase, carboxypeptidases A and B
41
Given these coenzymes, what are examples of chemical groups transferred and what is the dietary precursor in mammals? 1. Biocytin 2. CoA 3. CoB12 (5'-Deoxyadenosylcobalamin) 4. Flavin adenine dinucleotide 5. Lipoate 6. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide 7. Pyridoxal phosphate 8. Tetrahydrofolate 9. Thiamine pyrophosphate
1. CO2 - Biotin 2. Acyl groups - Pantothenic acid and other compounds 3. H atoms and alkyl groups - Vitamin B12 4. Electrons - Riboflavin (B2 5. Electrons and acyl groups - not required in diet 6. Hydride ion (:H-) - Nicotinic acid (niacin) 7. Amino groups - Pyridoxine (B6) 8. One carbon groups - Folate 9. Aldehydes - Thiamine (B1)
42
What are the prosthetic groups and coenzymes of pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH)?
* PDH catalyzes an oxidative decarboxylation reaction * **Enzymes** * E1: Pyruvate Dehydrogenase * E2: Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase * E3: Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase * **Coenzymes** * TPP - bound to E1 * Lipoate - covalently linked to E2 * CoA - substrate for E2 * FAD - bound to E3 * NAD - substrate for E3 (reduced by FADH2)
43
What are FAD, FMN, NAD+, and NADP+?
* Flavin nucleotides are tight bound in flavoproteins * FAD - flavin adenine dinucleotide * FMN - flavin mononucleotide * NAD+/NADP+ are universal mobile electrol carriers * Involved in redox reactions (carrying electrons from one reaction to another) * NAD+/NADP+ is the oxidized form * They accept electrons from other molecules and become reduced * Reduced to NADH and NADPH
44
What is pellagra?
* Niacin (vitamin B3 deficiency * Niacin can be synthesized from Trp in humans * Niacin is in NAD+/NADP+
45
What are active sites and substrates?
* Substrate: the molecule that is bound to the active site and acted upon by the enzyme to be converted to a product * Active site: place on an enzyme where a substrate binds
46
Why use enzymes over inorganic catalysts?
* Enzymes are okay with mild reaction conditions (370C, pH ~ 7) * Higher reaction rates * Capacity for regulation * Proteins/enzymes typically have high specificity for their substrates
47
What are the two proposed models of enzyme-substrate interactions?
**Lock and key** * Binding site and ligand are complementary of one another, in size, shape, charge, hydrophobic/hydrophilic character, etc. * They fit like a lock and key * Ex - dihydrofolate reductase enzyme, NADP+ and tetrahydrofolate substrates **Induced fit** * Conformational changes may occur after the ligand binds (both ligand and protein/enzyme can change conformation) * This allows for tighter binding of the ligand, higher affinity for different ligands, and enhances catalytic properties * Ex - hexokinase enzyme, D-glucose substrate
48
Do these examples follow the lock and key model or the induced fit model? 1. Dihydrofolate reductase and NADP+ 2. Hexokinase and D-glucose 3. Citrate synthase, Oxaloacetate, Acetyl-CoA analog
1. Lock and key 2. Induced fit 3. Induced fit
49
What are the mechanisms of enzyme catalysis?
* Catalysis by proximity and strain * Effective concentration and orientation of substrate molecules in the active site of enzymes will *enhance* reaction rate * Acid-base catalysis * Ionizable functional groups of amino acid side chains and prosthetic groups contribute to catalysis by acting as acids or bases * Covalent catalysis * Formation of a covalent bond between the enzyme and one or more substrates to create a more reactive enzyme * Metal ion catalysis * Ionic interactions between an enzyme-bound metal and a substrate can help orient the substrate for reaction or stabilize charged reaction transition states
50
What are the principle catalytic functions of these amino acids? What is the reactive group? 1. Aspartate 2. Glutamate 3. Histidine 4. Cysteine 5. Tyrosine 6. Lysine 7. Arginine 8. Serine
1. Cation binding, proton transfer * -COO- 2. Cation binding, proton transfer * -COO- 3. Proton transfer * Imidazole 4. Covalent binding of acyl groups * -CH2SH 5. Hydrogen bonding to ligands * Phenol 6. Anion binding, proton transfer * NH3+ 7. Anion binding * Guanidinium 8. Covalent binding of acyl groups * -CH2OH
51
What is the difference between specific and general acid-base catalysis?
* Specific acid-base catalysis: uses only the H+ (H3O+) or OH- ions present in water * General acid-base catalysis: mediated by weak acids or bases other than water
52
What amino acids can act as a general acid or a general base in general acid-base catalysis?
