Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Replication of DNA is semi-conservative.
A
True
2
Q
Which enzyme is used first to permit DNA polymerase III to begin replicating the 3’ strand?
A
Primase
3
Q
How many hydrogen bonds are there between a A and its paired nucleotide?
A
Two
4
Q
During DNA replication in the lagging strand, there is a production of this component:
A
Okazaki fragment
5
Q
In the lagging strand, the DNA is read from the parental DNA’s 3’ to 5’ end.
A
True
6
Q
The genetic code for the conversion of mRNA codons to proteins has redundancy.
A
True
7
Q
Which enzyme unwraps the double helix?
A
Helicase
8
Q
In DNA, what does the nucleotide labeled as A pair with?
A
Thymine
9
Q
RNA is double stranded.
A
False
10
Q
Uridine is nucleotide in DNA.
A
False
11
Q
Strands in the backbone of DNA are parallel.
A
False
12
Q
During DNA replication, errors are greatly reduced by enzymes that proof read the newly replicated DNA.
A
True
13
Q
For DNA Polymerase III to work, which of these components has to act first?
A
Primase
14
Q
The double helix of DNA is wrapped 1 3/4 times around:
A
Nucleosome
15
Q
The DNA polymerase that replicates the parental strand of DNA reads the parental DNA from 5’ to 3’ and makes a new DNA strand 3’ to 5’.
A
False
16
Q
Which strand is produced more rapidly?
A
Leading strand
17
Q
List one type of post-translation modification:
A
Phosphorylation
18
Q
Which sugar is present in RNA?
A
Ribose
19
Q
During mRNA maturation, what is the name of the part of the mRNA that is removed?
A
Intron
20
Q
Protein synthesis changes from the language of __________ to the language of __________.
A
Nucleotide; Amino Acids
21
Q
RNA synthesis, also called RNA transcription, occurs in three phases. List them from beginning to end in order.
A
Initiation, Elongation, Termination
22
Q
In the ribosome, what is the name of the bond that links one amino acid to the next?
A
Peptide Bond
23
Q
In the ribosome, what pairs with the codon?
A
Anticodon
24
Q
In eukaryotes, what pairs with the codon?
A
Methionine (AUG)
25
How many stop codons exist?
Three
26
Which nucleotide is different in RNA compared to DNA?
Uridine
27
There are two types of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. These two types can be distinguished because the polyribosome is either _________ or _________.
Free; Membrane Bound
28
DNA replication in eukaryotes is sped up by multiple origins of replication.
True
29
Assume that you have a eukaryotic cell with 3 chromosomes within it. How many 5' ends would there be?
6
30
DRAW SUGAR IN DNA AND LABEL THE CARBONS. CIRCLE THE CARBON DIFFERENCE IN RNA.
31
List the two basic categories of nitrogenous bases in nucleic acids.
Purines and Pyrimidines
32
The Calvin-Benson cycle takes in _____________ and NADPH + H+ from the light reaction and also ___________ ___________ to make carbohydrates.
ATP; NADPH + H+
33
The antenna system is in the ______________ membrane.
Thylakoid
34
List three items required for photosynthesis to occur.
Water, CO2, Light
35
The light reactions produce ___________ and ___________ and this process also results in the release of ____________.
ATP; NADPH + H+; oxygen
36
The most abundant protein in the world is called ______________.
Rubisco
37
Glycolysis requires the investment of two_________ in order to obtain a gross output of four ________ .
ATP, ATP
38
Specifically where in a cell does the citric acid/Kreb's cycle occur?
Mitochondrial Matrix
39
Where is carbon dioxide produced?
Mitochondrial Matrix
40
FADH2 results as one of the products of the citric acid cycle. True or False?
True
41
Specifically in a cell where does Glycolysis occur?
Cytoplasm
42
The citric acid/Kreb's cycle breaks down carbohydrates into CO2. True or False?
True
43
The cell does not need ATP to survive. True or False?
False
44
Lymph nodes are a place where cells of the immune system accumulate and share information. True or False?
True
45
You should have your appendix removed whenever possible. True or False?
False
46
Memory cells "remember" the antigen and make a faster and greater response the next time the antigen is encountered. True or False?
True
47
In 1 mL of blood, there are 1.5 million white blood cells. True or False?
False, there is 7million white blood cells in 1mL of blood.
48
Natural killer cells are part of the specific immune system. True or False?
False
49
Any cell can present an antigen on a class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein. True or False?
False, only B-cells and microphages
50
Bone marrow is a site where mature immune cells are found. True or False?
False, immune cells mature in the thymus/spleen
51
Does gravity have a role in some part of the lymphatic fluid flow back to the circulatory system?
Yes
52
Lymphatic tissue is composed of the following five components. Please list them.
