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MicroBio > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

FtsZ is the homologue for

A

tubulin

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2
Q

MreB is the homologue for

A

actin

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3
Q

CreS is the homologue for

A

Intermediate filaments

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4
Q

FtsZ is found in

A

Many bacteria

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5
Q

MreB is found in

A

Rods

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6
Q

CreS is found in

A

Curved bacteria, rare

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7
Q

What does FtsZ do?

A

Forms ring during septum formation

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8
Q

What does MreB do?

A

Maintains shape by positioning peptidoglycan synthesis machinery

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9
Q

What does CreS do?

A

Maintains shape in curved bacteria

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10
Q

Phases of binary fission

A
  1. young cell at early phase of life
  2. parent cell prepares for division (enlarges cell wall, cell membrane, and overall volume)
  3. septum begins to grow inward as the chromosomes move toward opposite ends of the cell, cytoplasmic components are distributed to the two developing cells
  4. septum is synthesized completely through the cell center, creating two separate cell chambers
  5. daughter cells are divided
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11
Q

Septum

A

a partition that forms during cell division to divide two daughter cells

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12
Q

Where will new cell wall form?

A

at septum

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13
Q

Exponential growth

A

When a growing bacterial population is doubling at regular intervals

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14
Q

Generation time

A

Doubling time

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15
Q

Most bacterial chromosomes are

A

circular

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16
Q

Origin of replication

A

site where replication begins

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17
Q

Terminus

A

site where replication is terminated, located opposite of the origin

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18
Q

Replisome

A

group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis

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19
Q

Replication forks

A

the Y-shaped structure where DNA is replicated

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20
Q

DNA replication proceeds

A

bidirectionally

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21
Q

What does it mean for origins to be partitioned?

A

moved to opposite ends of the cell

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22
Q

What pushes chromosomes to opposite ends?

A

Replisome

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23
Q

If ______ is mutated, chromosomes do not separate

A

MreB

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24
Q

T / F : Replisomes stay still, DNA moves

A

T

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25
Q

Septation

A

formation of cross walls between daughter cells

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26
Q

Steps of septation

A
  • selection of site for septum formation
  • assembly of Z ring (linkage of Z ring to plasma membrane)
  • assembly of cell wall synthesizing machinery
  • constriction of cell and septum formation
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27
Q

Septation is related to

A

cytokinesis

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28
Q

Polymerization of ______ forms Z ring

A

FtsZ

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29
Q

_____ forms Z ring in right place

A

MinCDE

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30
Q

_____ blocks FtsZ binding

A

MinC

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31
Q

FtsZ has to bind where

A

mid-cell

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32
Q

T / F : MinCDE is constantly moving

A

T

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33
Q

___ and ____ link Z ring to plasma membrane

A

FtsA and ZipA

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34
Q

Autolysins

A

enzymes that degrade peptidoglycan

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35
Q

Autolysins cleave between

A

NAM and NAG

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36
Q

Transpeptidases

A

peptidoglycan crosslinking enzymes

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37
Q

Inhibit transpeptidases –>

A

cell death

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38
Q

New peptidoglycan synthesis in cocci

A

only forms at the central septum

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39
Q

New peptidoglycan synthesis in rods

A

occurs throughout the cell prior to formation, occurs at the septum during formation

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40
Q

Where you find MreB –>

A

where you find peptidoglycan synthesis

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41
Q

______ plays a critical role in determining rod shape

A

MreB

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42
Q

MreB is absent in

A

cocci

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43
Q

MreB is found where in rods?

A

distributed in helices along the length of the cell

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44
Q

Vibrio bacteria contain

A

both FtsZ and MreB

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45
Q

What gives vibrio bacteria their shape?

A

crescentin (CreS)

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46
Q

Extremophiles

A

grow under harsh conditions that would kill most other organisms

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47
Q

Hypotonic solution

A

lower osmotic concentration outside the cell

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48
Q

What happens in a hypotonic solution?