* Glu, Asp * Lys, Arg * Cys * His * Ser * Tyr
53
What is covalent catalysis?
* A transient covalent bond forms between the enzyme and the substrate * Changes the reaction pathway to make it more efficient * Requires a nucleophile on the enzyme (can be a reactive serine, thiolate, amine, or carboxylate) * Never involves coenzymes
54
What is the structure of chymotrypsin?
* Consists of three polypeptide chains linked by disulfide bonds * Active-site amino acid residues are grouped together in the 3D structure
55
In enzymatic reactions, metal ions:
* Help orient the substrate for reaction * Stabilize charged reaction transition states * Mediate redox reactions by reversible changes in the metal ion's oxidation state
56
What mechanism of enzyme catalysis do these reactions use? 1. G3P <--> Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (enzyme: triose phosphate isomerase) 2. Substrate channeling in the PDH complex 3. Aspartic protease family of enzymes 4. Catalysis by fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase 5. Catalysis by chymotrypsin 6. 2-phosphoglycerate <--> phosphoenolpyruvate (enzyme: enolase)
1. Proximity and strain 2. Proximity and strain 3. Acid-base 4. Acid-base 5. Covalent 6. Metal ion
57
What are enzyme kinetics? What are they affected by?
* Enzyme kinetics: the discipline focused on determining the rate of a reaction and how it changes in response to changes in experimental parameters * Affected by: * Enzyme * Substrate * Effectors * pH * Temperature
58
Enzymes use the binding energy of substrates to do what? How?
* To organize the reactants to a stable transition state (TA) of the ES (enzyme-substrate) complex * Does this by: * Positioning of acid-base groups of transfer protons to or from the developing transition state intermediate * Imposing steric strain on substrates so that their geometry approaches that of the transition state
59
How do the enzyme and substrate concentrations change as the reaction moves towards steady-state?
* In pre-steady state phase, the ES complex builds up (increases). E and S both decrease, as they bind together to form ES. * The product steadily increases throughout the reaction * In the steady state phase, the concentration of ES and other intermediates remain constant.
60
What is the equilibrium constant (Keq) of an enzymatic reaction? How do ezymes affect the Keq?
S + E <---> P + E Keq = [P][E] / [S][E] Keq = [P] / [S] * [S] = substrate concentration * [E] = enzyme concentration * [P] = product concentration * ES = enzyme-substrate complex * EP = enzyme-product complex * Enzymes have no effect on Keq
61
Enzymes must be complementary to what? The best interaction between enzymes and substrates is formed when?
* Enzymes must be complementary to the **reaction transition state** * The best interaction is formed only when **the substrate reaches the transition state.** * If the enzyme is complementary to the substrate (rather than the transition state), few products will be made.
62
How do enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions, without undergoing any permanent change?
* Enzymes increase the rate of a chemical reaction by **binding the transition states** (better than they bind the substrates), which **lowers the delta G (free energy)**.
63
What is zero order reactions?
* Zero order - the rate of reaction is independent of substrate concentration [S] * Higher or lower [S] does not affect the rate of the reaction (or velocity of reaction)
64
What are first order reactions?
* First order - the rate is proportional to [S] * Changing [S] will change the rate of the reaction (velocity) * ** v = k[S]**, where k is a rate constant
65
What are second order reactions? What are pseudo first order reactions?
* **Second order** - rate is proportional to [S1] and [S2] * S1 + S2 ---> * **v = k [S1] [S2]** * **Pseudo first order** - when one substrate concentration is very high and the other is very low, the rate of the reaction will appear to be dependent on that concentration of the very low substrate (called **rate limiting substrate**) * ** v = k [S1]**, even when there is an [S2] in the reaction
66
What is the Michaelis-Menten Equation?
**E + S <----> ES ----> E + P** * First reaction: k1 (forward), k-1 (backward) * Second reaction: k2 ** v = Vmax [S] / Km + [S] ** * v (or Vo) = initial velocity * Vmax = maximum initial velocity * Km = Michaelis constant * [S] = substrate concentration **Km = Michaelis constant = (k1 + k2) / k1 **
67
What are the 4 assumptions of the Michaelis-Menten Equation?
1. Assumes the formation of an enzyme-substrate complex (ES) 2. Enzymatic reactions show saturation with their substrate [S] 3. Assumes that the ES complex is in rapid equilibrium with the free enzyme [E] 4. The breakdown of ES to form products is assumed to be slower than the formation of ES and the breakdown of ES to E and S.
68
When given a graph with [P] vs time, how do you determine the initial velocity? Why can you do this?
