Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are MDIs and how should they

be used?

A
Metered-dose inhalers. Small, hand-held, 
pressurized devices.  Begin slow 
inhalation before activation, hold 
medicine in lungs for 10 seconds, and 
wait 1 minute between activations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are SMIs and how should they

be used?

A

Soft mist inhalers. Begin slow inhalation,
hold medicine in lungs for 10 seconds,
and wait 1 minute between activations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the advantage of DPIs?
Disadvantage? How fast should the
patient inhale?

A

No hand-lung coordination needed,
breath-activated. Must have adequate
inspiratory flow to inhale powder. Inhale
rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are SVNs and how are they

used? What are the advantages?

A

Small volume nebulizers. Converts a
solution into a mist. Does not require
timing of dose with inhalation, rapid deep
inspiration, or hand strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List three ways glucocorticoids treat

asthma.

A

Suppress inflammation and bronchial
reactivity, decrease mucus production,
increase number and responsiveness of
beta-adrenergic receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first-line treatment for

moderate to severe persistent asthma?

A

Inhaled glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Discuss the proper way to
administer inhaled glucocorticoids.
Why?

A

Gargle & spit after use. Use the beta-
adrenergic inhaler first if one is used. The
beta-adrenergic inhaler opens the airways
so that the glucocorticoid can penetrate
deeper into the lungs. Gargling and
spitting decreases the chance of an
oropharyngeal infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why might oral glucocorticoids be
necessary during stress even if asthma
symptoms are controlled?

A

May need to supplement because stressful
events require bursts of steroids. The
patient may develop adrenal crisis without
supplementation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does montelukast (Singular), a

leukotriene modifier, work?

A

Blocks leukotriene receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are four mechanisms of

action for leukotriene modifiers?

A

Bronchodilation, decreased mucus,
decreased edema, and decreased
eosinophilic infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does Cromolyn, a mast cell

stabilizer, work?

A

Prevents mast cells from lysing and

releasing histamine and other mediators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long must mast cell stabilizers

be used to obtain a therapeutic effect?

A

May take several weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does omalizumab (Xolair)
work? Why are patients asked to stay
in the clinic after injections?

A

Myoclonal antibody binds free IgE so that
it cannot bind to mast cells and cause their
lysis. Risk for anaphylaxis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why are beta2-adrenergic agonists

used?

A

Relieve bronchospasm and prevent

exercise-induced bronchospasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three mechanisms of

action for beta2-adrenergic agonists?

A

Bronchodilation, suppression of histamine

release, increased ciliary motility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between
short-acting and long-acting beta2-
adrenergic agonists?

A
Short-acting: lasts 3-5 hrs, immediate 
effect, used for relief of bronchospasm 
and before exercise.
Long-acting: given every 12 hrs, used to 
prevent bronchospasm.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discuss the adverse effects of beta2-

adrenergic agonists.

A

Tachycardia, angina, tremor,
hypokalemia, nervousness, insomnia,
seizures, paradoxical bronchospasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Discuss three drug-drug
interactions of beta2-adrenergic
agonists.

A
Decreased potassium levels with diuretics, 
glucocorticoids, and methylxanthines.   
Beta-blockers block their therapeutic 
effects. Use of long-acting inhaled 
glucocorticoids may protect against 
increase in asthma-related deaths with 
inhaled long-acting beta2-adrenergic 
agonists.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain how anticholinergic
inhalers work. List three
anticholinergic inhalers.

A
Interrupt parasympathetic response 
causing bronchodilation and decreased 
mucus.
Atrovent (ipratropium)
Spiriva (tiotropium)
Tudorza Pressair (aclidinium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
How many minutes should elapse 
between 2 inhalations of a beta-
adrenergic agonist?  How long should 
the patient hold his breath?  In what 
order should you have the patient take 
two inhalations of an inhaled steroid 
and 2 inhalations of a beta-adrenergic 
agonist inhaler?
A

1 minute
Hold breath for 10 seconds
2 inhalations of beta-agonist, then 2
inhalations of inhaled steroid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
How many times per week can a 
patient have symptoms and still be 
classified as mild intermittent asthma?  
How many night-time symptoms in a 
month?
A

< 2 /week

< 2/month

22
Q

A patient with daily asthma
symptoms is classified as having what
type of asthma?

A

Moderate persistent

23
Q

Explain the PEF zone system. If a
patient’s personal best is 1000 and the
PEF drops to 600, what zone is he in?
What drug should he use?

A

Yellow 50-80%.

Use short-acting beta agonist.

24
Q

In conscious persons with severe
asthmas exacerbations, which drugs
should be administered first?

A

Beta-agonist and ipratropium (Atrovent)

inhalations in a SVN

25
Q

What drug categories are used to

maintain patients who have COPD?

A

Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists or

anticholinergic inhalers.

26
Q

What drugs categories are used
initially for acute exacerbations of
COPD?

A

Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists

alone or with an anticholinergic inhaler.

27
Q

What two drugs may be added for

control of severe COPD?