A

water enters the cell, cell swells and may burst

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49
Q

How cells adapt to hypotonic solution

A

microbes reduce osmotic concentration of cytoplasm (MS channels in plasma membrane allow solutes to leave)

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50
Q

Hypertonic solution

A

higher osmotic concentration outside the cell

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51
Q

What happens in a hypertonic environment?

A

water leaves the cell, membrane shrinks from the cell wall (plasmolysis) may occur

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52
Q

How do cells adapt to hypertonic environments?

A

microbes increase solute concentration to increase their internal osmotic concentration

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53
Q

Halophiles

A

grow optimally in the presence of NaCl or other salts at a concentration > 0.2M

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54
Q

Extreme halophiles

A

require salt concentration of 2M to 6.2M

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55
Q

Halotolerant

A

can grow under elevated salt conditions but do not require high salt for growth

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56
Q

Acidophiles

A

growth optimum between pH 0 - 5.5

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57
Q

Neutrophiles

A

growth optimum between pH 5.5 - 7

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58
Q

Alkaliphiles

A

growth optimum between pH 8.5 - 11.5

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59
Q

Most bacteria that cause infections in humans are

A

neutrophiles

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60
Q

Plasma membrane is impermeable to proton

A

acidophiles

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61
Q

Acidic tolerance response

A

pump protons out of the cell (costs ATP), synthesize acid and heat shock proteins that protect cytoplasmic proteins

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62
Q

T/ F : microbes cannot regulate their internal temperature

A

T

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63
Q

Cardinal growth temperatures

A

minimal, maximal, optimal

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64
Q

Psychrophiles

A

0oC to 20oC

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65
Q

Psychrotrophs

A

0oC to 35oC

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66
Q

Mesophiles

A

30oC to 45oC

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67
Q

Thermophiles

A

55oC to 85oC

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68
Q

Hyperthermophiles

A

85oC to 113oC

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69
Q

How do thermophiles adapt to temperatures?

A

at high temperatures, protein structure can be stabilized via more H bonds, more proline, chaperones

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70
Q

What stabilizes membrane in thermophiles?

A

increase in saturated, branched chain and higher molecular weight lipids (diglycerol tetraethers), and ether linkages (in archaeal membranes)

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71
Q

More prolines –>

A

decreased flexibility

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72
Q

Aerobe

A

grows in presence of atm oxygen, 20% O2

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73
Q

Obligate aerobe

A

requires O2

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74
Q

Anaerobe

A

grows in absence of O2

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75
Q

Obligate anaerobe

A

requires the absence of O2, usually killed in presence of O2

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76
Q

Microaerophiles

A

require 2-10% O2

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77
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

if necessary, can grow without O2 (grow better in its presence)

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78
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

grow equally well with or without O2

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79
Q

Oxic

A

environment in which oxygen is dissolved

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80
Q

Anoxic

A

environment depleted of dissolved oxygen

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81
Q

ROS examples

A

superoxide radical, hydrogen peroxide, hydroxyl radical

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82
Q

Protective enzymes aerobes produce

A

superoxide dismutase (SOD), catalase, peroxidase

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83
Q

Why would something not grow when oxygen is present?

A

some microbe have no way to get rid of ROS

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84
Q

Barotolerant

A

adversely affected by increased pressure

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85
Q

Barophilic (peizophilic)

A

require or grow more rapidly in the presence of increased pressure

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86
Q

Barophilic microbes do what to adapt to increased pressure?

A

change membrane fatty acids

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87
Q

Examples of ionizing radiation

A

X and gamma rays

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88
Q

Ionizing radiation causes what

A
  • disruption of chemical structure of many molecules, like DNA
  • mutations –> death
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89
Q

Polyextremophiles can withstand ____ Gy units

A

5,000

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90
Q

____ Gy units will kill a human

A

5

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91
Q

____ Gy units will kill E. colo

A

200-800

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92
Q

Radiation damage example

A

UV

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93
Q

Wavelength most effectively absorbed by DNA is ___

A

260 nm

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94
Q

To protect themselves from UV radiation, many bacteria produce

A

carotenoid pigments

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95
Q

During a dormant, metabolically inactive state, microbes are

A

breaking down ribosomes, synthesizing starvation response proteins

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96
Q

Persister cells are

A

completely dormant

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97
Q

What do antibiotics not kill and most likely contribute to recurring infections like kidney stones?