* The initial rate (initial velocity) is the tangent line to the graphed curve, taken at time = 0. * At the beginning of the reaction, [S] is regarded as constant. This is why you can determine the inital velocity given a [P] vs time graph.
69
When is the Vmax usually reached during a reaction? What does this look like on an Initial Velocity vs [S] graph?
* Vmax is observed when virtually all the enzyme is present at the ES complex * Further increases in [S] have no effect on the rate * On a graph, this looks like a plateau or asymptote
70
What is Km?
* Km is the [S] that corresponds to half the Vmax * It can be roughly estimated from an Initial Velocity vs [S] plot.
71
How do you use a Lineweaver-Burk plot to find Km and Vmax of a reaction?
* A Lineweaver-Burk plot is the double reciprocal plot of the Michaelis-Menten Equation. It forms a straight line. * y intercept = 1 / Vmax * x intercept = - 1 / Km * slope = Km / Vmax
72
What do small vs large Km's mean? What can affect the Km?
* Small Km = tight binding between the substrate and enzyme (high affinity) * Large Km = weak binding between the substrate and enzyme (low affinity) * Different pH's, temperatures, substrates and enzymes will result in different Km values.
73
What is indicative of how good an enzyme is? When does an enzyme reach kinetic perfection?
* **kcat / Km** is defined as the **specificity constant** and is indicative of how good an enzyme is for a given substrate * If an enzyme has a high k2/Km (or kcat / Km) ratio, the enzyme has reached the kinetic perfection
74
What is the turnover number in enzyme kinetics?
* The turnover number (kcat) is the number of substrate molecules converted to product per enzyme molecule per unit of time * It is a measure of an enzyme's maximal catalytic activity * kcat = Vmax / Et * For M-M enzymes, k2 = kcat, where k2 is the enzyme for ES --> E + P
75
How does temperature affect enzyme activity?
* Enzyme activity increases with temperature * Usually doubles with every 100C rise * Temperature coefficient = Q10 = 2 * But most are denatured around 700C * Optimal temperature for most enzymes is around 300C, but a few bacteria have enzymes that can withstand temperatures up to 1000C
76
What are single displacement reactions?
* Also called sequential reactions * Both substrates (in a reaction) must combine with the enzyme to form a ternary complex before catalysis can proceed
77
What are double displacement reactions?
* Also called Ping-Pong mechanisms * One or more products (in a reaction) are released from the enzyme before all the substrates have been added
78
On a steady-state kinetic analysis plot, what is the difference between single and double displacement reactions?
* In the plot, [S1] is varied, while [S2] is held constant, and several values for [S2] are plotted to general several separate lines (for both single and double displacements) * Single displacement - the lines intersect. * The intersection indicates a ternary complex is formed * Double displacement - the lines are parallel
79
What are the two major types of inhibitors?
* **Irreversible** * Covalent, permanent modification of part of the enzyme * **Reversible** * Competitive, noncompetitive (mixed), uncompetitive
80
What are competitive inhibitors? What happens to the Km and Vmax, and the plots?
* Inhibitor competes with substrate to bind to the free enzyme at its active site * Effects of competitve inhibitors can be overcome by increasing [S]. At an infinite [S], the inhibitor would have no effect * Changes Km * Vmax stays the same * In Lineweaver-Burke plot, the slope increases (gets steeper), and the x-intercept gets closer to 0, but the y-intercept doesn't change * In M-M plot, the curve shifts down (still starting at origin) and flattens a little, but has the same asymptote
81
What are noncompetitive inhibitors? What happens to the Km and Vmax, and the plots?
* Inhibitor binds to the enzyme somewhere other than the active site, which causes a decrease in the enzymatic activity * Substrate can still bind, even if the inhibitor is bound, and vise versa * No matter how high [S] gets, the inhibitor will still have an effect * Vmax decreases, Km is unchanged * In L-B plot, the slope is increased and the y-intercept is increased, but the x-intercept remains the same * In M-M plot, the curve shifts down, flattens a lot, and the asymptote is decreased (still starts at origin)
82
What are uncompetitive inhibitors?
* The inhibitor only binds to the ES complex * Plots of 1/v versus 1/[S] at different [Inhibitor] gives a series of parallel lines
83
What is methotrexate?
* Chemical similar to folic acid * Strong competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase * Shuts down DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase * Used in cancer treatement
84
What is Arsenite?
* Noncompetitive inhibitor * Blocks the catalytic activity of lipoamide-containing enzymes such as the PDH and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase * Chronic poisoning can come from environmental sources such as arsenic-contaminated drinking water
85
What are statins (as in the drug class of statins)? What do they do and what are some examples?
