Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
- The optimal time for beginning rehabilitation is approximately how long after surgery or injury?
a. Immediately after
b. 2 days later
c. 3 to 4 days later
d. A week later
A
a. immediately after
2
Q
- During the evaluation of an injury using the H.O.P.S. format, what is not assessed during the palpation phase?
a. Swelling
b. Temperature
c. Strength
d. Deformity
A
c. strength
3
Q
- Components of a rehabilitation program include:
a. Controlling pain and inflammation
b. Maintain or improve range of motion
c. Restore and increase strength
d. All of the above
A
d. all of the above
4
Q
- In the acronym RICE, the E stands for:
a. Extensibility
b. Eccentric
c. Elevation
d. Excessive
A
c. elevation
5
Q
- In the acronym RICE, the C stands for:
a. Compression
b. Concentric
c. Circulation
d. Comprehensive
A
a. compression
6
Q
- When treating a sprain, the “I” in the acronym RICE stands for:
a. Immobilize.
b. Isolate.
c. Ice.
d. Immediate.
A
c. Ice
7
Q
- The most common use of cold with acute orthopedic injury is to modulate the pain of sprains, strains, and contusions to facilitate _____.
a. Reduction of swelling
b. Healing
c. Therapeutic exercise
d. Reduction of spasm
A
c. therapeutic exercise
8
Q
- Which of the following is a reason to direct rehabilitation by goals?
a. Helps patient see progress
b. Avoids random hit & miss approaches
c. Tailor the intervention to specific needs
d. All the above
A
d. all of the above
9
Q
- When using SOAP notes, long-term and short-term goals are identified in what section of the document?
a. Assessment
b. Objective Evaluation
c. Plan
d. Subjective evaluation
A
c. plan
10
Q
- Which of the following is true with respect to SW diathermy?
a. It heats fat more than muscle
b. Spacing is required between the applicator and the skin
c. It heats due to the production of magnetic fields
d. All of the above
A
c. It heats due to the production of magnetic fields
11
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a local effect of heat application?
a. Increased rate of cell metabolism
b. Increased elasticity of soft tissue
c. Increased skin temperature
d. Increased muscle spindle activity
A
c. increased muscle spindle activity
12
Q
- In what condition would thermotherapy be indicated?
a. Acute pain
b. Decreased range of motion
c. Skin anesthesia
d. Acute musculoskeletal injury
A
b. decreased range of motion
13
Q
- Which of the following ice treatments provides the most compression?
a. Slush
b. Pack with an elastic wrap roll
c. Chemical ice pack
d. Whirlpool
A
b. pack with an elastic wrap roll
14
Q
- The most common type of therapeutic ultrasound used in sports medicine is:
a. 0.1 - 2 MHz
b. 0.7 - 3 MHz
c. 5 - 7 MHz
d. 7 - 10 MHz
A
b. 0.7-2 MHz
15
Q
- Which of the following is not a local effect of heat application:
a. Increased rate of cell metabolism
b. Increased elasticity of soft tissue
c. Increased nerve conduction velocity
d. Increased muscle tone
A
d. increased muscle tone
16
Q
- During which, if any, of the following conditions is therapeutic heat most effective?
a. General muscle soreness
b. Muscle cramp
c. Muscle spasm
d. Acute muscle sprain
A
a. general muscle soreness
17
Q
- Which of the following modalities heats or cools via the water swirls?
a. Hot pack
b. Whirlpool
c. Paraffin bath
d. Two of the above
A
b. whirlpool
18
Q
- Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a paraffin bath?
a. No range of motion
b. Chronic conditions
c. Pain
d. Skin lesions
A
d. skin lesions
19
Q
- Which of the following modalities has the greatest depth of penetration?
a. Moist heat pack
b. Hot whirlpool
c. Paraffin bath
d. 1MHz pulsed ultrasound
A
1 MHz pulsed ultra sound
20
Q
- Which of the following has the greatest effect on increasing range of motion in a patient with adhesive capsulitis in the shoulder?
a. Diathermy
b. Ultrasound
c. Diathermy and passive stretch
d. Ultrasound and passive stretch
A
c. diathermy and passive stretch
21
Q
- A common foot condition with a sudden onset of pain in the arch region that is relieved by becoming non weight-bearing and presents with extreme point tenderness at the plantar surface of the calcaneus may be indicative of what condition?
a. Plantar fasciitis
b. Stress fracture
c. Bruised instep
d. Plantar neuroma
A
a. plantar fasciitis
22
Q
- A fallen medial longitudinal arch is associated with what condition?
a. Fallen metatarsal heads
b. Pes planus
c. Tight Achilles tendon
d. Pes cavus
A
b. pes planus
23
Q
- A bunion is usually associated with a bone growth on what part of the foot?