A

Persister cells

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98
Q

______ is representative of how bacteria grow naturally

A

biofilms

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99
Q

_____ growth is when microbes grow free-floating in liquid

A

planktonic

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100
Q

Growth of microbes attached to surfaces in colonies

A

biofilm growth

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101
Q

Biofilm formation cycle

A

–> –> Planktonic bacteria –> attachment –> cell-cell adhesion –> proliferation –> maturation –> dispersion –> planktonic bacteria –>

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102
Q

Biofilm matrix is composed of

A
  • polysaccharides
  • proteins
  • DNA
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103
Q

Bacteria imbedded deep in biofilm may become

A

persisters

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104
Q

Quorum sensing is _____ dependent

A

density

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105
Q

Low cell density

A

autoinducer diffuses out

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106
Q

High cell density

A

autoinducer diffuses in

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107
Q

Two major autoinducer molecules of quorum sensing

A
  • N-acyl-homoserine lactones (AHLs)
  • Autoinducer peptides (AIPs)
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108
Q

N-acyl-homoserine lactones (AHLs) are found in

A

Gram (-) bacteria

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109
Q

Autoinducer peptides (AIPs) are found in

A

Gram (+) bacteria

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110
Q

Peptones

A

protein hydrolysates (fragments) prepared by partial digestion of various protein sources

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111
Q

TSA media

A

support the growth of many microorganisms

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112
Q

Enriched media

A

general purpose media supplemented by blood or other special nutrients

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113
Q

Selective media

A

favor the growth of some microorganisms and inhibit the growth of others

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114
Q

Differential media

A

distinguish between different groups of microorganisms based on their biological characteristics

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115
Q

4 phases of growth curve

A

lag phase, exponential phase, stationary phase, death phase

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116
Q

Lag phase

A
  • cells adapting to environment, synthesizing new components
  • no growth
  • need a lot of ribosomes for fast growth
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117
Q

Exponential phase

A
  • also called log phase
  • rate of growth is consistent and maximal
  • high degree of nutrient availability
  • high metabolic rate
  • most uniform stage
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118
Q

Stationary phase

A
  • in a closed system / batch culture, nutrients are depleted, metabolic byproducts build up
  • population growth stops
  • cells enter stationary phase
  • total number of viable cells remains constant
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119
Q

Death phase

A
  • entry into stationary phase due to starvation and other stressful conditions activates survival strategy
    ^ morphological changes
    ^ decrease in size, protoplast shrinkage, nucleoid condensation
    ^ dismantling of ribosomes
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120
Q

Continuous culture

A

maintain a culture in exponential phase indefinitely

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121
Q

Direct cell counts

A
  • spread and pour plates
  • counting chambers
  • optical density
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122
Q

Viable counting methods

A
  • only counts alive cells
  • CFUs
  • spread and pour plate techniques
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123
Q

Catabolism

A
  • breakdown of organic molecules for energy
  • typically a large, complex molecule broken down into smaller simpler ones
  • generate precursors for biosynthesis
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124
Q

Anabolism

A
  • requires energy
  • the synthesis of large complex organic molecules from simpler ones
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125
Q

ΔG (-)

A
  • spontaneous
  • gives off energy
  • exergonic
  • catabolism
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126
Q

ΔG (+)

A
  • not spontaneous
  • requires energy
  • endergonic
  • anabolism
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127
Q

Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is

A

endergonic

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128
Q

ATP is said to have ___ phosphate transfer potential

A

high

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129
Q

RNA nucleotides / other energy sources

A

GTP, CTP, UTP

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130
Q

E0 (standard reduction potential)