* Statins are HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors that are used to lower cholesterol levels * Atorvastatin, Pravastatin * Most are structural analogs of the natural substrates, and compete with the substrates to bind to the active site on HMG-CoA reductase
86
HIV protease inhibitors do what type of inhibition?
* Designed as transition-state analogs * Acts as irreversible inhibitors by forming a noncovalent complex with the HIV protease enzyme
87
What is Fluorouracil?
* Irreversible inhibitor of thymidylate synthase * Inhibits DNA synthesis * Used as a cream or topical solution to treat actinic or solar keratoses and skin cancer
88
What is Penicillin (B-Lactam antibiotics) and how does it work, with respect to inhibition?
* Binds with the active site Ser on transpeptidase in bacteria * Forms a covalent-acyl-enzyme product * This is hydrolyzed so slowly that adduct formation is practically irreversible and the transpeptidase is effectively inactivated * Transpeptidase in bacteria is responsible for linking two peptidoglycan precursors into a larger polymer
89
What are assays, and why are they performed?
* Assays can be used to determine kinetic parameters, such as Km, rate constants, and maximum enzyme activity. * Assays can be used to determine enzyme activity when performed at **saturated substrate concentrations [S]**. * In these cases, the velocity of the reaction is only proportional to the enzyme activity and/or [E] * (Zero order kinetics) * Ex: Used to determine the effect of a mutation on a protein activity * Can be used to determine kinestic parameters when performed at limiting [S] concentrations * (First order kinetics)
90
How do you perform activity assays?
1. Mix the enzyme and substrate 2. Record the rate of substrate disappearance/product formation as a function of time (the velocity of the reaction) 3. Change the substrate concentration and repeat 4. Plot the initial velocity vs substrate concentration 5. Generate a standard graph and have a positive control
91
What enzyme is ideal for rapid analysis of multiple samples? How do you use it with assays?
* NAD(P)-dependent dehydrogenase reactions are ideal for rapid analysis of multiple samples. * Reduction of NAD+ or NADP+ produces a new, broad absorption band with a maximum at 340 nm. * Example: using lactate dehydrogenase, the production or consumption of NADH by LDH can be conveniently followed by determine the changes in absorbance at 340 nm * Example: If you couple a hexokinase assay with G6P dehydrogenase, the assay generates reduced form of NADPH that can be measured at 340 nm. **Steps** 1. Measure the optic density (absorbance) of your standards (with known concentrations) at 340 2. Record the optic density of NADH or NADPH formation as a function of time 3. Determine the amount of NADH or NADPH formed using the standard graph
92
What are the four ways enzymatic activity can be regulated after protein synthesis?
1. Sequestration (compartmentation) 2. Association with regulatory proteins 3. Covalent modification 4. Allosteric regulation
93
What is regulation by compartmentation?
* Many enzymes are localized within specific organelles * The organelles provide a favorable environment for the enzymatic reaction, organizes thousands of enzymes into purposeful pathways, and isolates the substrates/products from other competing reactions * Ex: Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the cytosol while oxidation is in the mitochondria
94
What are isozymes?
* **Isozymes** - catalyze some reaction as enzymes, but may differ in their specific regulation, reaction rates, electrophoretic mobility, or immunological properties * Some isozymes may also enhance survival by providing a "backup" copy of an essential enzyme * Release of isozymes into serum may indicate organ damage
95
How can you use lactate dehydrogenase activity to measure organ damage?
* Generation of NADH by LDH is coupled to a colorimetric assay to measure organ damage in serum. * This method is more practical and applicable to multiple samples, and requires less sample compared to electrophoretic techniques
96
What are some ways that activities of regulatory enzymes are modulated?
* **Allosteric enzymes**: a type of enzyme that functions through reversible, noncovalent binding of regulatory compounds called **allosteric modulators** (allosteric effectors), which are small metabolites or cofactors * Reversible **covalent modification** * Binding of a separate **regulatory protein** * Removal of peptide segaments by **proteolytic cleavage**
97
What is feedback inhibition, negative modulators and positive modulators?
* **Feedback inhibition**: the first enzyme in a multi-step pathway is inhibited by the final product of the pathway * **Negative modulators**: inhibit enzyme * **Positive modulators**: stimulate enzyme * Modulators bind non-covalently to a site other than the active site
98
What are homotropic vs heterotropic allosteric regulators?
* **Homotropic**: a regulatory molecule that is also the substrate for its target enzyme (e.g., O2 for hemoglobin) * **Heterotropic**: a regulatory molecule that is not also the enzyme's substrate * It can be an activator or an inhibitor of the enzyme
99
What kinetic properties of allosteric enzymes diverge from M-M behavior?
