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MIP 351 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  • Entry through break in skin
  • Mucous membrane contact
  • Ingestion of fecal matter
A

Direct, horizontal transmission

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2
Q
  • Congenital transfer
  • From mother to fetus/newborn
A

Direct, vertical transmission

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3
Q
  • Inhalation of respiratory droplets from an infected person
  • Large, travel less than 1 meter before dropping out of the air
A

Direct, droplet transmission

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4
Q
  • Inhalation of small droplets
  • travel more than 1 meter, hang in the hair for long periods of time
A

Indirect, airborne/aerosol transmission

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5
Q
  • Inanimate surface/reservoir contaminated
  • Pathogen enters through break in skin, mucosal membranes, or ingestion
A

Indirect, contaminates fomite transmission

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6
Q
  • vertebrate animal
  • indirect or direct
  • vector-borne
  • vehicle transmission from contaminated food/water to humans
A

zoonoses

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7
Q
  • ingestion of contaminated food or water
A

Vehicle transmission

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8
Q
  • arthropod carries pathogen, but pathogen does not replicate in vector
A

vector-borne, mechanical transmission

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9
Q
  • arthropod is essential for the pathogen to complete their life cycle
A

vector-borne, biological transmission

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10
Q
  • proteins or carbohydrates on bacterial surfaces that help with adherence
  • Ag43/AIDA
  • LPS
A

Afimbrial adhesins

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11
Q
  • P fimbriae
  • Curli
  • Type I pili
  • Type 4 pili
A

Fimbrial adhesins

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12
Q
  • Flagella
  • Capsule
A

Atypical adhesins

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13
Q
  • common in Gram-negative bacteria
  • form bundles at bacterial poles
  • adhere tp sugar residues on host cells
  • responsible for twitching motility/can “walk” across moist surfaces without flagella
A

Type IV Pili

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14
Q
  • produces shield to inhibit opsonization and phagocytosis
  • usually polysaccharide/sometimes protein
A

capsule

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15
Q
  • more sugar residues
  • produces shield to inhibit MAC formation
  • Long O-antigen
A

Long LPS

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16
Q
  • shield that inhibits opsonization and phagocytosis
  • related to binding antibodies
  • Protein G
A

Surface protein with affinity for Fc of antibodies

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17
Q
  • possessing hyaluronic acid or sialic acid (common host molecule)
  • not immunogenic
A

how capsule or LPS prevents opsonization

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18
Q
  • when original antibody mediated response is no longer effective because they cannot find their target
  • variation when some proteins are changes
  • switch when completely changes
  • on/off when no longer produces
A

Antigenic switching

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19
Q
  • cirvumvention of natural barriers
  • Avoids agglutination by antibodies
  • e.g., enters through M cells, allowing breach of mucosal barrier without prior injury
A

disarming the enemy

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20
Q
  • production of IgA protease
A

Avoids agglutination by antibody

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21
Q
  • Receptor binding
  • Invasin proteins
  • effector proteins
A

mechanisms of intracellular pathogens to induce endocytosis/phagocytosis “hide”

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22
Q
  • replicate in phagosome, need to prevent phagosome/lysosome fusion
  • replicate in cytoplasm, must escape from the phagosome
A

how intracellular pathogens enter host cells

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23
Q
  • siderophores that compete for iron
  • removal or iron from hemoglobin, transferrin, or lactoferrin
  • production of proteases
  • production of hemolysins
A

how iron/nutrients are acquired from the host

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24
Q
  • actin from host aids in motility to infect neighboring cells
  • cell-wide membrane damage results in necrotic cytolysis
A

dissemination

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25
Q
  • break down DNA in pus (dead neutrophils)
A

DNases, dissemination

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26
Q
  • degrade proteins in connective tissue
A

Collagenases, elastases, and proteases, dissemination

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27
Q
  • degrade hyaluronic acid in host connective tissue
A

Hyaluronidases

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28
Q
  • LPS (Endotoxin-Lipid A)
  • LTA
A

Non-protein toxins

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29
Q
  • binds TLRs on phagocytes
  • strong cytokine response, stimulates vasodilation and capillary leakage
  • active coagulation cascade (disseminated intravascular coagulation/hemorrhage)
  • can cause septic shock and heath
A

LPS and LTA/ effect of non-protein toxins

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30
Q
  • an inflammatory response triggered throughout the body
  • due to bacteria or bacterial products in blood
  • hypoglycemia and hypotension observed along with DIC thrombosis
A

septic shock

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31
Q
  • bind to target cell surface and exert effect extracellularly
  • do not enter host cell
  • cause indirect damage due to overstimulation of immune system
  • crosslink MHC on T cells
A

T-cell superantigens, actively released, protein exotoxin, indirect damage

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32
Q
  • act on eukakaryotic cell membranes
A

membrane disrupting toxins, direct damage

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33
Q
  • active only after entry into host cell
A