A

equilibrium constant for a redox reaction

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131
Q

More negative E0 =>

A

better electron donor

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132
Q

More positive E0 =>

A

better electron acceptor

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133
Q

If electrons passed from a donor pair to an electron pair with more (+) E0

A

energy is released (ΔG is negative)

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134
Q

T / F : first electron carrier has the most negative E0

A

T

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135
Q

Electron carriers are located in ________ of bacteria and archaeal cells

A

plasma membranes

136
Q

Common electron carries

A

NAD, NADP

137
Q

Important consequence of ETC is the formation of a _____

A

proton gradient

138
Q

Protons re-enter the cell through _____ and generate _____

A

ATP synthase, ATP

139
Q

Protons are transported out of the cell during oxidation of _____

A

NADH

140
Q

T / F : biochemical pathways exist in isolation

A

F

141
Q

_____ are molecules that speed up reactions

A

enzymes

142
Q

Enzymes can either be

A

protein or RNA (ribozymes)

143
Q

Protein catalysts

A

substance that increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently altered, high specificity

144
Q

Substrates

A

reacting molecules

145
Q

Enzymes can be composed of

A

one or more polypeptide and/or non-protein components

146
Q

Apoenzyme

A

protein component of an enzyme

147
Q

Cofactor

A

nonprotein component of an enzyme

148
Q

Prosthetic group

A

cofactor firmly attached

149
Q

Coenzyme

A

cofactor loosely attached, can act as carriers/shuttles

150
Q

Holoenzyme =

A

apoenzyme + cofactor

151
Q

Common nonprotein cofactor

A

metals

152
Q

How many major classes of enzymes?

A

6

153
Q

Enzyme speeds up reaction by

A

lowering energy of activation

154
Q

Enzyme activity of significantly impacted by

A
  • substrate concentration
  • pH
  • temperature
155
Q

Denaturation

A

loss of enzyme’s structure and activity when temperature and pH rise too much above optima

156
Q

3 major mechanisms for conservation of energy

A
  1. metabolic channeling
  2. regulation of synthesis of a particular enzyme (transcriptional and translational)
  3. direct stimulation or inhibition of the activity of a critical enzyme (post-translational)
157
Q

Compartmentation

A
  • periplasmic space of Gram (-) bacteria
  • differential distribution of enzymes and metabolites among separate cell structures or organelles
158
Q

Two important reversible control measures for post-translational regulation of enzyme activity

A
  • allosteric regulation
  • covalent modification
159
Q

Allosteric effector

A
  • binds noncovalently at regulatory site
  • changes shape of enzyme and alters activity of catalytic site
  • positive effector increases enzyme activity
    -negative effector inhibits the enzyme
160
Q

Covalent modification enzymes

A
  • reversible on and off switch
  • addition or removal of a chemical group (ex: phosphorylation)
161
Q

Feedback inhibition

A

when product of pathway builds up it inhibits the pathway

162
Q

3 major main metabolic requirements

A
  • energy (ATP)
  • electrons (NADH)
  • carbon
163
Q

Heterotrophs carbon sources

A

reduced, preformed, organic molecules from other organisms

164
Q

Chemotrophs energy sources

A

oxidation of organic or inorganic compounds

165
Q

Autotrophs carbon sources

A

CO2, sole or principal biosynthetic carbon source

166
Q

Phototrophs energy source

A

light

167
Q

Lithotrophs electron source

A

reduced inorganic molecules

168
Q

Organotrophs electron source

A

organic molecules

169
Q

Majority of pathogens are

A

chemoorganoheterotrophs

170
Q

3 processed by which chemoheterotrophs utilize organic molecules for energy

A
  • aerobic respiration
  • anaerobic respiration
  • fermentation
171
Q

Respiration involves used of an ______, while fermentation does not

A

electron transport chain

172
Q

In respiration, ATP is primarily made by

A

oxidative phosphorylation

173
Q

Fermentation uses an ______ electron acceptor

A

endogenous

174
Q

Endogenous means something

A

exists already in the cell

175
Q

In fermentation, ATP is synthesized only by

A

substrate-level phosphorylation

176
Q

Most pathways generate ____ or intermediates of the pathways used in _____ metabolism