* Plots of Vo vs [S] usually produce a sigmoidal saturation curve (rather than a hyperbolic curve, as in M-M enzymes) * [S]0.5 or K0.5 represents the [S] giving half-maximal velocity of the reaction
100
How does the sigmoid curve of a homotropic enzyme change when there is a relatively small increase in [S] in the steep part of the curve?
* A relatively small increase in [S] in the steep part of the curve causes a comparatively large increase in Vo
101
How is the sigmoid curve of a heterotropic enzyme altered with activators and inhibitors? How does the Vmax and K0.5 change?
* Activators may cause curve to become more hyperbolic * Inhibitors may cause curve to become more sigmoidal * In most cases, K0.5 is altered but not Vmax * However, there is a less common type of modulation for heterotropic allosteric enzymes where the Vmax is altered but not the K0.5
102
What is aspartate transcarbamoylase and what does it regulate?
* Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase): catalyzes the formation of carbamoyl aspartate in the early steps of pyrimidine biosynthesis * ATP is a heterotropic positive regulator (binds to and activates enzyme) * Purine nucleotide ATP * CTP is a heterotropic negative regulator (binds to and inhibits enzyme) * CTP is an end product of pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway
103
What are the types of covalent modifications (post-translational modifications, PTMs) of metabolic enzymes?
* Regulatory modifications (often reversible): * Phosphorylation * Acetylation * Methylation * ADP-ribosylation * Structural modifications: * Prenylation * Glycosylation * Hydroxylation * Fatty acid acylation * Proteolysis (irreversible)
104
How is phosphorylation used as an enzyme regulation method?
* Regulatory post-translational modification, reversible * Most common PTM of proteins/enzymes (up to 70% of proteins are regulated by this) * Kinases add a phosphate group to the hydroxyl side chains of Ser, Thre, Tyr. * Phosphorylation is removed (reversed) by phosphatases
105
What is reversible acetylation of proteins?
* Acetylation of histones * Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) and histone deacetylases (HDACs) * Acetylation of e-amino groups of Lys residues * About 30% of mitochondrial proteins are acetylated * No clear acetyltransferases (AT) detected in mitochondria * Several NAD+-dependent deacetylases are localized in the mitochondria (SIRT3, SIRT4, SIRT5) * SIRT3 is the major one, involved in tumor suppression as well as many other physiological processes
106
By what mechanism(s) is the activity of glycogen phosphorylase in muscle regulated?
* Multi-level system of regulation * Covalent modification (phosphorylation) * Allosteric regulation * Regulatory cascade sensitive to hormonal status that acts on the enzymes involved in phosphorylation and dephosphorylation
107
What are zymogens and proproteins (proenzymes)?
* **Zymogens**: inactive enzyme precursor that is cleaved to form **active protease enzymes** * **Proproteins (proenzymes)**: enzyme precursors that are cleaved to form **active proteins or enzymes**
108
How does a cascade of proteolytically activated zymogens lead to blood coagulation?
* Fibrinogen --> fibrin * Happens b/c of proteolytic removal of amino acid residues * Serine protease thrombin - catalyzes peptide removal * Factor XIIIa - transglutaminase enzyme that catalyzes the formation of covalent cross-links between fibrins
109
What is a nucleotide? What roles do they play in cells?
* Basic building block of nucleic acids * Consists of a sugar molecule (either ribose in RNA or deoxyribose in DNA) attached to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing base * Bases in DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. Bases in RNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil * Roles * Currency of energy for the cell (ATP) * Signal transduction * Enzyme cofactors * Responsible for carrying genetic information
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What is the structure of nucleotides?
* Pentose sugar (house), phosphate group (sun), purine/pyrimidine base (garage) * The pentose sugar defines whether the nucleotide will become DNA or RNA * DNA has an -H on carbon 2'. RNA has an -OH group * DNA has adenine, guanine, thyamine and cytosine bases. RNA replaces thyamine with uracil * Uracil in DNA results from deamination of cytosine, resulting in mutagenic U-G mispairs and misincorporation of dUMP (which gives a less harmful U-A pair)
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What are purines vs pyrimidines? What bases go with each type?
* Pyrimidine: 1 hexagon ring * Cytosine, thiamine, uracil * Purine: 1 hexagon ring + 1 pentagon ring * Adenine, guanine Purines are (A)lways (G)igantic, while pyrimidines are (C)ertainly (T)iny
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What is the structural difference between adenine and guanine? Between cytosine, thymine, and uracil
* **Guanine**: = O * **Adenine**: no = O * **Cyt(o)sine**: only one = O * **Thymine**: 2 = O, 1 -CH3 * **Uracil**: 2 = O, no -CH3
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What are some minor DNA and RNA bases?