A

Longterm inhaled glucocorticoids and

Roflumilast (Daliresp)

28
Q

What Drug is for Respiratory Disorders:

A

Potassium (K)

29
Q

Drugs for Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders:

A
  • Complete blood count (CBC) with differential and platelets
  • potassium (K)
  • magnesium (Mg)
30
Q

Drug ending -terol

What is the drug classification and an example?

A

Classification: Bronchodilator
Example: Albuterol

31
Q

List and explain the 4 defensive
factors which protect the stomach and
duodenum from self-digestion.

A
Mucus – forms a barrier to protect 
underlying cells from gastric acid and 
pepsin. 
Bicarbonate – neutralizes any acid which 
penetrates the mucus. 
Blood flow – maintains integrity or health 
of the mucosa 
Prostaglandins – Stimulates mucus and 
bicarbonate, vasodilates blood vessels, 
suppresses gastric secretion
32
Q
Mucus – forms a barrier to protect 
underlying cells from gastric acid and 
pepsin. 
Bicarbonate – neutralizes any acid which 
penetrates the mucus. 
Blood flow – maintains integrity or health 
of the mucosa 
Prostaglandins – Stimulates mucus and 
bicarbonate, vasodilates blood vessels, 
suppresses gastric secretion
A
Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) – gram-
negative bacillus which lives between the 
mucus layer and the mucosa.  Produces 
CO2 and ammonia from urea which 
damages the mucosa. 
NSAIDs – decreases the production of 
prostaglandins which decreases blood 
flow, decreases bicarbonate and mucus 
secretion, and increases gastric acid. 
Gastric Acid – injures cells of the mucosa 
and activates pepsin. 
Pepsin – breaks down protein of the gut 
wall. 
Smoking – delays healing of ulcers and 
increases risk of recurrence.
33
Q

What are three mechanisms of

action for antacids?

A

Binds gastric acid and forms a neutral salt,
decreases pepsin if pH > 5, and stimulates
prostaglandins.

34
Q

How are antacids administered in
relation to meals, sleep, or other drugs?
If not eating, how often are they given?

A

1 and 3 hrs after meals and at bedtime, 1
hour before another drug, or every 2 hours
if not eating

35
Q

Which antacids can cause
complications in heart failure and renal
disease?

A

Aluminum hydroxide and sodium
bicarbonate – heart failure, magnesium
hydroxide – CNS toxicity in renal patients

36
Q

How do histamine2 receptor

antagonists work?

A

Block H2 receptors on parietal cells which
suppress gastric acid secretion and
decrease the hydrogen ion concentration
in gastric acid.

37
Q

How are histamine2 receptor
antagonists administered in relation to
meals?

A

May be taken without regard to meals,

except take Tagamet with food

38
Q

Which histamine2 receptor
antagonist is noted for drug-drug
interactions caused by inhibition of
hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes?

A

cimetidine (Tagamet)

39
Q

Which histamine2 receptor
antagonist is known for its ability to
block androgen effects?

A

cimetidine (Tagamet)

40
Q

Proton-pump inhibitors may
decrease the absorption of antifungals
by what action?

A

Decreased gastric acid production

41
Q

When are proton pump inhibitors

given?

A

Esomeprazole (Nexium) is given one hour
before a meal. Omeprazole (Prilosec) and
lansoprazole (Prevacid) are given directly
before a meal. Others may be given at any
time.

42
Q
How long does it take for full 
recovery of the H+, K+-ATPase pump 
after stopping a proton pump 
inhibitor? 
Why? How long for partial recovery?
A

Weeks due to irreversible inhibition. 3-5

days

43
Q

Why is misoprostol (Cytotec) used?

What are the mechanisms of action?

A

Prevention of NSAID-caused gastric
ulcers. Stimulates the secretion of mucus
and bicarbonate, vasodilates blood
vessels, suppress gastric acid secretion.
Replaces prostaglandins.

44
Q

Why is misoprostol (Cytotec) not

given during pregnancy?

A

Stimulates uterine contractions.

45
Q

How does sucralfate (Carafate)

work? When should it be given?

A

Polymerization and cross-linking occurs
when the pH is < 4. It adheres to the
crater for 6 hours. Given on an empty
stomach.

46
Q

How many hours must elapse
between an antacid and sucralfate
(Carafate)? Between other drugs and
sucralfate (Carafate)?

A

1 hour between an antacid and sucralfate.

2 hours between drugs and sucralfate.

47
Q

In order to kill Helicobacter pylori,

what combination of drugs is given?

A

2-3 antibiotics with a proton pump
inhibitor or histamine-2 receptor
antagonist

48
Q

How does bismuth (Pepto-Bismol)
work? What are two common side
effects?

A

Disrupts the cell wall of H. pylori, inhibits
urease, and keeps H. pylori from adhering
to the mucosa. Black tongue and stools.

49
Q

At what pH will pepsin be

decreased?

A

> pH 5

50
Q

What is the preferred drug category
for the prevention of NSAID-induced
ulcers?

A

Proton Pump Inhibitors

51
Q

What are two signs of

gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Black, tarry stools and coffee-ground

vomitus.

52
Q

What is the acid-neutralizing

capacity (ANC)?

A

The number of mEq of hydrochloric acid
that is neutralized by a given amount of
the antacid.