A

glucose, glucose

177
Q

Amphibolic pathways

A

have both catabolic and anabolic activity

178
Q

Examples of amphibolic pathways

A

TCA cycle, Embden-Meyerhof pathways, pentose phosphate pathway

179
Q

__________ is the process that can completely catabolize an organic energy source to CO2 using ___, ____, and ____

A

aerobic respiration, glycolysis, TCA cycle, ETC

180
Q

Glycolysis

A

glucose –> pyruvate

181
Q

Aerobic respiration produces

A

ATP and high energy electron carriers

182
Q

3 common glycolysis pathways

A

Embden-Meyerhof pathway, Entner-Duodoroff pathway, pentose phosphate pathway

183
Q

What is the most common glycolytic pathway?

A

Embden-Meyerhoff

184
Q

Embden-Meyerhof (EM) pathway occurs in the ____ of most microorganisms, plants, and animals

A

cytoplasmic matrix

185
Q

Two phases of EM pathway

A
  • six carbon phase
  • three carbon phase
186
Q

The 6 carbon phase of the EM pathway costs the cell ___ ATP

A

2

187
Q

The 3 carbon phase of the EM pathway generates ____ ATP and ____ NADH

A

4, 2

188
Q

EM pathway net gain

A

2 AT, 2 NADH

189
Q

Etner-Duodoroff (ED) pathway net yield per glucose molecule

A

1 ATP, 1 NADH, 1 NADPH

190
Q

The ED pathway is used by

A

soil bacteria and a few Gram (+) bacteria

191
Q

T / F : the pentose phosphate pathway (PP) can operate aerobically or anaerobically

A

T

192
Q

The PP pathway produces

A

NADPH and precursor molecules needed for biosynthesis

193
Q

T / F : TCA cycle is the source of many important carbon precursor molecules

A

T

194
Q

In TCA cycle, each glucose produces

A

6 molecules of CO2, 8 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP (or ATP)

195
Q

Each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized in TCA cycle generates

A

2 CO2, 4 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP (or ATP)

196
Q

How many ATP directly synthesized from oxidation of glucose to CO2?

A

4

197
Q

T / F : most ATP made when NADH and FADH2 are oxidized in ETC

A

T

198
Q

Shorter chain / more branched ETC

A

less efficient

199
Q

Paracoccus denitrificans are

A

facultative anaerobic soil bacterium

200
Q

ETC of E. coli is a ____ pathway

A

branched

201
Q

Upper branch of E. coli ETC

A
  • stationary phase and low aeration
  • less efficient
202
Q

Lower branch of E. coli ETC

A
  • log phase and high aeration
  • more efficient
203
Q

Proton motive force (PMF)

A

the chemical and electrical potential difference between proton levels inside vs outside membrane

204
Q

Flow of protons reentering the cell is an exergonic or endergonic process?

A

exergonic

205
Q

Energy can be harnessed to synthesize ATP via

A

oxidative phosphorylation

206
Q

Proton motive force can also be used for

A

flagella rotation, secondary active transport

207
Q

Diffusion of ____ back across membrane drives formation of ____

A

protons, ATP

208
Q

ATP synthase F0 portion is in the _____

A

plasma membrane

209
Q

ATP synthase F1 portion is in the ____

A

cytoplasm

210
Q

F1 component

A

3 beta subunits and gamma subunit

211
Q

How PMF drives ATP synthesis

A
  • flow of electrons causes gamma subunit to rotate
  • rotation of gamma subunit induces conformation changes in beta subunits
  • conformation changes result in formation of ATP from ADP + Pi
212
Q

Maximum total ATP yield during aerobic respiration is

A

32

213
Q

T/ F : anaerobic respiration generally yields more energy because E0 of electron acceptor is more negative than E0 of O2