* DNA * Methylated forms of main bases * RNA * Inosine * Commonly found in tRNAs and is essential for proper translation of the genetic code in wobble base pairs * Pseudouridine * Methylguanosine * Thiouridine
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How does the length of hydrogen bonds affect nucleic acids?
* Distance of 2.2-2.5 A = strong, mostly covalent * 2.5-3.2 A = moderate, mostly electrostatic * Hydrogen bonds are mostly in this range * 3.2-4.0 A = weak, all electrostatic
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Why is DNA more stable than RNA?
* The 2' hydroxyl in RNA acts as a nucleophile and can be very reactive. * DNA does not have this 2' hydroxyl group
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What are the weaknesses of nucleotides?
* **Deamination** - spontaneous loss of exocyclic amino groups * **Depurination** - hydrolysis of the N-Beta-glycosyl bond between the base and pentose * **Tautomerization** - formal migration of a hydrogen atom or proton
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What is deamination?
* Spontaneous loss of exocyclic amino groups * Almost certainly the reason for DNA containing thymine rather than uracil * If DNA had uracil, you wouldn't be able to tell if the A-U pair was intentional or if it happened as a result of an accidental deamination of cytosine
118
What is depurination?
* Loss of a purine (more common) or a pyrimidine (less common) * Happens because of the dissolution of the beta-glycosyl bond * Leads to abasic sites * Abasic sites - most common modification in the genome in most organisms, including humans * Sites are labile in the presence of base and can lead to strand break if not repaired * Sites are non-informational, can give rise to miscoding by DNA polymerases
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What is the mechanism of action of ricin?
* Acts by depurination of rRNA * One molecule is enough to kill a cell (LD50 is 1 mg/kg is ingested orally)
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What is tautomerization?
* Formal migration of a hydrogen atom or proton * Accompanied by a switch of a single bond and adjacent double bond * Can result in mismatching of nucleotides during replication and transcription
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What are the tautomerization forms of uracil and when does each predominate?
* Lactam form (neutral) predominates at pH 7.0 * Other forms become more prominant as pH decreases * Lactim: -1 charge (two negative charges, one positive charge) * Similar to cytosine * Double Lactim: +1 charge (one negative and two positive charges) * Similar to thymine
122
What is the difference between nucleoSide and nucleoTide?
* NucleoTide - contain a phosphate group * NucleoSide - does not have phosphate group
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What is the difference between: * A, dA, dAMP, AMP * G, dG, dGMP, GMP * T, dT, dTMP * C, dC, dCMP, CMP * U, UMP
* Single letter form (A, G, T, C, U) are the nucleotide units of DNA or RNA * d- (dA, dG, dT, dC) are another way of symbolizing nucleotide units of DNA * d-MP (dAMP, dGMP, dTMP, dCMP) are the free forms of deoxyribonucleotides * -MP (AMP, GMP, UMP, CMP) are the free forms of ribonucleotides
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What are the biological roles of nucleotides?
* Molecular repositories of genetic information * Energy currency of the cell in metabolic transactions * Essential chemical links in signal transductions * Structural components of a variety of enzyme cofactors and metabolic intermediates
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What are the five levels of gene control?
1. Epigenetics 2. Transcriptional control 2. RNA processing control 3. Translation control 4. Protein activity control
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What is the energy that cells can and must use to maintain their order?
* Free energy * "Currency" is ATP * Energy is present in ATP in the electrostatic repulsion from the four negative charges * Free energy change of hydrolyzing one ATP is -30.5 kJ/mol
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Why is Mg2+ binding to ATP beneficial?
* Formation of MgATP2- complexes partially shields the negative charges (making it more stable) and influences the conformation of the phosphate groups in nucleotides such as ATP and ADP
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What is catabolism vs anabolism? Which one releases energy and which one requires (absorbs) energy?
* Catabolism: the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones, usually involving the release of energy * Anabolism: the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones, usually requiring energy to complete
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What is Gout? What causes it?
* Gout is caused by a condition known as hyperuricemia, where there is too much uric acid in the body * The body makes uric acid when it breaks down purines * Uric acid crystals can build up in joints, fluids, and tissue within the body
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What is amphibolic?
A reaction that involves both catabolism and anabolism
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What is *De Novo* Biosynthesis, Salvage Biosynthesis, and Degradation?