a. The first toe
b. Any of the toes
c. The internal malleolus
d. The ball of the foot
A
a. the first toe
24
Q
- How many phalanges are in the foot?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 15
d. 14
A
d. 14
25
5. What is another name for the heel?
a. Navicular
b. Talus
c. Cuboid
d. Calcaneus
d. calcaneus
26
6. Which of the following structures is NOT a tarsal bone?
a. Navicular
b. Metatarsal
c. Talus
d. Cuboid
b. metatarsal
27
7. Plantar fasciitis, or heel spur syndrome, is rarely seen in distance runners but is very common in sprinters.
a. True
b. False
b. false
28
8. The lateral compartment of the leg contains which muscles?
a. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
b. Abductor hallucis, lumbricals, interossei
c. Peroneus longus, extensor digitorum longus
d. Peroneus brevis, peroneus longus
d. peroneus brevis and peroneus longus
29
9. What motions occur at the subtalar joint?
a. Plantar flexion and inversion
b. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
c. Eversion and dorsiflexion
d. Inversion and eversion
d. inversion and eversion
30
10. What is the condition when tissue fluid pressure has increased because of the confines of the fascia and/or bone resulting in compression of the muscles, nerves, and blood vessels?
a. Shin splints
b. Tibial periostitis
c. Compartment syndrome
d. Plantar fasciitis
c. compartment sydnrome
31
11. If an athlete steps in a hole and the ankle is forced into dorsiflexion and external rotation, which ligament is usually involved?
a. Anterior talofibular
b. Calcaneofibular
c. Interosseous membrane
d. Anterior tibiofibular
d. anterior tibiofibular
32
12. What is the most common mechanism of injury to the ankle complex?
a. Plantarflexion/inversion
b. Plantarflexion/eversion
c. Dorsiflexion/inversion
d. Dorsiflexion/eversion
a. plantarflexion / inversion
33
13. Third degree inversion ankle sprains are often associated with what trauma?
a. Tearing of all medial ligaments
b. Tearing of a few supportive ligaments
c. Tenderness over the entire medial aspect of the ankle
d. Total rupture of lateral ligaments
d. total rupture of lateral ligaments
34
14. In the lower leg there are how many separate compartments containing muscles, tendons, blood vessels, and nerves?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
c. four
35
15. What symptom is associated with stress fractures?
a. Complaints of pain that increases after activity
b. Poor neuromuscular control
c. Diffuse pain
d. Pain when an athlete is non-weight bearing
a. complaints of pain that increases after activity
36
16. Eversion ankle sprains are associated with which of the following?
a. Tearing of the calcaneofibular ligament
b. Tearing of the deltoid ligament
c. Ligament contusion
d. Fracture of the fibula
b. tearing of the deltoid ligament
37
17. What is the difference between a second degree and third degree ankle sprain?
a. Increased amount of tissue damage with a second-degree sprain
b. Complete loss of function associated with a second-degree sprain
c. Increased instability with a second-degree sprain
d. Increased amount of laxity associated with a third-degree sprain
d. increased amount of laxity associated with a 3rd degree sprain
38
18. What is the most frequently injured aspect of the ankle?
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. Anterior
d. Posterior
b. lateral
39
19. After suffering an eversion ankle sprain, which bone is most likely to be fractured?
a. Calcaneous
b. Talus
c. Navicular
d. Fibula
d. fibula
40
20. Which of the following is the mechanism of injury for an Achilles tendon rupture?
a. Plantarflexion
b. Inversion
c. Dorsiflexion
d. Eversion
a. plantarflexion
41
21. What is the most commonly sprained ligament in the ankle?
a. Anterior tibiofibular
b. Anterior talofibular
c. Deltoid
d. Posterior talofibular
b. anterior talofibular
42
22. What action at the ankle do the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles in the superficial posterior compartment perform?
a. Plantarflexion
b. Inversion
c. Dorsiflexion
d. Eversion
a. plantarflexion
43
23. The ankle joint (Talocrural joint) is capable of dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, and eversion.
a. True
b. False
b. false
44
24. The best way to prevent an ankle injury is through strengthening and bracing.
a. True
b. False
b. false
45
25. The most common ankle injuries result from eversion forces.
a. True
b. False
b. false
46
26. The Achilles tendon rupture is a common injury in young athletes.
a. True
b. False
b. false
47
Poorly applied tape does more harm than good.
a. True
b. False
a. true
48
Treatment for an acute compartment syndrome includes ice, compression, and elevation.
a. True
b. False
b. false
49
If not properly evaluated, compartment syndrome can lead to permanent disability due to the pressure on nerves and blood vessels.