A

F

214
Q

Denitrification in soil causes

A

loss of fertility

215
Q

Fermentation: NADH is oxidized to

A

NAD+

216
Q

T / F : oxygen is needed for fermentation

A

F

217
Q

T / F : electron acceptor is often pyruvate or derivative in fermentation

A

T

218
Q

T / F : no ETC in fermentation

A

T

219
Q

T/ F : oxidative phosphorylation occurs in fermentation

A

F

220
Q

T / F : ATP is formed by substrate level phosphorylation in fermentation

A

T

221
Q

Disaccharides and polysaccharides are cleaved by

A

hydrolases and phosphorylases

222
Q

What is converted into other sugars that enter the glycolytic pathway?

A

monosaccharides

223
Q

Triglycerides are hydrolyzed to ___ and ____ by ___

A

glycerol, fatty acids, lipases

224
Q

Protease

A

hydrolyzes protein to amino acids

225
Q

T / F : proteins cannot be used as a carbon source

A

F

226
Q

Deamination

A

removal of amino group from amino acid

227
Q

Over half the photosynthesis on earth is carried out by ___

A

microbes

228
Q

2 part of photosynthesis

A

light and dark reactions

229
Q

Light reactions (description and what it is related to)

A
  • light energy is trapped and converted to chemical energy, catabolism
230
Q

Dark reactions (description and what it is related to)

A
  • energy produced in the light reactions is used to reduce CO2 and synthesize cell constituents (anabolism)
231
Q

Major light-absorbing pigments are

A

chlorophylls

232
Q

____ transfer light energy to chlorophylls

A

accessory pigments

233
Q

T / F : accessory pigments absorb the same wavelengths of light than chlorophylls

A

F

234
Q

Examples of accessory pigments

A

carotenoids and phycobiliproteins

235
Q

Antennas

A

highly organized arrays of chlorophylls and accessory pigments

236
Q

Photosystems

A

Antenna and its associated reaction-center chlorophyll

237
Q

Photosystem I

A

cyclic (no reducing power generated, ATP) or non-cyclic (reducing power generated, works with photosystem II, NADPH

238
Q

Photosystem II

A

non-cyclic (ATP + NADPH made)

239
Q

Five bacterial phyla that carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis

A
  • proteobacteria
  • chlorobi
  • chloroflexi
  • firmicutes
  • acidobacteria
240
Q

T / F : most anoxygenic phototrophs are strict anaerobes

A

T

241
Q

Anoxygenic phototrophs use ____ instead of chlorophylls

A

bacteriochlorophyll

242
Q

In anoxygenic photosynthesis, 1. ETC is cyclic or noncyclic, and 2. one or two photosystems involved?

A

cyclic, one

243
Q

What is generated and synthesized in anoxygenic photosynthesis?

A

PMF generated, ATP synthesized

244
Q

Chlorophyll-independent phototrophic bacteria and archaea use ____

A

bacteriorhodopsin

245
Q

Aspects of chlorophyll-independent phototrophy

A

use bacteriorhodopsin, PMF is generated, ETC is not involved

246
Q

How many precursor metabolites are there?

A

12

247
Q

How are precursor metabolites generated?

A

glycolysis, pentose phosphate pathway, TCA cycle

248
Q

What can be generated from the 12 precursor metabolites?

A

amino acids, lipids, DNA (purine, pyrimidines)

249
Q

Where does the Calvin Cycle occur in cyanobacteria, some nitrifying bacteria, and thiobacilli?

A

carboxysomes

250
Q

Carboxysomes

A

inclusion bodies that may be the site of CO2 fixation

251
Q

3 phases of the calvin cycle

A
  1. the carboxylation phase
  2. the reduction phase
  3. the regeneration phase
252
Q

How many ATP and NADPHs are used in the incorporation of 1 CO2 in the calvin cycle

A

3 ATP, 2 NADPH

253
Q

_____ catalyzes the addition of CO2 to ribulose-1,5-biphosphate (RuBP), forming two molecules of ____

A

rubisco, 3-phosphoglycerate

254
Q

3-phosphoglycerate is reduced to

A

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

255
Q

In the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle, ___ ATP is/are used and ___ NADPH is/are used

A

1,1

256
Q

How many ATP are used in the regeneration phase?