A-B dimeric/bicomponent toxins, direct damage

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34
Q
  • bacteria usually not in blood
  • cytokines produced by T cells
    vs.
  • live bacteria may be in blood
  • cytokines produced mainly by phagocytes
A

superantigen/toxic shock vs. endotoxin/septic shock

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35
Q
  • digestion of phospholipids
  • formation of pores in membranes
A

two mechanisms of membrane-disrupting toxins

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36
Q
  • binds host receptor
  • allows for endocytosis into endosome
    vs.
  • enzymatically active inside the cell
  • alters protein production
A

subunit B vs. subunit A in A-B toxins

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37
Q

How is the A subunit of the A-B toxin activated

A

Host cell cleaves sulfide bond, active when released

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38
Q

which secretion systems have an injectosomes that can deliver effector proteins into the cytosol of host cells

A

type III and IV

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39
Q
  • structure similar to flagella
  • promotes mainly G- survival
A

Type III secretion system

40
Q
  • effector proteins secretion along with DNA protein complexes
  • G+ and G-
A

Type IV secretion system

41
Q

which secretion system acts like a plunger, releasing effector proteins that kill, intoxicate, or hijack the target cell

A

Type VI

42
Q

what in a lab
- increases safety
- streamlines routine procedures
- may be faster
- may be less prone to human error

A

total lab automation

43
Q

what is usually used for the detection of mycobacteria?

A

acid-fast stain

44
Q

what requires
- dyes that bind microorganisms
- rapid screening
- needs special dyes and microscopes

A

fluorescent microscopy

45
Q
  • can be modified to support growth of specific organisms
    vs.
    -supports growth of most bacteria
  • haemophilus and neisseria will grow
A

blood agar vs. chocolate agar

46
Q

used for antibiotic susceptibility testing

A

Mueller-hinton agar

47
Q

helps recover low numbers of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

A

thioglycolate broth

48
Q

chocolate agar, blood agar, mueller-hinton agar, thioglycolate broth

A

non-selective enriched media

49
Q

G- selective, lactose v non-lactose

A

MacConkey agar

50
Q

staphylococcus, differentiates epidermis and aureus

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

51
Q

salmonella, shigella and e coli

A

XLD agar

52
Q

mycobacteria

A

LJ and Middlebrook agar

53
Q

what are phenotypic and biochemical characteristics used for
e.g., api strip

A

species identification based on ability to ferment different nutrients

54
Q

Immunofluorescence assay (IFA)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Latex agglutination

A

Serological methods

55
Q

direct evidence of bacterial cells or bacterial products present in sample (evidence of infection)

A

Detection of antigen

56
Q

evidence of infection at some point in the past

A

Detection of antibody

57
Q
  • fluorescence
  • colorimetric
  • chemiluminescent
A

signals for immunoassays (ELISA all three, IFA first)

58
Q

detects antigen
vs.
detects antibody or antigen

A

direct vs. indirect

59
Q
  • detects antigen directly
  • useful for intracellular pathogens that cannot be cultured
  • microscope slide with tissue cells
A

direct IFA

60
Q

what type of assay results in an enhanced signal

A

Indirect IFA for detection of antigen

61
Q
  • operates like IFA
  • uses a plate reader rather than a microscope
  • can be biofluids or tissue
  • assay can be quantitative
A

ELISA

62
Q

what type of ELISA results in a higher specificity and sensitivity than regular ELISA
- can be direct or indirect

A
  • capture antibody base
63
Q

latex agglutination
- latex beads coated with antigen to detect antibody
vs.
- antibody coated to detect antigen

not quantitative, cheap easy and quick, lower sensitivity than IFA and ELISA

can test against several pathogens at once

A

indirect vs. direct

64
Q

What is MALDI-ToF MS used for and what does it initially require that PCR does not

A

used for species identification, requires sample culture

65
Q
  • the epidermis, papillary dermis, and reticular dermis
  • epidermis most protective
A

layers of the skin

66
Q
  • sample environmental antigens
  • control commensal-specific T cells in the skin
  • produce pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines to recruit immune cells
A

Langerhans cells and dermis DCs

67
Q
  • produce inflammatory cytokines and secrete histamine for recruiting T cells
A

mast cells

68
Q

what doe neutrophils release in skin to immobilize pathogens along with secreting laminin to induce keratinocyte adhesion (which closes wounds)

A

neutrophil extracellular traps (NET)s

69
Q

which cells induce antiviral state in the skin through IFNgamma and recruit other lymphocytes to the skin

A

CD8+ lymphocytes

70
Q

which cells can localize around hair follicles, controlling commensal populations in proximity and releasing cytokines to modulate other cells

A

CD4+ lymphocytes

71
Q

-cellulitis
-erysipelas
-impetigo
Inflammation of hair follicles:
-folliculitis
-furuncles
-carbuncles

A

superficial skin infections

72
Q

What bacteria are superficial skin infections usually caused by

A

staphylococcus – or streptococcus in cases of cellulitis erysipelas or impetigo

73
Q

Group A strep
vs.
Group B strep
vs.
pneumoniae

A

beta hemolysis (complete destruction_, pyrogenes
vs.
beta hemolysis, agalactiae
vs.
alpha hemolysis