* ***De Novo***: building new nucleotides from basic precursors * **Salvage Biosynthesis**: Recovering free bases or nucleosides to use in the production of nucleotides; major source of nucleotides for synthesis of DNA, RNA, and enzyme co-factors * **Degradation**: Catabolism of nucleotides and removal of the bases as uric acid and urea
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*De novo* synthesis pathways begin with what? How are the other parts needed generally made?
* Begins with metabolic precursors * Amino acids * R5P * CO2 * NH3 * Bases are synthesized while attached to ribose * Glu provides most amino groups * Gly is the precursor for purines
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In *de novo* synthesis of purine nucleotides, what is the first half of the pathway (before GMP and AMP are made)? What is the committed step and what are some key points?
*De novo* Synthesis of Purine Nucleotides **Committed step** * Step 1 - PRPP to 5-Phosph-Beta-D-ribosylamine, using glutamine --> glutamate * Enzyme: glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase **Reactants and Products** * In: PRPP * Out: Inosinate (IMP) **Key Points** * Product of step 9, AICAR, is the remnant of the ATP released during histidine biosynthesis in step 5 * Pathway mainly uses synthetases instead of synthases. * Synthetases use high energy nucleotriphosphates (ATP, GTP). Synthases do not.
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In *de novo* biosynthesis of purines, what is the second half of the pathway (ends with the formation of GMP and AMP)? What are the key points?
* IMP is the first intermediate of the pathway with a complete purine ring. * Hypoxanthine is the base. * IMP is converted to AMP - requires amino group from Asp. * GTP donates phosphate during first step (IMP -> Adenylosuccinate -> AMP) * IMP is converted to GMP - requires an amino group from glutamine. * ATP donates phosphate during the second step (IMP -> XMP -> GMP)
135
What are inhibitors of glutamine amidotransferases? What effect do they have?
* Azaserine, acivicin * These are analogs of glutamine * Glutamine is a nitrogen donor in at least 6 separate reactions in nucleotide biosynthesis. * These inhibitors interfere in several amino acid and nucleotide biosynthetic pathways
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What mechanism(s) regulate *de novo* purine biosynthesis?
1. Transfer of first amine (in R5P) to PRPP is inhibited by IMP, AMP, and GMP (end products) 2. Conversion of IMP to GMP or AMP is inhibited by its own end product 3. Conversion of IMP to GMP or AMP requires the cooresponding other product 4. Allosteric regulation of ribose phosphate pyrophosphokinase by ADP and GDP
137
What are the origins of each atom in the rings of purine?
138
What are the origins of each atom in the ring of pyrimidines?
139
In *de novo* biosynthesis of pyrimidine, what are the three major steps?
1. Pyrimidine ring is synthesized as orotate 2. Orotate ring is attached to PRPP (ribose phosphate) 3. Complex is converted to the common pyrimidine nucleotides
140
In *de novo* biosynthesis of pyrimidine, what is the committed step of the first major transformation? What are the key points?
**Aspartate --> Orotidylate** * Committed step: Aspartate + carbamoyl phosphate --> N-carbamoylaspartate * Enzyme: aspartate transcarbamoylase * Carbamoyl phosphate: synthesized using CO2 and Nh4+, catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II. Also used in Urea cycle * First three enzymes in eukaryotes: carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II, aspartate transcarbamoylase, dihydroorotase * All are in one protein with three identical subunits, all with active sites for each reactions
141
In *de novo* biosynthesis of pyrimidine, what is the second large transformation? What are the key steps?
**Orotate + PRPP --> Orotidylate** * Enzyme: orotate phosphoribosyltransferase
142
In *de novo* biosynthesis of pyrimidines, what is the third large transformation? What are the key points?
**Orotidylate --> UMP --> UTp --> CTP** * Uridylate (UMP) is the precursor the other pyrimidines * The nitrogen donor for production of CTP from UTP is usually Glutamine, but can be NH4+ directly in many species
143
What mechanism(s) are used to regulate *de novo* biosynthesis of pyrimidines?
* Committed step (Aspartate + carbamoyl phosphate -->N-carbamoylaspartate) is allostericlaly inhibited by CTP (end product) * Enzyme: aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase) * ATP accelerates the committed step. * ATP can fully reverse the effects of inhibition by CTP if they are both bound to ATCase
144
How are monophosphates converted to triphosphates?
* ATP donates a phosphate to all NMPs * ADP - adenylate kinase * Others - nucleoside monophaste kinases. These are specific for base but not sugar * Any triphosphate nucleotide can donate the third phosphate, but it is generally ATP b/c it is the most common * Nucleoside diphosphate kinase is non-specific for base or sugar * Glycolytic enzymes or oxidative phosphorylation can generate ATP from ADP as well
145
How are ribonucleotides converted to deoxyribonucleotides?