A

1

257
Q

What is produced in the regeneration phase?

A

carbohydrates

258
Q

How many times must the Calvin cycle be completed to generate one 6-carbon molecule?

A

6 times

259
Q

To make one molecule of glucose, how many molecules of CO2, ATP and NADPH are required?

A

6 CO2, 18 ATP, 12 NADPH

260
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

synthesis of glucose and related sugars from non-glucose precursors

261
Q

Gluconeogenesis synthesizes ____ and ____ which then results in the synthesis of

A

glucose and fructose, monosaccharides

262
Q

UDP is involved in the synthesis of

A

polysaccharides

263
Q

Peptidoglycan synthesis utilizes what two carrier molecules

A

UDP derivatives and bactroprenol

264
Q

First step of peptidoglycan synthesis

A

biosynthesis of UDP-NAG

265
Q

UDP-NAG is processed into

A

UDP-NAM

266
Q

Bactroprenol

A

55 carbon lipid used to transport NAG-NAM-pentapeptide (PDG monomer) units across the cell membrane

267
Q

Brief overview of how precursor metabolites are synthesized into amino acids

A
  • carbon skeleton is remodeled
  • amino group added (group containing N)
  • sometimes sulfur group added
268
Q

T /F : ammonia is easily incorporated into organic material because it is more reduced than other forms of inorganic nitrogen

A

T

269
Q

Nitrate reduction to nitrite is catalyzed by

A

nitrate reductase

270
Q

Reduction of nitrite to ammonia is catalyzed by

A

nitrite reductase

271
Q

Reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia is catalyzed by

A

nitrogenase

272
Q

Nitrogenase is found only in

A

bacteria and archaea

273
Q

Nitrogen fixation cost

A

16 ATP, 8 electrons

274
Q

T / F : nitrogen fixation can consume up to 10% of cellular ATP

A

F, up to 20%

275
Q

Sulfur is needed for the synthesis of what amino acids?

A

cysteine and methionine

276
Q

How many ATP are used in assimilatory sulfate reduction?

A

2

277
Q

First step in assimilatory sulfate reduction involves

A

sulfate activation

278
Q

In assimilatory sulfate reduction, sulfate is activated and then converted into _____

A

phosphoadenosine 5’-phosphosulfate (PAPS)

279
Q

The sulfate in PAPS is reduced to

A

sulfite and hydrogen sulfite

280
Q

How many NADPH used in assimilatory sulfate reduction?

A

2

281
Q

What reduced form of sulfate can be used to make cysteine?

A

hydrogen sulfide

282
Q

Fungi combine ___ with serine to make cysteine

A

hydrogen sulfide

283
Q

Bacteria combine ___ with O-acetylserine to make cysteine

A

hydrogen sulfide

284
Q

Oxaloacetate can generate what amino acids

A

methionine, threonine, lysine, isoleucine

285
Q

Nucleoside

A

nitrogenous base-5 carbon sugar

286
Q

Nucleotide

A

nucleoside-phosphate

287
Q

5’ end of DNA has ____

A

phosphate group

288
Q

3’ end of DNA has

A

-OH group

289
Q

T / F : most microbes cannot synthesize their own purines and pyrimidines

A

F

290
Q

Examples of purines

A

adenine and guanine

291
Q

Examples of pyrimidines

A

uracil, cytosine, and thymine

292
Q

Purines

A

cyclic nitrogenous bases consisting of 2 joined rings

293
Q

Pyrimidines

A

cyclic nitrogenous bases consisting of a single ring

294
Q

You cannot synthesize purine unless you have an abundance of __________

A

ribose-5-phosphate

295
Q

First purine formed in biosynthesis is

A

ionsinic acid

296
Q

Initial products of purine biosynthesis are

A

ribonucleotides

297
Q

Pyrimidine biosynthesis begins with _________ and high energy _______

A

aspartic acid, carbamoyl phosphate

298
Q

Initial products of pyrimidine biosynthesis are

A

ribonucleotides

299
Q

Important difference between purine and pyrimidine biosynthesis

A

purine ring synthesized attached to ribose, ribose added after synthesis of pyrimidine ring