74
Q
  • is gram positive, arranged in chains
  • can be part of normal flora
  • person-to-person via droplets
  • contact with break in skin
  • transient infection of upper respiratory track and skin
  • prone to different host cells
  • only reservoir is humans
A

streptococcus pyrogenes

75
Q

what causes
- impetigo (most common)
- erysipelas and cellulitis
- necrotizing fasciitis
- streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

A

streptococcus pyrogenes

76
Q
  • pus inducing
  • most often caused by s. pyrogenes, clinically indistinguishable from s. aureus
  • 10 day incubation
  • 2-5 yr olds more likely to develop infection
  • requires abrasion/cutaneous cuts
A

impetigo

77
Q

pharyngitis (strep throat) – common 5-15 yrs old

rheumatic fever, kidney infection (glomerulonephritis) – risk in patients with prior pharyngitis

A

non skin infections caused by s. pyrogenes

suppurative (pus-inducing)

vs.

non-suppurative

78
Q

is invasive GAS infection common, mortality rate?

A
  • uncommon
  • high mortality rate
79
Q
  • hyaluronic acid capsule
  • fimbriae with M protein that binds Fc region and blocks binding of C3b
  • fibronectin-binding adhesin
  • pili
A

virulence factors of s. pyrogenes

80
Q

has pore-forming toxins that can lyse red blood cells and directly damage MO and Neutrophils

SLS,SLO, and SPE (____ pyrogenic exotoxins) – latter are superantigens

A

extracellular toxins secreted by s. pyrogenes

81
Q
  • mildly erythematous lesion
  • extensive inflammation 24-72 hrs (dusty then purplish/bullae appear, bacteremia, metastatic)
  • skin becomes gangrenous and undergoes extensive sloughing
  • ill with high fever (high likelihood of mortality)
A

necrotizing fasciitis

82
Q
  • G+
  • Beta hemolysis
  • catalase negative
  • PYR positive
  • susceptible to bacitracin
  • Group A antigen/antibodies
  • M & F fimbriae protein + PCR
  • coagulase negative
A

S. pyrogenes

83
Q

what is main treatment for s. pyrogenes, use combination with what for systemic infections

– resistance to tetracycline and sulfonamides is common
- increasing resistance to erythromycin and newer macrolides is increasingly common

A

beta lactams, clindamycin (protein synthesis inhibitor)

84
Q
  • G+ cocci
  • arranged in clusters
  • non-motile
  • non-spore forming
  • facultative anaerobes
  • toxigenic
A

staphylococcus aureus

85
Q

more common infections:
- impetigo
- folliculitis
- furuncles
- carbuncles
- cellulitis
- wound infections

less common infections:
- bacteremia
- toxin mediated diseases

A

s. aureus

86
Q
  • beta hemolysis
  • coagulase positive

vs.

  • gamma hemolysis
  • coagulase negative
A

s. aureus vs. s. epidermidis

87
Q
  • skin that looks like boiled water was poured over it
  • caused by exfoliative toxins (ETA-heat stable, ETB-heat liable, plasma mediated)
  • proteases split bridges in skin cells, which leads to desquamation
  • only affects top dermis layer, does not cause scarring
A

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

88
Q
  • usually seen in neonates and young children
  • neutralizing antibodies against toxin develop and resolves in 7-10 days
  • cultures can show s. aureus
A

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

89
Q
  • common in high absorbance tampons, trauma, wound infections
  • toxin production requires oxygen and neutral pH (uncommon conditions in wound/abscesses)
  • release of TSST-1 and entry of toxin into bloodstream
A

staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

90
Q
  • what leads to apoptosis in low concentrations by damaging mitochondrial membrane
  • cell lysis at high concentrations
    forms heptamer
A

Panton-Valentine leucocidin (PVL)

91
Q
  • small Gram-negative rod
  • motile
  • obligate aerobe
  • opportunistic pathogen
  • associated with nosocomial infections
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

92
Q
  • important nosocomial pathogen
  • causes ~29% pulmonary infections in intensive care unit
  • most common pathogen involved in sepsis
  • can contaminate hospital-based water reservoir systems
  • most common G-in burn wound infections
  • primary (skin) secondary (associated with bacteremia)
A

p. aeruginosa

93
Q
  • hot tub folliculitis
  • interdigital infections
  • green nail syndrome
  • burn wound infections
  • ecthyma gangrenosum
A

primary skin infections caused by p. aeruginosa

94
Q
  • pili (adhesion)
  • flagellum (motility)
  • alginate polysaccharide capsule (immune evasion, biofilm, adhesion)
A

virulence factors of p. aeruginosa

95
Q
  • exotoxin A (disrupts protein synthesis in host cells)
  • secreted enzymes (elastase, proteases, phospholipases – dissemination)
  • type III ss (injects toxins into cell)
A

secreted virulence factors of p. aeruginosa

96
Q
  • oxidase positive
  • cannot ferment carbohydrates
  • can grow on cetrimide agar
  • growth at 42C
A

pseudomonas

MIP 351 (3 decks)

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