* Ribonucleotide reductase is responsible * Regulation occurs on multiple levels * Activity - ATP binding activates, dATP inactivates * Substrate specificity - binding of particular substrates provides a complex interaction that balances the overall production of dNTPs
146
What is the biosynthetic pathway for dTMP (thymidylate)?
* Begins with: CDP --> dCDP or UDP --> dUDP, using ribonucleotide reductase enzyme * Middle step: dUTP --> dUMP, using dUTPase * Step must be efficient and fast to prevent incorporation of dUTP into DNA * Ends with: dUMP --> dTMP, using thymidylate synthase enzyme * Key points: * Phosphates are removed before dUTP convervsion * Dideoxy is only substrate * dCTP and dUTP can be converted
147
What drugs target thymidylate synthesis and folate metabolism?
* **Fluorouracil** * Converted to FdUMP in cells, which inhibits thymidylate synthase * **Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, Aminopterin** * Structural analog of tetrahydrofolate, which inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
148
What are two primary impacts of folate on cellular homeostasis?
1. The synthesis of DNA from its precursors (thymidine and purines) is dependent on folate coenzymes 2. A folate coenzyme is required for the synthesis of methionine from homocysteine and methionine is required for the synthesis of S-adenosylmethionine (SAM), the principle methyl-group donor in metabolism
149
What is folic acid, what is its role in cells, and why is it targeted by chemotherapies?
* Folic acid - water soluble supplement (vitamine B9) * Roles: * Replication of DNA * Interconversion of amino acids * Formation of RBCs * Required for growth of normal cells * B/c cancer is associated with higher rates of cell division, the folic acid requirement is much higher * Folic acid receptors get overexpressed on cancer cell surfaces to recompensate the need for folic acid * Modern therapies target this
150
What is Lesch-Nyhann Syndrome?
* X-linked * Purine overproduction due to defects in guanine and hypoxanthine salvage * Symptoms: * Gout and kindey stones * Neurological problems * Mental retardation * Bizarre self-mutilation, such as chewing off fingers
151
What is the general pathway for purine degradation?
* General process * Begins with nucleotides, like GMP and AMP * Removal of phosphates to form nucleosides * Removal of the sugar to form a free base * Uric acid is produced and converted to Allantion in mammals (EXCEPT in humans and higher apes) * Primates excrete much more nitrogen as urea (urea cycle) than as uric acid (purine degradation)A
152
What does an adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency result in?
* Results in a 100-fold increase in dATP, with resultant defects in T and B lymphocyte development * End result is "bubble" people, or people with extreme gout in places other than just their feet * Adensoine deaminase is used to convert adenosine --> inosine in the purine degradation pathway
153
What enzyme and reaction (pathway) does Allopurinol effect? What does Allopurinol do?
* Allopurinol is a treatment for gout * Effects xanthine oxidase enzyme * Enzyme used in purine degradation pathway to convert Xanthine (keto form) --> Uric acid
154
What is the pyrimidine degradation pathway?
* Catabolizes pyrimidines, such as thymine and cytosine * Begins with pyrimidine * Ends with methylmalonylsemialdehyde, which is further degraded by succinyl-CoA * Produces an amonium ion, which becomes urea
155
What is Mercaptopurine (6-MP), what is the brand name, and what does it treat?
* Brand name: Purinethol * Competes with the purine derivatives, hypoxanthine and guanine, for the enzyme HGPRT and is itself convered to thio inosine monophosphate (TIMP) * Used to treat: * Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) * Crohn's diease * Ulcerative colitis * Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) - used in conjunction with Methotrexate to treat ALL
156
What enzymatic reaction is effected in Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?
Hypoxanthine or Guanine --> IMP or GMP * Enzyme: HGPRT * PRPP becomes PPi
157
What are the nucleoSide and nucleoTide names for Adenine and Guanine?
NucleoTide: * RNA - Adenylate, Guanylate * DNA - Deoxyadenylate, Deoxyguanylate NucleoSide: * RNA - Adenosine, Guanosine * DNA - Deoxyadenosine, Deoxyguanosine
158
What are the nucleoSide and nucleoTide names for Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil?
**NucleoSide**: * RNA * Cytidine * Uridine * DNA * Deoxycytidine * Thymidine or Deoxythymidine **NucleoTide**: * RNA * Cytidylate * Uridylate * DNA * Deoxycytidylate * Thymidylate or deoxythymidylate