300
Q

Compared to soil, waters are ____ oxygen diffusion rate environments

A

low

301
Q

Higher levels of CO2 does what to the pH of seawater

A

decreases it –> more acidic

302
Q

Estuary

A

semi-enclosed coastal region where a river meets the sea

303
Q

Microbes in an estuary must be

A

halotolerant

304
Q

Estuarine waters are _____ and ______

A

calm, nutrient rich

305
Q

Eutrophication

A

enrichment of an ecosystem with chemical nutrients, typically compounds containing nitrogen and phosphorus

306
Q

Eutrophication can lead to

A

algal blooms

307
Q

A harmful algal bloom (HAB) occurs when

A

a single species grows at expense of other members of community

308
Q

Factors that contribute to Lake Erie’s algal bloom

A
  • warm water
  • sunshine
  • abundant supply of nutrients
  • phosphorus from commercial agricultural runoff
309
Q

Cyanobacteria release toxins known as ____ into the environments

A

microcystins

310
Q

Photosynthetic microbes that fix ~half the world’s carbon inhabit the _____ part of the ocean

A

upper 200-300 meters

311
Q

Euphotic zone (photic zone)

A

0-200m, depth at which light penetrates with sufficient intensity so that the rate of photosynthesis by microscopic autotrophs exceeds the collective rate of respiration

312
Q

How do we know undiscovered microbes exist?

A

16S ribosomal subunit

313
Q

Majority of viruses in the ocean are

A

bacteriophages

314
Q

By biomass, _____ and _____ make up ~90% of the microbes in the ocean

A

bacteria and archaea

315
Q

By abundance, ____ makes up 94% of all microbes in the ocean

A

viruses

316
Q

_____ are now recognized as the most abundant “life form” on earth

A

Phage particles

317
Q

Average virus density in seawater is

A

~1E6 - 1E7 per mL

318
Q

Soil contains a large variety of

A

microdomains

319
Q

T / F : level of microbial diversity in soil exceeds that of any other habitat on earth

A

T

320
Q

1 g of soil = ______ cells

A

1E9 - 1E10

321
Q

Intrinsic factors

A

composition, physical and biological state

322
Q

Extrinsic factors

A

temperature, relative humidity, gases, contaminating microorganisms

323
Q

_____ predominates in carbohydrate spoilage

A

mold

324
Q

Mold degrades food by

A

hydrolysis

325
Q

_______ predominates protein spoilage

A

bacterial growth

326
Q

Putrefaction

A

proteolysis and anaerobic breakdown of proteins; foul smelling amine compounds

327
Q

Foul smelling amine compounds involved in protein spoilage

A

cadaverine and putrescine

328
Q

low pH favors

A

yeast and mold

329
Q

_____ temperatures slow microbial growth

A

lower

330
Q

______ levels of humidity promote microbial growth

A

higher

331
Q

____ promotes microbial growth

A

oxygen

332
Q

Methods of food preservation

A

filtration, temperature control, hydration control, chemicals, radiation

333
Q

GRAS chemical preservatives include

A

organic acids, sulfite, ethylene oxide gas, ethyl formate

334
Q

Major fermentations used in food are

A

lactic, propionic and alcoholic

335
Q

12 precursor metabolites

A
  1. Acetyl-CoA
  2. Erythrose 4-phosphate
  3. Fructose 6-phosphate
  4. Glucose 6-phosphate
  5. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
  6. alpha-Ketogluterate
  7. Oxaloacetate
  8. Phosphoenolpyruvate
  9. Succinyl-CoA
  10. 3-phospho-glycerate
  11. Pyruvate
  12. Ribose 5-phosphate

MicroBio (4 decks)

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