a. True
b. False
a. true
50
The anterior talofibular ligament is responsible for restraining:
a. Posterior displacement of talus
b. Calcaneal tilt
c. Dorsiflexion
d. Anterior displacement of talus
d. anterior displacement of talus
51
Which of the following ligaments protect the knee from valgus stress and external tibial rotational forces?
a. Anterior cruciate
b. Posterior cruciate
c. Medial collateral
d. Lateral collateral
c. medial collateral
52
The Lachman's Test is used to evaluate stability of which of the following?
a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Anterior cruciate ligament
c. Meniscus
d. Patellar femoral joint
b. anterior cruciate ligament
53
3. The mechanism of injury that leaves the posterior cruciate ligament at most risk for injury is which of the following?
a. Hyperextension of the knee
b. Falling with the knee bent and the foot dorsiflexed
d. Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot dorsiflexed
d. A valgus stress with the knee fully extended
a. hyperextension of the knee
54
Which of the following is a condition common to runners characterized by pain and irritation over the lateral femoral condyle?
a. Pes anserine tendinitis
b. Jumper's knee
c. Iliotibial band syndrome
d. Biceps femoris tendonitis
c. iliotibial band syndrome
55
Which of the following endpoints indicates a first-degree sprain to a ligament?
a. Firm with little or no instability and some pain present
b. Soft with some instability present and moderate pain
c. Soft with marked instability with mild pain
d. Abrupt with no pain
a. firm with little or no instability and some pain present
56
Which of the following structures is the main source of static stability in the knee?
a. Menisci
b. Ligaments
c. Bones
d. Cartilage
b. ligaments
57
An athlete who has immediate, significant swelling following an injury is displaying signs consistent with an injury to which of the following?
a. Cartilage
b. Capsule
c. Meniscus
d. Cruciate ligament
d. cruciate ligament
58
Feelings of locking are associated with injury to which structure?
a. Bone
b. Cartilage
c. Ligament
d. Muscle
b. cartilage
59
Most injuries to the medial collateral ligament result from blows to what aspect of the knee?
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. Anterior
d. Posterior
b. lateral
60
Which of the following is correct regarding an injury to the lateral collateral ligament?
a. Results from external rotation of the tibia
b. Is a relatively uncommon injury
c. Can be managed the same as an injury to the ACL
d. Results in major disability
b. is a relatively uncommon injury
61
What is the most common mechanism of injury for a patellar dislocation?
a. The knee is flexed and internally rotated
b. The foot is planted and the knee is in valgus
c. The knee is extended and externally rotated
d. The foot is planted and athlete cuts in same direction
b. the foot is planted and the knee is in valgus
62
A patella usually dislocates in what direction?
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Anterior
d. Posterior
a. lateral
63
Which type of brace can be used for patellar tendinitis?
a. Functional brace
b. Prophylactic brace
c. Neoprene Sleeve
d. Tendonesis strap
d. tendonesis strap
64
The quadriceps muscles primary job is to do which of the following?
a. Flex the knee
b. Rotate the knee
c. Flex the hip
d. Extend the knee
d. extend the knee
65
Which of the following structures have the responsibility of cushioning the knee during impact activity?
a. Cruciate ligaments
b. Menisci
c. Femoral condyles
d. Collateral ligaments
b, menisci
66
Which of the following injuries would NOT cause a joint effusion?
a. Meniscal tear
b. Patellar tendinitis
c. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
d. Medial collateral ligament tear
b. patellar tendinitis
67
Meniscal tears heal well without intervention due to their vascularity.
a. True
b. False
b. false
68
The medial meniscus is prone to disruption by valgus and torsional forces.
a. True
b. False
a. true
69
For a grade III lateral collateral ligament sprain, the recommended treatment is surgical repair followed by vigorous rehabilitation.
a. True
b. False
a. true
70
Injury to the lateral collateral ligament most commonly occurs when the lower leg is internally rotated and the knee is suddenly forced outward.
a. True
b. False
a. true
71
The medial meniscus is much more commonly torn or injured than the lateral meniscus.
a. True
b. False
a. true
72
Jumper's knee is tendinitis of the hamstring tendon caused by repeated landing stress.
a. True
b. False
b. false
73
The ligament injury of the knee generally considered to be the most serious involves the:
a. Anterior cruciate
b. Lateral collateral
c. Medial collateral
d. Posterior cruciate
a. anterior cruciate
74
An athlete is sliding into home plate and catches her foot in plantar flexion and inversion. With the evaluation you find that she heard a “pop,” felt pain immediately and has no endpoint with laxity tests. What degree injury does she have?
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
c. 3rd
75
Osgood Schlatter’s Disease occurs at the:
a. Anterior superior iliac spine
b. Ischial tuberosity
c. Tibial tuberosity
d. Inferior pole of patella
c. tibial tuberosity