1. Lymph Nodes
2. Lymphatic Ducts
3. Thymus
4. Spleen
5. Bone marrow
53
When a B cell is shown an antigen on a class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein it will go through ______________ ______________ and B cells subsequently can become ______________ and/or ______________ ______________.
blast transformation, plasma, memory cells
54
When immune cells mature and can recognize trans-membrane proteins indicating "self", this is called ______________.
Tolerance
55
Red blood cells are a part of the immune system. True or False?
False
56
If a macrophage endocytoses (i.e., eats) an antigen it can digest it and present it on a ______________ Major histocompatibility complex protein to a ______________.
Class II, Helper T-cell
57
Red blood cells originate from the bone marrow. True or False?
True
58
The humoral immune system involves cells in the immune system. True or False?
True
59
Having a fever of 100 oF can help you fight off infections. True or False?
True
60
A bacterium coated by antibodies is a signal that a macrophage should endocytose (eat) it. True or False?
True
61
How does the lymph fluid return from the legs to the circulatory system?
Flexing the leg muscles pushes the lymphatic fluid up the lymph ducts (against gravity) with the help of one-way valves in the ducts that prevent back flow.
62
Any cell can present an antigen on a class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein. True or False?
True
63
B and T cells are called lymphocytes. True or False?
True
64
Inflammation is caused by an increased blood supply due to ______________ released by some cells of the immune system.
Histamine
65
There are times when the spleen can be considered to be the primary lymph node. True or False?
True
66
In the lecture we discussed normal flora, this refers to:
We have bacteria and fungi on the surface of our body. They compete with pathogens for nutrients and have secretions that are toxic to pathogens.
67
Epithelial cells serve as a barrier to prevent non-specific movement of chemicals from one side of the epithelium to the other side. True or False?
True
68
Mast cells release histamine. True or False?
True
69
Adhering junctions are based on two different types of cytoskeleton filament systems. Name those systems.
1) Actin-filament based
| 2) Intermerdiate filament based
70
The molecular seal that serves as the barrier is called a _____________ _____________. While this is a good barrier, such barriers are not very strong and must be underlined by _____________ _____________.
Tight junction, Adhering Junctions
71
What is bile made from? And how does oatmeal reduce cholesterol levels?
Bile is made from cholesterol. Oatmeal is rich in fibers that attach to bile. Therefore, the bile does not get absorbed by the colon and exits the digestive system together. Because the body is losing bile, it needs to produce more, i.e. it has to take cholesterol from other parts of the body, thereby lowering cholesterol levels in the blood.
72
Vitamin K cannot be made by the cells of your body. Where is it made?
Vitamin K is made in the colon by intestinal bacteria (Escherichia Coli)
73
The digestive track begins with the ___________________ and the first enzyme added is ___________________.
Mouth, Amylase
74
How does the pancreas neutralize the pH of the chyme that comes from the stomach?
Pancreas neutralizes the pH of the chyme by releasing bicarbonate ions, which neutralize the pH to about 7.0-7.2.
75
Draw concentric circles and label the four layers of the gut. Also label the hole at the inner most circle. List what is in these four layers.
76
90% of absorption in the intestine occurs where?
Jejunum and Illeum of the small intestine
77
The esophagus has two distinct muscles that close off the tube. What are these called?
1) Upper esophageal sphincter
| 2) Lower esophageal sphincter
78
If something is called a vitamin, it cannot be made by the organism and must be taken in as a part of diet. True or False?
True
79
Think about feedback loops. What triggers the gall bladder to secrete bile?
Intake of fat -> Cholecystokinin
80
List the layer of the digestive track covered by a thick layer of mucous.
Mucosa/ Epithelial layer
81
When glucose is taken in by the digestive track and enters your blood, cells are triggered to take in the glucose by what mechanism?
Insulin released from pancreas, sends glucose channels to membrane, glucose enters cell through facilitated diffusion
82
List the order in which storage compounds are utilized if there is no intake of food.
1) Glycogen storage
2) Fat storage
3) Proteins (not a storage - only emergency)
83
Write a few sentences to distinguish between digestion and absorption.
Digestion is breaking down food into smaller chunks. Absorption is taking in nutrients across the epithelial barrier
84
Name the sphincter that separates the stomach from the small intestine.
Pyloric sphincter
85
In what way is the making of a primary lysosome similar to the enzymes delivered by the pancreas?
Newly formed lysosome containes only inactive enzymes, in the same way enzymes produced by pancreas are released as zymogens, inactive precursors of enzymes
86
Name the main enzyme in the stomach.
Pepsin
87
When amino acids are acquired by food because your body can't make them they are called ___________________ ___________________ ___________________.
essential amino acids
